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Male Reproductive

Total questions: 180

Worksheet time: 2hrs 46mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

You receive an orchiectomy (testis) on a 24 year old. You ID a soft, friable hemorrhagic mass, which effaces the entire testicle and invades into the spermatic cord. This highly aggressive tumor with a poor prognostic outcome is

a)

Seminoma

b)

Teratoma

c)

Choriocarcinoma

d)

Leydig cell tumor

2.

What are germ cell tumors of the testis?

a)

Seminoma

b)

Teratoma

c)

Choriocarcinoma

d)

Yolk sac tumor

e)

Embryonal carcinoma

3.

What is the critical size for staging a tumor of the testis?

a)

1 cm

b)

2 cm

c)

3 cm

d)

4 cm

4.

The testicular lesion shown here is the most common type of germ cell tumors.

**Note there is no hemorrhage**

a)

Seminoma

b)

Teratoma

c)

Choriocarcinoma

d)

Yolk sac tumor

e)

Embryonal carcinoma

5.

What is the name of a collection of fluid that collects in the thin sheath surrounding a testicle?

a)

hydrocele

b)

omphalocele

c)

spermatocele

d)

cystocele

6.

What are non malignant reasons to receive a testicle?

a)

Epididymitis/Orchitis

b)

Torsion

c)

Cryptorchidism

d)

A good time gone very wrong

7.

What is the most common testicular tumor in infants/children up to 3 y.o?

a)

Seminoma

b)

Teratoma

c)

Choriocarcinoma

d)

Yolk sac tumor

e)

Embryonal carcinoma

8.

What are the sex cord stromal tumors of the testis?

a)

Leydig cell tumor

b)

Epididymis tumor

c)

Sertoli cell tumor

d)

Vas deferens tumor

9.

Sections for testicular tumor:

a)

Shave of the spermatic cord margin

b)

Tumor in relation to the mediastinum

c)

Representative of spermatic cord, uninvolved parenchyma, and epididymis

d)

Tumor in relation to tunica albuginea

e)

Tumor in relation to normal parenchyma

10.

For metastatic germ cell tumor, the testicle should be submitted entirely if a tumor is not grossly evident.

a)

true

b)

false

11.

If the testicles are removed for a patient with prostatic carcinoma, how many sections do you submit when no tumor is present?

a)

1 each

b)

2 each

c)

3 each

d)

entirely

12.

What is included in a radical prostatectomy?

a)

Bladder

b)

Urethra

c)

Regional lymph nodes

d)

Entire prostate gland

13.

What is included in a suprapubic/retropubic prostatectomy?

a)

Bladder

b)

Urethra

c)

Regional lymph nodes

d)

Entire prostate gland

e)

Region of prostate obstructing urine flow due to BPH

14.

In what region of the prostate does nodular hyperplasia begin?

a)

transition zone

b)

peripheral zone

c)

central zone

d)

anterior fibromuscular stroma

15.

__________ ___________ _____________ (PSA) is often elevated in men with prostate cancer.

(a)  

16.

What, besides prostate cancer, can cause a rise in prostate specific antigen (PSA)?

a)

Prostatitis

b)

Prostate biopsies and surgery

c)

UTI

d)

Benign prostatic hyperplasia

e)

Vigorous exercise and prostate stimulation (Oh boy)

17.

If a patient is under __, you should consider submitting prostate chips entirely.

a)

40

b)

65

c)

75

d)

90

18.

For a prostatectomy with no gross tumor, you should submit all __________ sections from each slice, and one ________ section each from the left and right.

a)

posterior, anterior

b)

anterior, posterior

19.

Most carcinomas of the prostate are located _________ in the ________ region of the gland.

a)

centrally, apex

b)

peripherally, anterior

c)

peripherally, posterior

d)

centrally, base

20.

Hyperplastic nodules of the prostate are usually found c (a)   around the urethra.

21.

In a penectomy, you submit....

a)

a shave section from the shaft margin (including the skin, erectile bodies, and urethra)

b)

transverse sections through the shaft at two or three different levels

c)

sections of foreskin

d)

longitudinal sections through the glans including a midline section with the urethra

e)

a single tear for the poor man

22.

When grossing a testicular tumor, it is important to note any invasion of the......

a)

Tunica vaginalis or albuginea

b)

Epididymis (most common)

c)

Scrotal wall

d)

Hilar soft tissue

e)

Rete testis

23.

