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Small Group Quiz Week 2

Total questions: 24

Worksheet time: 12mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is considered to be the gold standard of measuring ejection fraction?

a)

Cardiac MRI

b)

Nuclear Perfusion Imaging

c)

Exercise Stress echocardiography

d)

TEE

e)

Coronary Calcium Scoring

2.

2) Which of the following is true relating with Variant or Printzmetal’s Angina?

a)

Generally caused by spontaneous thrombus formation

b)

Pain occurs when myocardial oxygen demand increases (demand ischemia)

c)

Produces ST elevation

d)

Caused by chronic narrowing of coronary arteries resulting from atherosclerotic disease

3.

Aside from infectious, the other “I” in VINDICATE stands for what?

a)

Idiopathic

b)

Iatrogenic

c)

Injury

d)

Innate

e)

Inflammatory

4.

Patients with SLE (systemic lupus erythematosus) may present with a prolonged what?

a)

Bleeding time

b)

PT

c)

Thrombin Time

d)

aPTT

e)

FDP

5.

Strain counterstain involves?

a)

trigger point, and muscle lengthening

b)

tender point, and muscle lengthening

c)

tender point, and muscle shortening

d)

Trigger point, and muscle shortening

6.

Which of the following go together?

a)

SCA of inferolateral aspect of spinous process is treated by SARA

b)

SCA of inferolateral aspect of spinous process is treated by SART

c)

SCA of posterior Transverse Process is treated by SART

d)

SCA of posterior Transverse Process is treated by SARA

e)

Both A & C

7.

The quantity of motion required to arrive at the restrictive barrier

is less than the amount required to reach the physiologic barrier.

a)

True

b)

False

8.

1.      Innervation of the parietal pleura is done by the phrenic nerve or the ___ nerve

a)

Vagus nerve

b)

Intercostal nerve

c)

Greater splanchnic nerve

d)

Subcostal Nerve

e)

None of the above

9.

Stimulation of the carotid body via carotid sinus massage is a vagal maneuver used to reduce the heart rate. Which nerve is stimulated by this technique?

a)

Phrenic nerve

b)

     Glossopharyngeal nerve

c)

Vagus nerve

d)

None of the above

10.

When evaluating the therapeutic response for a client receiving a heparin infusion, which laboratory results should be monitored?

a)

Complete blood count (CBC)

b)

Prothrombin time (PT)

c)

International normalized ratio (INR)

d)

Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)

11.

The most common site of coronary artery occlusion is the:

a)

Left anterior descending (or interventricular) artery

b)

Right coronary artery (RCA)

c)

Left circumflex artery

d)

Right circumflex artery

e)

Posterior interventricular artery

12.

1.  Damage to the heart muscle is usually a cause of….and can result in….

a)

Mechanical trauma…constant repolarization

b)

Infectious process…no change

c)

Ischemia…improvement of heart function

d)

Ischemia…constant depolarization 

13.

2.  What is the correct definition of an escape rhythm?

a)

If the SA node is suppressed, the site of impulse may shift to a latent pacemaker within the specialized conduction pathway 

b)

 If a latent pacemaker develops an intrinsic rate faster than that produced by the SA node, it will assume control of the impulse formation.

c)

Cardiomyocytes outside the specialized conduct pathway can acquire automaticity and spontaneously depolarize as a result of cardiac injury.

d)

An action potential can trigger abnormal depolarizations resulting in tachyarrhythmias 

14.

A patient with a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia comes in with angina that began 45 minutes ago.  ECG reading shows ST elevations.  What will a troponin lab show?

a)

Elevated troponin

b)

 Regular troponin

c)

It doesn’t matter because troponin is found in other types of muscle.

15.

A man is found deceased in his home.  Autopsy report states that he died from a myocardial infarction about a week ago.  What findings will be found during the autopsy?

a)

Mottled appearance of the heart with microscopic necrosis, edema, and hemorrhage

b)

Microscopic tissue inflammation surrounding the necrotic area

c)

Gray-white scar is visible on the cardiac tissue

d)

Yellow softening due to connective tissue elements being destroyed and removed along with dead myocardial cells.  Microscopical granulation tissue.

