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Traumatic Brain Injury 1

Total questions: 25

Worksheet time: 13mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A 115 yo F is admitted to inpatient rehabilitation after TBI from an unhelmeted motor cycle accident. She was found to have widespread white matter lesions with focal findings within the corpus callosum on MRI. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Diffuse axonal injury Grade I

b)

Subdural Hematoma

c)

Diffuse axonal injury Grade II

d)

Subarachnoid Hemorrhage

e)

Diffuse axonal injury Grade III

2.

What is true regarding penetrating traumatic brain injuries?

a)

Lower mortality rate compared to non-penetrating

b)

Greater risk of long-term post-traumatic epilepsy compared to non-penetrating

c)

Patients who are initially comatose have a favorable prognosis

d)

50% of patients with through and through injuries survive

3.

The term diaschisis is described by which of the following?

a)

Healthy structures not previously used for a given function are repurposed to do functions for the lesioned area

b)

Intact axons in damaged areas establish synaptic connections through dendritic and axonal sprouting

c)

Techniques/new strategies are learned to compensate for deficits

d)

Lesions at one area of the CNS alter function at other distant areas of the brain where there are connections between the two sites

e)

Areas of the brain alter their properties in order to subserve a particular function

4.

What disorder of consciousness is characterized by resumption of the sleep-wake cycle on EEG?

a)

Vegetative state

b)

Coma

c)

Minimally conscious state

d)

Full consciousness

5.

A patient with TBI shows wakefullness and is able to give a thumbs up on command about 30% of the time. What stage of consciousness is he in?

a)

Permanent vegetative state

b)

Persistent vegetative state

c)

Coma

d)

Conscious

e)

Minimally conscious state

6.

Patient with MVA TBI presents to the ED but the preferred CT scanner is down. Which neuropsychological assessment would be the best for assessment of brain damage?

a)

Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory

b)

Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale - Revised

c)

Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Battery

d)

Token Test

7.

Which of the following indicators of demographics and imaging indicate a worse outcome?

a)

Age < 45, right hemisphere lesion in right handed individual.

b)

Age >75, left sided lesion in right handed individual.

c)

Age <25, bi-hemispheric lesion.

d)

Age > 65, bi hemispheric lesion.

8.

Comatose patient presents with GCS score of 6 is brought into the ED. Careful endotracheal intubation is done as patient may have cervical instability. What should his PO2 and PCO2 goals be in mmHg?

a)

PO2 100 to 120 & PCO2 28-32

b)

PO2 65 to 85 & PCO2 14 to 18

c)

PO2 160 to 180 & PCO2 40 to 44

9.

An intubated TBI patient in the ICU starts to have more prolonged episodes of hypotension, bradycardia and bradypnea with apneic episodes. What is not a possible reason?

a)

The benzodiazepines used for agitation are scheduled too closely, resulting in increasing toxicity

b)

The patient's ICP is rising and thus causing herniation compressing the brainstem

c)

The propofol infusion is set too rapid, resulting in compounding adverse effects

10.

What FIM level is associated with "cueing, coaxing, and prompting"?

a)

4: Minimal Assist

b)

5: Supervision

c)

6: Modified Independent

d)

7: Independent

11.

This is the leading cause of death in people ages 1 to 44:

a)

Cancer

b)

Heart Disease

c)

Trauma

d)

Marijuana

12.

The single most common cause of death and injury in automobile accidents is:

a)

Crush injury

b)

Asphyxiation

c)

Occupant ejection

d)

Blood loss

13.

Nearly half of TBI patients are:

a)

Not married

b)

Single

c)

Married

d)

Divorced

14.

Alcohol is involved in what percent of TBIs?

a)

5%

b)

25%

c)

45%

d)

75%

15.

Which area of the brain is most likely to experience a contusion?

a)

Inferior frontal lobe

b)

Inferior occipital lobe

c)

Posterior temporal lobe

d)

Anterior parietal lobe

e)

Superior occipital lobe

16.

76 y/o M with a TBI from a fall has Posttraumatic Amnesia. At what length of PTA would you suspect the patient to likely have poor recovery?

a)

2 weeks

b)

1 month

c)

2 months

d)

4 months

17.

54 y/o F with a TBI from a GSW which has been complicated with PTA. You have been assessing his Galveston Orientation and Amnesia Test (GOAT) every day. GOAT scores are as follows: August 1st: 55, August 2nd: 65, August 3rd: 75, August 4th: 80, August 5th: 85. On what day was the PTA resolved?

a)

August 1st

b)

August 2nd

c)

August 3rd

d)

August 4th

e)

August 5th

18.

23 y/o M with a TBI from an MVA has been making progressive cognitive recovery during his ARF. He was previously requiring seroquel for agitation but has not required it for 3 days. He is currently confused but inappropriate with staff. What is his Rancho score?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

5

d)

7

19.

On your TBI service, you have 4 patients with various severities of TBI. Which patient would you suspect to have poor outcome with their TBI?

a)

Patient requiring continued phenytoin

b)

35 y/o female

c)

Patient with reactive pupils following TBI

d)

Decorticate posturing observed following initial TBI

20.

54 y/o M with a TBI following motorcycle accident has had PTA. His GOAT scores are as follows: Day 5: 60, Day 6: 75, Day 7: 70, Day 8: 75, Day 9: 80. Based on duration of PTA, what would you determine the severity of his TBI to be?

a)

Mild TBI

b)

Moderate TBI

c)

Severe TBI

21.

You evaluate a patient who exhibits simple command following, object manipulation, and intelligible verbalization that are inconsistent but reproducible. Which of the following level of consciousness would you describe this as?

a)

Coma

b)

Vegetative state

c)

Minimally conscious state

d)

Persistent vegetative state

22.

What is the mechanism of action for amantadine in the treatment of disorders of consciousness?

a)

increases endogenous dopamine

b)

increases exogenous dopamine

c)

stimulates dopamine, histamine, serotonin, norepinephrine, and orexin

d)

blocks reuptake of dopamine and norepinephrine

23.

A patient is exhibiting posturing that involves opisthotonos, clenched jaws, and stiff, extended limbs with internal rotation of the arms and ankle plantar flexion. What is this posturing called and where is the lesion/compression?

a)

Decerebrate; midbrain, cerebellum, or posterior fossa

b)

Decerebrate; cerebral hemisphere/white matter, internal capsule, or thalamus

c)

Decorticate; midbrain, cerebellum, or posterior fossa

d)

Decorticate; cerebral hemisphere/white matter, internal capsule, or thalamus

24.

When using GCS to evaluate TBI prognosis what is the best acute predictor of outcome?

a)

Total GCS within 3 hours of injury

b)

Highest verbal response within 48 hours of injury

c)

Highest GCS within 1 week of injury

d)

Highest motor score 2 weeks postinjury

25.

Which of the following is true?

a)

Metabolic causes of coma have a better prognosis than anoxic causes

b)

Anoxic causes of coma have a better prognosis than metabolic

c)

Severe disability is likely when coma lasts < 2 weeks

d)

Good recovery is still likely even when coma lasts > 4 weeks