Why is it best to remove an undescended testis?

a)

Other organs may be displaced

b)

Germ cell neoplasm

c)

Infarction

d)

Torsion

24.

The s__________ c_____ is the margin of an orchiectomy.

(a)  

25.

Which IHC stain would you use for HPV related lesions?

a)

p16

b)

Ki67

c)

S100

d)

CK20

26.

What are the most common HPV strains found in young people?

a)

5

b)

6

c)

11

d)

16

e)

18

27.

What is a good guideline for the number of cassettes you would submit on a TURP specimen?

a)

Weigh and give aggregate measurements

b)

If feasible, specify total number of chips (firm, rubbery fragments)

c)

Preferentially submit any chips that are firm or exhibit a yellow or orange-yellow hue

d)

Submit all the tissue no matter what the weight of the specimen

e)

Submit the first 12 grams of tissue (6-8 cassettes), reweigh the specimen and submit an additional block per 5 grams of tissue left

28.

What does the abbreviation TURP stands for?

a)

Transurethral resection of the prostate

b)

Transurethral removal of the prostate

c)

Typical urothelium resection of the prostate

d)

Transitional urethral resection of prostate

29.

What is sometimes received as part of a TURP specimen biopsy besides the soft tissue?

a)

Muscle fragments

b)

Bladder calculi

c)

Bone fragments

d)

Adipose tissue

30.

C__________ a__________ are amyloid bodies commonly found adjacent to damaged prostate epithelium.

(a)  

31.

A Gleason score of 8, 9, or 10 is associated with ________________ prostatic cancer.

a)

low grade

b)

medium grade

c)

high grade

d)

super duper high grade

32.

A Gleason score of 7 is associated with ________________ prostatic cancer.

a)

low grade

b)

medium grade

c)

high grade

d)

super duper high grade

33.

A Gleason score of 6 is associated with ________________ prostatic cancer.

a)

low grade

b)

medium grade

c)

high grade

d)

super duper high grade

34.

What scoring system, based solely on tissue architecture, is used to help stage prostate cancer?

a)

Gleason

b)

Nottingham

c)

Clark

d)

Breslow

35.

What are the zones of the prostate?

a)

Transition

b)

Lateroposterior

c)

Peripheral

d)

Central

36.

Prostate cancer originates in the peripheral and is commonly found in what lobe? (a)   .

37.

In conditions when the median bar of the prostate becomes hypertrophied and bulges into the prostatic urethra it is called?

a)

Anterior lobe

b)

Posterior lobe

c)

Middle lobe

d)

Right lateral lobe

e)

Left lateral lobe

38.

What pathologic diagnosis is consistent with a more advanced tumor? A (a)   (Think microscopic/cellular feature)

39.

Testicular tumors in this age group tend to be what type?

35-40

a)

Seminoma

b)

Pure Teratoma

c)

Embryonal Carcinoma

d)

Choriocarcinoma

e)

Yolk Sac Tumor

40.

Testicular tumors in infants and pediatric cases tend to be what types?

a)

Seminoma

b)

Pure Teratoma

c)

Embryonal Carcinoma

d)

Choriocarcinoma

e)

Yolk Sac Tumor

41.

Testicular tumors in this age group tend to be what type?

25-35

a)

Seminoma

b)

Mixed Teratoma

c)

Embryonal Carcinoma

d)

Choriocarcinoma

e)

Yolk Sac Tumor

42.

What is the average weight of the testis?

a)

25 g

b)

50 g

c)

10 g

d)

2 g

43.

During surgery a retroperitoneal mass was found to compress the right testicular vein and obstruct blood flow so that it did not drain normally into the?

a)

Inferior vena cava

b)

Portal vein

c)

Internal iliac vein

d)

Right renal vein

44.

What is the yellow zone of the prostate?

a)

Peripheral zone

b)

Transition Zone

c)

Central zone

d)

Twilight Zone

45.

What is the pink zone of the prostate?

a)

Peripheral zone

b)

Transition Zone

c)

Central zone

d)

Twilight Zone

46.

What is the orange zone of the prostate?

a)

Peripheral zone

b)

Transition Zone

c)

Central zone

d)

Twilight Zone

47.

