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Law & Ethics E1

Total questions: 43

Worksheet time: 24mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What best describes statutory law?

a)

A law proposed by legislature and enacted by executive. Includes federal statutes, state constitutions, and ordinances

b)

Created, administered, and enforced by an administrative agency, such as the SC LLR

c)

Includes regulations

d)

Published in the Federal Register

2.

What best describes administrative law?

a)

A law proposed by legislature and enacted by executive

b)

Created, administered, and enforced by an administrative agency, such as the SC LLR

c)

Includes state constitutions

d)

Abides by Stare Decisis

3.

What is Stare Decisis?

a)

Removes flexibility of factual differences

b)

The ignoring of judicial opinions and decision making

c)

A principle of common law to abide by previously decided cases

d)

Never becomes codified into statutes

4.

Which term is incorrectly matched to its objective?

a)

Criminal law - punishes those who break the law

b)

Civil action - compensates for damages caused

c)

Administrative action - process of developing legal action

d)

Litigation - resolving legal disputes

5.

The Interstate Commerce Clause regulates drug distribution in the US. What term describes this law?

a)

Federal Law

b)

Stare Decisis

c)

State law

d)

Administrative law

6.

A pharmacist is under investigation for insulting a customer during a dispute. Which of the following types of actions are most likely to occur?

a)

Criminal Law

b)

Civil Action from the customer over mental distress, etc.

c)

Administrative Action from the state board if regulations are broken

d)

None, the customer probably deserved it

7.

A pharmacy technician was negligent in their duties and lead to a patient injury. Which of the following could be involved in the following events?

a)

Civil action from the patient for compensation of injury

b)

Administrative action if state agency regulations were broken

c)

None, the charges would be solely against the pharmacist

d)

Tort law if the court proceedings result in a mistrial

8.

What best describes the purpose of the Pure Food and Drug Act?

a)

Creation of the FDA to monitor drugs and regulate drug approval

b)

Standardization of labels for the use and warnings for drugs, alcohol, food, and other similar products

c)

Creating a tiered system to evaluate the negative outcomes of a drug and how to regulate their availability to consumers

d)

Prohibiting the manufacture, sale, or transport of adulterated, misbranded, etc. foods and drugs

9.

Which of the 3 following characteristics are cons of the 1912 Sherley Amendment to the Pure Food and Drug Act?

a)

Difficult to enforce

b)

Required the government to prove fraudulent intent

c)

Easily avoided by claiming ignorance

d)

Referred only to drug identity

10.

What statement about the Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938 is true?

a)

Provides a basis for civil action in pharmacy-related cases and defines the common law of the era

b)

Fails to expand the definition of misbranding or adulteration

c)

Attempts to prevent unsafe drugs from marketing but has no efficacy requirements

d)

Established the differentiation of Rx and OTC at the time of its passing

11.

The Durham-Humphrey Amendment to the Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act includes what?

a)

The differentiation of Rx and OTC drugs as well as proper instructions for OTC drugs

b)

Requires food additives to have an FDA approval

c)

Requires color additives to have an FDA approval before they can be marketed

d)

Responds to the thalidomide tragedy of the late 1950s

12.

Which amendment to the Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act added the requirement of drugs to be both safe and effective, established cGMP, and allowed FDA inspections and oversight of Rx advertising?

a)

Poison Prevention Packaging Act (1970)

b)

Kefauver-Harris Amendment (1962)

c)

Humphrey-Durham Amendment (1945)

d)

Color and Foods Additives Amendment (1989)

13.

Which act provides various incentives to manufacturers to develop and market drugs for rare diseases according to the NORD?

a)

Kefauver-Harris Amendment (1989)

b)

Orphan Drug Act (1983)

c)

Hurham-Durham Act (1972)

d)

Drug Price Competition and Patent Term Restoration Act (1984)

14.

Which act created Abbreviated NDAs (ANDA) to streamline drug approval processes while also including incentives for generics and new drugs?

a)

Drug Price Competition and Patent Term Restoration Act (1984)

b)

Kefauver-Harris Amendment

c)

Hatch-Harris Amendment

d)

Prescription Drug Marketing Act (1987)

15.

Which of the following acts is prohibited by the Prescription Drug Marketing Act (1987)?

a)

Selling drugs wholesale with a license

b)

A physician's office dispenses a week sample of a drug in exchange for cash

c)

Drug manufacturers produce and ship bottles of acetaminophen without an inner tamper seal

d)

Producing more than the allowed quota of a controlled substance per the guidelines

16.

The _______ Act established application and supplement fees paid to the FDA during drug approval and clinical studies, which now consists of >25% of the FDA funding.

a)

Arsenic Control Act (1642)

b)

Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act (1990)

c)

Prescription Drug User Fee Act (1992)

d)

Omnibus Reconciliation Act (1990)

17.

(True/False) The FDA is allowed to audit foreign drug manufacturers if they are selling in the US as well as implementing new fees for NDAs and medical devices.

a)

True

b)

False

18.

Which act responding to the NECC incident clarified compounding pharmacies' roles and improved the FDA's oversight of the drug supply chain?

a)

Kefauver-Harris Act

b)

FDA Amendments Act (2007)

c)

FDA Safety and Innovation Act (2012)

d)

Drug Quality and Security Act (2013)

19.

Select all of the following areas that the FDA has oversight for:

a)

A stand in the mall selling e-cigarette cartridges

b)

A Doctor of Veterinary Medicine (DVM) prescribing Cerenia for a dog

c)

The sale and production of urinary catheters

d)

The sale, distribution, and marketing of homeopathic products

20.

What is the definition of a drug?

a)

A substance intended to aid in the treatment of a disease

b)

A substance intended for use in the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention of a disease

c)

A substance intended to help prevent a disease

d)

Includes vitamins and dietary supplements

21.