16.

Which Answer choice properly labels the phases of the ventricular pressure-volume loop?

a)

A: End Diastolic Volume, B: End Systolic Volume, C: Mitral Valve Closes, D: Stroke Volume, E: Aortic Valve Opens

b)

A: Stroke Volume, B: End Systolic Volume, C: End Diastolic Volume, D: Isovolumetric Relaxation, E: Aortic Valve Opens

c)

A: End Systolic Volume, B: Isovolumetric Relaxation, C: End Diastolic Volume, D: Stroke Volume, E: Mitral Valve Closes

d)

A: End Systolic Volume, B: End Diastolic Volume, C: Aortic Valve Opens, D: Stroke Volume, E: Aortic Valve Closes

e)

A: Stroke Volume, B: End Systolic Volume, C: End Diastolic Volume, D: Isovolumetric Contraction, E: Mitral Valve Closes

17.

Patient presents with complaints of flu-like symptoms of fever, chills, and fatigue. She also presents with weird markings on her fingernails, seen below. Lab findings include elevated white blood cell count with a leftward shift (higher neutrophils and immature granulocytes), elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate, and elevated serum rheumatoid factor. What would be included in your treatment?

a)

B-Blocker, IV Heparin, Aspirin

b)

Heparin + Warfarin dual treatment for first week then solely warfarin

c)

Aspirin, B-Blocker, P1Y12 Inhibitor, Thrombolytic

d)

IV Antibiotics 4-6 weeks

e)

Exercise Stress Test 

18.

According to the law of laplace, the left ventricular wall stress is directly proportiontal to the left intraventricular pressure and ______.

a)

Radius

b)

Circumfrence

c)

Ventricular wall thickness

d)

Diameter

e)

Area

19.

What arrhythmia is shown on the ECG?

a)

Multifocal AV block

b)

Atrial Flutter with variable AV block

c)

Atrial Fibrillation

d)

Atrial tachycardia with block

e)

Atrial Flutter with 4:1 AV block

20.

What arrhythmia is shown on the ECG?

a)

Ventricular Fibrillation

b)

Multifocal Atrial Tachycardia

c)

 Torsades de Pointes

d)

Ventricular Escape Rhythm

e)

Monomorphic Ventricular Tachycardia

21.

What arrhythmia is shown on the ECG?

a)

Sinus Bradycardia

b)

Atrial Tachycardia with Block

c)

Atrial Fibrillation with Controlled Ventricular Response

d)

Atrial Flutter with 2:1 AV block

e)

Atrial Fibrillation with Rapid Ventricular Block

22.

Which statement best describes a patient with premature atrial contraction?

a)

The pulse taken from the radial artery immediately after the premature contraction will be weak

b)

Stroke volume immediately after the premature contraction will be increased

c)

The P wave is never seen

d)

The probability of these premature contractions occuring is decreased in people with a large caffeine intake

e)

It causes the QRS interval to be lengthened

23.

A 65-year-old woman is admitted to the emergency department with severe chest pain. Laboratory examination reveals that the patient has suffered amyocardial infarction. Cardiac catheterization is performed and the portion of the heart immediately behind the sternum is found to be infarcted. Which artery is most likely occluded?

a)

Circumflex

b)

Anterior interventricular

c)

Posterior interventricular

d)

Left marginal

e)

Right coronary

24.

A 48-year-old man is admitted to the emergency department with chronic angina. Coronary angiography reveals nearly total blockage of the anterior interventricular artery just after it arises from the left coronary. In exposing this artery for a bypass procedure, which accompanying vein must be protected from injury?

a)

Middle cardiac 

b)

Great cardiac

c)

Small cardiac

d)

Anterior cardiac

e)

Posterior cardiac