What structures must be included in a section of testicle?

a)

Pampiniform plexus

b)

Seminiferous tubules

c)

Epididymis

d)

Vas deferens

48.

In an autopsy, how many sections of the prostate should be taken if the patient is young and it appears normal?

a)

1

b)

2-4

c)

4-6

d)

8-10

49.

In an autopsy, how many sections of the prostate should be taken if the patient is older and it is enlarged?

a)

1

b)

2-4

c)

4-6

d)

8-10

50.

What percentage of elderly white men have undiagnosed prostate cancer?

a)

14%

b)

36%

c)

51%

d)

88%

51.

What percentage of elderly black men have undiagnosed prostate cancer?

a)

14%

b)

36%

c)

51%

d)

88%

52.

What is the purpose of submitting vas deferens/vasa deferentia for pathologic examination?

a)

Demonstrate lumen

b)

Demonstrate calcifications

c)

Rule out nerve

d)

Rule out vessel

53.

What is the name of a benign cyst that forms in the epididymis and contains fluid with possible dead sperm?

a)

hydrocele

b)

spermatocele

c)

omphalocele

d)

cystocele

54.

CPT Code: spermatocele

a)

88305

b)

88302

c)

88307

d)

88309

e)

88304

55.

What is the name of a collection of fluid that collects in the tunica vaginalis surrounding a testicle due to the failure of the processus vaginalis to close in infants, or blocked lymphatic drainage in adults?

a)

hydrocele

b)

spermatocele

c)

omphalocele

d)

cystocele

56.

CPT Code: Hydrocele

a)

88305

b)

88302

c)

88307

d)

88309

e)

88304

57.

What endocrine cells are of mesenchymal origin?

a)

Cortex cells of the adrenal gland

b)

Leydig cells of the testis

c)

Medulla cells of the adrenal gland

d)

Steroid secreting cells of ovarian follicles

58.

What is the pair of erectile tissues?

a)

Corpora aranacea

b)

Corpus spongiosum

c)

Corpora cavernosa

d)

Tunica albuginea

59.

What dense, fibroelastic layer of the testis is this pointing to?

(a)  

60.

What structure of the testis is this?

a)

Vas deferens

b)

Seminal vesicles

c)

Tunica albuginea

d)

Seminiferous tubules

61.

What is the epithelium present in the Vas Deferens?

a)

Non Keratinized Stratified squamous

b)

Pseudostratified Columnar

c)

Simple Columnar

d)

Simple Cuboidal

62.

What tissue surrounds the urethra in the penis?

a)

Corpus spongiosum

b)

Skeletal muscle

c)

Corpora cavernosa

d)

Bulbourethral/Cowper's glands

63.

Which chemical is most likely to cause prostate cancer?

**Found in batteries**

a)

Benzene

b)

Chromium

c)

Cadmium

d)

Arsenic

64.

What are the major components of the male reproductive system?

a)

External genitalia containing the penis and scrotum

b)

Testes

c)

Accessory sex glands

d)

Genital excurrent ducts

65.

What are the accessory sex glands of the male reproductive system?

a)

Seminal vesicles

b)

Prostate

c)

Bladder

d)

Bulbourethral glands

66.

What are the two primary functions of the testis?

a)

Spermatogenesis

b)

Organogenesis

c)

Gametogenesis

d)

Steroidgenesis

67.

What are the two principle androgens?

a)

Estrogen

b)

Androstenedione

c)

Testosterone

d)

Progesterone

68.

What androgen is essential for spermatogenesis and male sexual dimorphism?

a)

Estrogen

b)

Androstenedione

c)

Testosterone

d)

Progesterone

69.

How does cell division occur during production of male gametes?

a)

Mitosis/normal division

b)

Meiosis/normal division

c)

Meiosis/reduction division

d)

Mitosis/reduction division

70.

What week in gestation do testes develop?

a)

Week 1

b)

Week 30

c)

Week 7

d)

Week 15

71.

What gene is responsible for determining male sex?

a)

SOX-9

b)

SRY

c)

WT-1

d)

SF-1

72.

What condition presents as XY females with gonadal dysgenesis with functional female genitalia and no ovaries?

a)

Turner Syndrome

b)

Waterhouse Friderichsen Syndrome

c)

De la Chapelle Syndrome

d)

Swyer Syndrome

73.