What is the definition of a dietary supplement?

a)

A substance intended for use in the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention of a disease

b)

A product intended for ingestion to supplement the diet and contains an amino acid, botanical, mineral, etc.

c)

A product to supplement the diet and preventing a common disease

d)

A product only intended for prescription use to supplement the diet containing an amino acid, botanical, etc.

22.

A company plans to make a dietary supplement and include that it supports nutrition on the bottle. Is this acceptable?

a)

Yes without any other restrictions

b)

Yes if they include the statement hasn't been evaluated by the FDA and isn't for any drug uses

c)

Yes if the manufacturing area has been evaluated by the FDA within 90 days of first shipping

d)

No not under any conditions

23.

(True/False) Dietary supplements, despite not being drugs, are required to follow cGMP to be able to market in the US.

a)

True

b)

False

24.

You see a TV ad that claims chemical X, a dietary supplement, is a magic bullet cure for diabetes. What agency has oversight over this problem?

a)

FDA Safety Reporting Portal

b)

NIH

c)

FTC

d)

FBI

25.

Select all of the factors that best describe Phase I Trials

a)

Focuses on safety and PK/PD

b)

May have 20-100 healthy volunteers

c)

May have 100-300 patients with the intended disease

d)

Estimates benefit to risk ratio

26.

Which of the following descriptions best fit Phase 2 Trials?

a)

Focuses on long term safety and efficacy

b)

Can be used for dosing ranges

c)

May have 100-300 patients with the intended disease

d)

Used for short term safety

27.

Phase 3 trials are described by which of the following?

a)

Often has long follow up periods

b)

Focuses on short term safety

c)

May have 300-3000 patients with the intended disease

d)

Used to evaluate benefits and risk

28.

Novartis has developed a brand new molecule that they intend to use to treat a disease using a biochemical pathway unlike any other drug. They have just finished preclinical trials to establish that it is safe for humans. What is their next step?

a)

File an investigator IND

b)

File an emergency IND

c)

File a treatment IND

d)

File an SNDA

29.

What is the equivalent of an NDA used for biologic agents according to both the Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act and the Public Health Service Act?

a)

SNDA

b)

BLA

c)

INDA

d)

Treament INDA

30.

Eli Lily hopes to expand an indication and add a package label to an oral antidiabetic agent that is not a biologic agent. What application should they submit?

a)

sBLA

b)

NDA

c)

sNDA

d)

INDA

31.

GSK made news the other year for making their Voltaren (diclofenac) gel for arthritis OTC instead of Rx-only. What application would they submit if they also wanted to make a generic version?

a)

SNDA

b)

ANDA

c)

INDA

d)

SBLA

32.

Which of the following are included in the definition of adulteration?

a)

The product of interest is prepared or stored in unsanitary conditions

b)

The manufacturer isn't using proper quality controls, testing, or otherwise is not cGMP

c)

The drug labels are not factual

d)

The ingredients in the final product are different than USP standards

33.

Which of the following are included in the definition of misbranding?

a)

The final product has different ingredients than USP standards

b)

The drug label has a printing error that makes it incomplete and illegible

c)

The drug label is missing a warning

d)

The drug was improperly stored

34.

An overseas manufacturing company is found to have imported hand sanitizer to the US. The label states the active ingredient is 75% ethyl alcohol USP. Testing finds the bottles hold 35% ethyl alcohol and 37% methanol, a toxic substance not listed on the label. What does this situation count as?

a)

Adulteration

b)

Misbranding

c)

Adulteration and Misbranding

d)

Neither

35.

A DVM at a veterinary hospital is found to have been injecting themself with a controlled substance meant for dispensing to patients and replacing the difference with saline or phenobarbital. What does this count as?

a)

Adulteration

b)

Misbranding

c)

Adulteration and misbranding

d)

Neither

36.

Which of the following is an incorrect drug recall class?

a)

Class 1 - reasonable probability to cause serious adverse reaction or death

b)

Class 2 - might cause temporary/reversible adverse health consequence but serious event chance is remote

c)

Class 3 - products unlikely to cause adverse health consequences

d)

Class 4 - product is being voluntarily recalled by manufacturer due to a minor problem

37.

(True/False) The patient package insert for estrogen products is required to be provided every time such a product is dispensed in the outpatient setting - regardless of how often it is dispensed or how long the patient has had the prescription.

a)

True

b)

False

38.

An advertisement mentions a drug's name, an approved indication, and the most prevalent side effects. What kind of ad is this?

a)

Product Claim advertisement

b)

Reminder advertisement

c)

Help-seeking advertisement

d)

Promotional label

39.

A drug advertisement mentions the name of a drug but doesn't mention or suggest indications, risk information, or any benefit/risk. What kind of ad is this?

a)

Product Claim advertisement

b)

Reminder advertisement

c)

Help-Seeking advertisement

d)

Promotional label

40.

Which of the following are applicable statements for emergency kits?

a)

Holds both controlled and non-controlled drugs

b)

Must be sealed and is replaced when the seal is broken - even if nothing is used

c)

Outside list with each name, strength, amount, expiration, and supplier info

d)

Stored in a location easily accessible by patients and providers

41.

Which of these medications requires child resistant packaging?

a)

SL nitroglycerin dispensed for acute angina

b)

Yaz dispensed in a weekly based package

c)

Amoxicillin oral suspension

d)

Effervescent acetaminophen tablets

42.

What non-controlled drug is limited for purchase by the Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act (CMEA)?

a)

ibuprofen

b)

Heroin

c)

Pseudoephedrine

d)

Methamphetamine

43.

What act requires the offering of oral counseling during prescription dispensing?

a)

OBRA90

b)

FDCA

c)

HIPAA

d)

K-H Amendment