What rare congenital intersex condition presents as 46 XX karyotype (otherwise associated with females) that has phenotypically male characteristics that can vary among cases?

a)

Turner Syndrome

b)

Waterhouse Friderichsen Syndrome

c)

De la Chapelle Syndrome

d)

Swyer Syndrome

74.

What gene is required for the development of the urogenital system and regulation of the SRY transcription?

a)

SOX-9

b)

SRY

c)

WT-1

d)

SF-1

75.

What gene is linked to the formation of ambiguous or female sex organs in a genetically male individual (46, XY)?

a)

SOX-9

b)

SRY

c)

WT-1

d)

SF-1

76.

What gene is responsible for the expression of several steroidogenic genes that result in a variety of male sex malformations?

a)

SOX-9

b)

SRY

c)

WT-1

d)

SF-1

77.

Activation of what receptor suppresses the SRY gene during gonadal sex differentiation and its mutation is responsible for congenital adrenal hypoplasia?

a)

SOX-9

b)

DAX-1

c)

WT-1

d)

SF-1

78.

What are the three primary embryologic tissues the testicles are derived from?

a)

Neuroectoderm

b)

Mesodermal epithelium

c)

Intermediate mesoderm

d)

Primordial germ cells

79.

Regardless of the genetic or gonadal sex, the external genitalia will develop along the female template without the presence of what hormone?

a)

Somatostatin

b)

Progesterone

c)

Testosterone

d)

Dihydrotestosterone

80.

What hormone do the Leydig cells of the testicle secrete

a)

Somatostatin

b)

Progesterone

c)

Testosterone

d)

Dihydrotestosterone

81.

What are some of the principle effects of testosterone on the body?

a)

Differentiation CNS, genital apparatus, and genital excurrent duct system

b)

Growth and maintenance of the accessory sex glands

c)

Behavioral effects, including libido

d)

Growth and maintenance of secondary sexual characteristics

e)

Anabolic and general metabolic processes

82.

What week of gestation do testicles in males typically descend?

a)

Week 1

b)

Week 7

c)

Week 26

d)

Week 40

83.

What is the term for undescended testicles, the most common congenital male reproductive abnormality, which has an increased risk of seminoma, atrophy and infertility if not treated before the age of 2?

a)

Accretia

b)

Cryptorchidism

c)

Abruption

d)

Albinism

84.

What vascular system in the testes carries blood from the testis to the abdominal veins?

a)

Pampiniform Plexus

b)

Polio Plexus

c)

Testicular Fairy

d)

Peyer's Patches

85.

What muscle responds to changes in ambient temperature, contracting the testes closer to the abdominal wall, and its relaxation lowers the testes within the scrotum?

a)

Dartos Muscle

b)

Detrusor Muscle

c)

Cremaster Muscle

d)

Abdominal Muscle

86.

What smooth muscle of the scrotum contracts in cold temperatures and causes the scrotum to wrinkle when cold to help regulate heat loss?

a)

Dartos Muscle

b)

Detrusor Muscle

c)

Cremaster Muscle

d)

Abdominal Muscle

87.

Each lobule of the testis contains approximately how many seminiferous tubules?

a)

1-4

b)

50-100

c)

100-200

d)

8-10

88.

What glands produce an alkaline mucous-like secretion in response to sexual stimulation in the penis?

a)

Bulbourethral/Cowper's Glands

b)

Seminal vesicles

c)

Prostate

d)

The glans

89.

What is the pH of semen?

a)

4.0

b)

7.0

c)

7.7

d)

10

e)

Odd thing to have to know

90.

Elevated serum PSA is often an indicator of what concerning disease condition?

a)

Bladder cancer

b)

Something not good

c)

Testicular cancer

d)

Prostate cancer

91.

What zone of the prostate has the most glandular tissue?

a)

Peripheral

b)

Transitional

c)

Central

d)

Periurethral

92.

What type of epithelium is present in the seminal vesicles?

a)

Pseudostratified columnar epithelium

b)

Cuboidal epithelium

c)

Stratified squamous epithelium

d)

Simple columnar epithelium

93.

What substance does the seminal vesicles secrete to sustain sperm?

a)

Maltose

b)

Glucose

c)

Sucrose

d)

Fructose

94.

Where do sperm acquire their motility?

a)

Seminal vesicles

b)

Epididymis

c)

Vas Deferens

d)

Seminiferous Tubules

95.

How many days on average does spermatogenesis take to complete all stages?

a)

30 days

b)

4 days

c)

90 days

d)

74 days

96.

What are the three major phases of spermatogenesis?

a)

Dormant phase

b)

Spermatocyte

c)

Spermatogonial

d)

Spermatid

97.

What insulin-like protein is secreted by the Leydig cells of the testis during embryologic development to stimulate the descent of the testis?

a)

INSL1

b)

INS1

c)

INS3

d)

INSL3

98.

What type of epithelium is present in the membranous urethra?

a)

Transitional

b)

Pseudostratified columnar

c)

Stratified columnar

d)

Stratified squamous

99.

What type of epithelium is present in the prostatic urethra?

a)

Transitional

b)

Pseudostratified columnar

c)

Stratified columnar

d)

Stratified squamous

100.

What type of epithelium is present at the distal end of the penile urethra?

a)

Transitional

b)

Pseudostratified columnar

c)

Stratified columnar

d)

Stratified squamous

101.

What are the three main names for the male urethra?

a)

Prostatic

b)

Corpus

c)

Membranous

d)

Spongy/Penile

102.

What nerve intervention provides efferent fibers for the micturition reflex?

Sympathetic or Parasympathetic

(a)  

103.

What malignant neoplasm is thought to be derived from malignant germ cells that differentiate along the extraembryonic yolk sac?

**Most common testicular tumor in children**

a)

Dysgerminoma

b)

Teratoma

c)

Yolk Sac tumor

d)

Polyembryoma

104.

An aggressive malignant tumor containing so-called embryoid bodies which has features of both yolk sac tumor and undifferentiated teratoma/embryonal carcinoma is consistent with?

a)

Dysgerminoma

b)

Teratoma

c)

Yolk Sac tumor

d)

Polyembryoma

105.

A malformation of the urethral groove and urethral canal present on the ventral surface of the penis, due to the failure of the urethral folds to close, is referred to as?

a)

Phimosis

b)

Epispadias

c)

Hypospadias

106.

A malformation of the urethral groove and urethral canal present on the dorsal surface of the penis, due to abnormal position of the genital tubercle which forms the glans, is referred to as?

a)

Phimosis

b)

Epispadias

c)

Hypospadias

107.

A common condition of the foreskin causing narrowing which results in the loss of normal retraction of the prepuce is?

a)

Phimosis

b)

Epispadias

c)

Hypospadias

108.

Concerning clinical risks associated with Phimosis are?

a)

Development of fibrosis of the foreskin

b)

Possible development of carcinoma

c)

Development of secondary infections

d)

Possible development of calculi

109.

The most frequent benign epithelial tumor of the penis is?

C (a)   acuminatum

110.

What two HPV types are associated with Condyloma acuminatum of the penis?

a)

5

b)

8

c)

6

d)

11

111.

A condition that forms fibrous bands that results in curvature of the penis and associated painful intercourse is?

a)

Phimosis

b)

Epispadias

c)

Hypospadias

d)

Peyroine Disease

112.

The most frequent type of HPV associated with CIS of the penis is?

a)

16

b)

8

c)

6

d)

11

113.

The two types of CIS found associated with the penis are?

a)

Bowen disease

b)

Bowenoid papulosis

c)

Peyroine Disease

d)

Phimosis

114.

Bowenoid papulosis is associated with HPV 16, but varies from Bowen’s Disease clinically because it never develops into an invasive c (a)   and in many cases regresses spontaneously

115.

What surgery in males is associated with lower risks of SCC of the penis?

C (a)  

116.

Non-specific epididymis and orchitis in younger sexually active men is almost always associated with what organisms?

a)

S. aureus

b)

N. gonorrhea

c)

C. trachomatis

d)

S. epidermidis

e)

E. coli

117.

The most common benign paratesticular tumor is?

a)

Adenomatoid tumor

b)

Liposarcomas

c)

Embryonal Carcinoma

d)

Seminoma

e)

Rhabdomyosarcoma

118.

The most common malignant paratesticular tumors are?

a)

Adenomatoid tumor in children

b)

Liposarcomas in adults

c)

Embryonal Carcinoma in children

d)

Seminoma in adults

e)

Rhabdomyosarcoma in children

119.

A very aggressive germ cell tumor of the testis occurring between the ages of 20 and 30 is likely?

a)

Adenomatoid tumor

b)

Liposarcomas

c)

Embryonal Carcinoma

d)

Seminoma

e)

Rhabdomyosarcoma

120.

A rare (<1%) highly malignant germ cell testicular tumor is?

a)

Seminoma

b)

Teratoma

c)

Choriocarcinoma

d)

Yolk sac tumor

e)

Embryonal carcinoma

121.

The two major types of Sex Cord-Gonadal Stromal Tumors are?

a)

Seminoma

b)

Leydig cell tumors

c)

Choriocarcinoma

d)

Yolk sac tumor

e)

Sertoli cell tumors

122.

Most _______ cell tumors are hormonally silent, whereas ________ tumors produce androgens

a)

Leydig, Sertoli

b)

Sertoli, Yolk sac

c)

Sertoli, Leydig

123.

The most common form of testicular neoplasms in men older than age 60 years is?

a)

Seminoma

b)

Lymphoma

c)

Choriocarcinoma

d)

Yolk sac tumor

e)

Embryonal carcinoma

124.

Testicular lymphomas have a higher propensity for __________ nervous system involvement

a)

peripheral

b)

central

125.

Prostate cancer in men is highest in what two groups?

a)

Between 70 and 80 years old

b)

African American men

c)

Between 50 and 60 years old

d)

European American men

126.

The most aggressive variant of prostate cancer is?

Small cell cancer/ N (a)   carcinoma

127.

Prostate cancer typically metastasizes to what area of the body?

a)

Bone (Lumbar Spine)

b)

Lung (Apical Segments)

c)

Liver (Caudate Lobe)

d)

Kidney (Lower Pole)

e)

Brain (Right Hemisphere)

128.

Which of the two HSV serotypes usually involves genital mucosa and skin?

a)

HSV 1

b)

HSV 2

129.

HSV is what type of virus, RNA or DNA virus?

a)

RNA

b)

DNA

130.

What is the most infective transmission stage of an HSV infection, acute or chronic?

a)

acute

b)

chronic

131.

Molluscum contagiosum is caused by what virus?

P (a)  

132.

What type of Molluscum contagiosum is associated with being sexually transmitted?

a)

MCV 1

b)

MCV 2

c)

MCV 3

d)

MCV 4

133.

What virus presents with red papules that progress to vesicles and painful ulcers, severe purulent discharge and pelvic pain, and will often heal spontaneously in 1 to 3 weeks?

a)

HPV

b)

HSV

c)

EBV

d)

MCV

134.

An uncommon condition that creates patchy, white skin that appears thinner than normal that usually affects the genital and anal areas is?

a)

Lichen planus

b)

Lichen vaginalis

c)

Lichen sclerosus

d)

Lichen meningitis

135.

Condyloma acuminatum is most associated with which HPV infections?

a)

HPV 6

b)

HPV 11

c)

HPV 16

d)

HPV 18

136.

What condition results in necrotizing inflammation of the inguinal lymphatics and lymph nodes, and can cause rectal strictures from fibrosis due to chlamydia infection?

a)

Lymphogranuloma venereum

b)

Acute granuloma venereum

c)

Lymphoid venereum

d)

Acute venereum

137.

Squamous cell carcinoma in situ/___________ is a precursor lesion to invasive carcinoma which presents on the shaft of the penis.

a)

Bowen's Disease

b)

Erythroplasia of Queyrat

c)

Bowenoid Papulosis

138.

Squamous cell carcinoma in situ/___________ is a precursor lesion to invasive carcinoma which presents on the glans of the penis.

a)

Bowen's Disease

b)

Erythroplasia of Queyrat

c)

Bowenoid Papulosis

139.

Non-specific epididymis and orchitis in older men is almost always associated with what organisms?

a)

Pseudomonas

b)

N. gonorrhea

c)

C. trachomatis

d)

S. epidermidis

e)

E. coli

140.

How does testicular torsion lead to hemorrhagic infarction?

a)

Blood is still able to flow to the testicle through the strong walled vein

b)

Blood is still able to flow to the testicle through the strong walled artery

c)

Blood cannot leave the testicle because the vein is obstructed

d)

Blood cannot leave the testicle because the artery is obstructed

141.

What is the name of the obstruction of the testicular vein resulting in dilation and scrotal swelling seen in a large percentage of infertile males?

a)

hydrocele

b)

varicocele

c)

spermatocele

d)

cystocele

142.

Which testicle is most likely have a varicocele due to the vein's direct connection to the renal vein, which can be over taken by renal cell carcinoma?

a)

Left

b)

Right

143.

Acute prostatitis in older men is almost always associated with what organisms?

a)

Pseudomonas

b)

N. gonorrhea

c)

C. trachomatis

d)

S. epidermidis

e)

E. coli

144.

Acute prostatitis in younger, sexually active men is almost always associated with what organisms?

a)

Pseudomonas

b)

N. gonorrhea

c)

C. trachomatis

d)

S. epidermidis

e)

E. coli

145.

What are the clinical symptoms of chronic prostatitis?

a)

Hematuria

b)

Dysuria

c)

Pelvic and/or lower back pain

d)

WBCs in prostate secretions

e)

Cultures negative for bacteria

146.

What are the clinical symptoms of acute prostatitis?

a)

Fever and chills

b)

Dysuria

c)

Cultures positive for bacteria

d)

WBCs in prostate secretions

e)

Prostate tender and "boggy" on rectal exam

147.

To treat BPH, there are a few medications used. Alpha-1 antagonist/Terazosin will.....

a)

relax the smooth muscle of the prostate as well the smooth muscle of blood vessels

b)

relax the smooth muscle of the prostate only which is preferable for normotensive patients

c)

inhibit the conversion of testosterone to DHT which promotes BPH

148.

To treat BPH, there are a few medications used. Selective Alpha-1 Antagonist/Tamsulosin will.....

a)

relax the smooth muscle of the prostate as well the smooth muscle of blood vessels

b)

relax the smooth muscle of the prostate only which is preferable for normotensive patients

c)

inhibit the conversion of testosterone to DHT which promotes BPH

149.

To treat BPH, there are a few medications used. 5 Alpha Reductase inhibitor will.....

a)

relax the smooth muscle of the prostate as well the smooth muscle of blood vessels

b)

relax the smooth muscle of the prostate only which is preferable for normotensive patients

c)

inhibit the conversion of testosterone to DHT which promotes BPH

150.

When prostatic adenocarcinoma spread to the bone, there will be an increase in what factors?

a)

Alkaline phosphatase - necessary for osteoblastic activity

b)

Testosterone

c)

Prostate specific antigen (PSA)

d)

Prostatic acid phosphatase (PAP)

151.

Staging of a testicular tumor....what the hell does it all mean:

pTis

a)

germ cell neoplasia in situ

b)

limited to testis (including rete testis invasion) and smaller than 3 cm

c)

limited to testis (including rete testis invasion) and greater than 3 cm

d)

limited to testis with lymphovascular invasion or invasion of epididymis/hilar soft tissue/tunica albuginea with or without lymphovascular involvement

e)

invades scrotum

152.

Staging of a testicular tumor....what the hell does it all mean:

pT1a

a)

germ cell neoplasia in situ

b)

limited to testis (including rete testis invasion) and smaller than 3 cm

c)

limited to testis (including rete testis invasion) and greater than 3 cm

d)

limited to testis with lymphovascular invasion or invasion of epididymis/hilar soft tissue/tunica albuginea with or without lymphovascular involvement

e)

invades scrotum

153.

Staging of a testicular tumor....what the hell does it all mean:

pT1b

a)

germ cell neoplasia in situ

b)

limited to testis (including rete testis invasion) and smaller than 3 cm

c)

limited to testis (including rete testis invasion) and greater than 3 cm

d)

limited to testis with lymphovascular invasion or invasion of epididymis/hilar soft tissue/tunica albuginea with or without lymphovascular involvement

e)

invades scrotum

154.

Staging of a testicular tumor....what the hell does it all mean:

pT2

a)

invasion of spermatic cord

b)

limited to testis (including rete testis invasion) and smaller than 3 cm

c)

limited to testis (including rete testis invasion) and greater than 3 cm

d)

limited to testis with lymphovascular invasion or invasion of epididymis/hilar soft tissue/tunica albuginea with or without lymphovascular involvement

e)

invades scrotum

155.

Staging of a testicular tumor....what the hell does it all mean:

pT3

a)

invasion of spermatic cord

b)

limited to testis (including rete testis invasion) and smaller than 3 cm

c)

limited to testis (including rete testis invasion) and greater than 3 cm

d)

limited to testis with lymphovascular invasion or invasion of epididymis/hilar soft tissue/tunica albuginea with or without lymphovascular involvement

e)

invades scrotum

156.

Staging of a testicular tumor....what the hell does it all mean:

pT4

a)

invasion of spermatic cord

b)

limited to testis (including rete testis invasion) and smaller than 3 cm

c)

limited to testis (including rete testis invasion) and greater than 3 cm

d)

limited to testis with lymphovascular invasion or invasion of epididymis/hilar soft tissue/tunica albuginea with or without lymphovascular involvement

e)

invades scrotum

157.

Why are testicular tumors not biopsied?

a)

To avoid possible seeding of the tumor

b)

A man's jewels are too precious

c)

It is most likely a stromal tumor which are all benign

d)

It is most likely a germ cell tumor which are all malignant

158.

What are characteristics of embryonal carcinoma?

a)

Hemorrhagic mass

b)

Necrosis

c)

Forms glands

d)

Increased beta human chorionic gonadotropin or alpha fetoprotein

e)

Can differentiate into a teratoma with chemotherapy

159.

Teratomas in males are benign.

a)

true

b)

false

160.

Why is a mumps infection more concerning in teenage males than children?

a)

It causes orchitis which can lead to sterility

b)

It causes torsion which can lead to sterility

c)

It causes cryptorchidism which can lead to sterility

161.

_______ of the epididymis is common in males with cystic fibrosis.

a)

Hypertrophy

b)

Atrophy

c)

Aplasia

d)

Malfunction

162.

The morphology of a _________ is sheets of uniform polygonal cells with cleared cytoplasm; lymphocytes in the stroma

a)

Seminoma

b)

Lymphoma

c)

Choriocarcinoma

d)

Yolk sac tumor

e)

Embryonal carcinoma

163.

Penile neoplasms most commonly arise on the...

a)

at the base

b)

glans

c)

in the urethra

d)

shaft

164.

CPT Code: Foreskin, Newborn

a)

88305

b)

88302

c)

88307

d)

88309

e)

88304

165.

CPT Code: Testis, Castration

a)

88305

b)

88302

c)

88307

d)

88309

e)

88304

166.

CPT Code: Vas Deferens, Sterilization

a)

88305

b)

88302

c)

88307

d)

88309

e)

88304

167.

CPT Code: Foreskin, Other than Newborn

a)

88305

b)

88302

c)

88307

d)

88309

e)

88304

168.

CPT Code: Testicular Appendage

a)

88305

b)

88302

c)

88307

d)

88309

e)

88304

169.

CPT Code: Testicular Appendage

a)

88305

b)

88302

c)

88307

d)

88309

e)

88304

170.

CPT Code: Vas Deferens, Other than Sterilization

a)

88305

b)

88302

c)

88307

d)

88309

e)

88304

171.

CPT Code: Prostate, Needle Biopsy

a)

88305

b)

88302

c)

88307

d)

88309

e)

88304

172.

CPT Code: Prostate, TUR

a)

88305

b)

88302

c)

88307

d)

88309

e)

88304

173.

CPT Code: Testis, Other than Tumor/Biopsy/Castration

a)

88305

b)

88302

c)

88307

d)

88309

e)

88304

174.

CPT Code: Prostate, Except Radical Resection

a)

88305

b)

88302

c)

88307

d)

88309

e)

88304

175.

CPT Code: Testis, Biopsy

a)

88305

b)

88302

c)

88307

d)

88309

e)

88304

176.

CPT Code: Prostate, Radical Resection

a)

88305

b)

88302

c)

88307

d)

88309

e)

88304

177.

CPT Code: Testis, Tumor

a)

88305

b)

88302

c)

88307

d)

88309

e)

88304

178.

Circumcisions of young males (18-25) are most commonly performed for which reason?

a)

Varicocele

b)

Phimosis

c)

Neoplastic lesions

d)

Hypospadias

179.

Circumcisions of older men (>50) are most commonly performed for which reason?

a)

Varicocele

b)

Phimosis

c)

Neoplastic lesions

d)

Hypospadias

180.

What is the most common cause of a penectomy?

a)

Transitional cell carcinoma

b)

Rhabdomyosarcoma

c)

Squamous cell carcinoma

d)

Basal cell carcinoma

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