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Worksheets

NEHA 5th Edition Questions

Total questions: 215

Worksheet time: 2hrs 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the MOST common cause of bacteria meningitis in children under five years of age?

a)

Neisseria meningitides

b)

Group B Streptococci

c)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

d)

Haemophilus influenzae

2.

How is "giardiasis" USUALLY transmitted to others?

a)

Person-to-person transfer of cysts from the feces of the infected individual

b)

Drinking unfiltered water from streams and lakes

c)

Drinking unboiled water from streams and lakes

d)

Drinking inadequately chlorinated water from a municipal water distribution system

3.

Which of the following duties of state and local health agencies is focused to protect the public's health and welfare?

a)

Community-intensive planning

b)

Statutory administrative action

c)

Regulatory responsibilities

d)

Plan implementation

4.

Which of the following is a measure of the amount of light scattered by particles suspended in a water test sample?

a)

Formazin Turbidity Units (FTU)

b)

Nephelometric Turbidity Units (NTU)

c)

Hydrosyntalic Turbidity Units (HTU)

d)

Lorcetic Turbidity Units (LTU)

5.

What is an epidemic?

a)

The constant presence of a disease within a community or region

b)

The presence of an infectious agent on a body surface

c)

The presence of infection in a host without clear, recognizable clinical symptoms

d)

The occurrence in a community or region of cases of an illness clearly in excess of expectancy

6.

What portal of entry should a field sanitarian protect to avoid contracting Lyme disease?

a)

Skin

b)

Respiratory tract

c)

Reproductive organs

d)

Digestive tract

7.

Swimmer's itch is a common name for which of the following diseases?

a)

Leptospirosis

b)

Subdural dermatitis

c)

Schistosomiasis

d)

Trichiniasis

8.

Which of the following factors would LEAST contribute to the emergence of a new infectious disease?

a)

Human behavior

b)

Heat disinfection

c)

Antibiotic use

d)

Disinfectant use

9.

Listeriosis is commonly associated with

a)

contaminated water

b)

contaminated food

c)

infected mice

d)

infected birds

10.

Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome is caused by infection with

a)

dracunculus medinensis

b)

staphylococcus aureus

c)

escherichia coli O157;H7

d)

salmonella typhimurium

11.

The basic principles of disease control include all of the following EXCEPT

a)

lag phase

b)

control of disease source

c)

mode of transmission

d)

understanding susceptibility

12.

Which one of the following phrases MOST accurately describes the term endemic?

a)

Sporadic occurrence of an illness

b)

Illnesses that exceed expected levels

c)

All illnesses present at any one time

d)

Constant presence of an illness

13.

The interval between exposure to an infectious agent and the appearance of the first symptom is called the

a)

transmission period

b)

susceptible period

c)

reactive period

d)

incubation period

14.

An environmental health specialist receives a cash payment from a restaurant operator in order to receive a passing restaurant inspection score. This event is known as

a)

Malfeasance

b)

Misfeasance

c)

Nonfeasance

d)

Exclusionary Rule

15.

An environmental health manager trains environmental health specialists on the operation of environmental probe thermometers. in the interest of time, the manager omits a training section on safe sheathing of the thermometer, and subsequently an environmental health specialist punctures their finger and injures themselves. This is an example of

a)

Malfeasance

b)

Misfeasance

c)

Nonfeasance

d)

Exclusionary Rule

16.

An environmental health specialist informs vector control staff to perform "landing counts" on their skin in a known mosquito breeding ground which is confirmed to be positive with West Nile virus. This is an example of

a)

Malfeasance

b)

Misfeasance

c)

Nonfeasance

d)

Exclusionary Rule

17.

Vehicleborne, vectorborne, or airborne are all examples of

a)

indirect mode of transmission

b)

direct mode of transmission

c)

hosts

d)

life cycle sequences

18.

An employer is held liable for the torts of its employees committed within the scope of their employment. This is referred to as

a)

respondeat superior

b)

parens patriae

c)

substituted judgement

d)

corporate priviledge

19.

Performance of an authorized act in an unauthorized manner is called

a)

Malfeasance

b)

Misfeasance

c)

Nonfeasance

d)

disfeasance

20.

An action authorized by law to restrict or prevent the movement of goods for the protection of public health, safety, and welfare is called an order of

a)

injunction

b)

withholding

c)

embargo

d)

seizure

21.

What is the federal agency that regulates food additives?

a)

Centers for disease control and prevention

b)

Consumers product safety commission

c)

Department of Agriculture

d)

Food and Drug Administration

22.

When a legal action is being prepared, one of the first steps a sanitarian should take is to

a)

obtain a warrant

b)

obtain a court order

c)

keep accurate records

d)

check with other agencies

23.

How is the term "contamination" defined when used in connection with a communicable disease?

a)

Infection of an individual or animal with pathogenic organisms

b)

presence of pathogenic agents on a surface, article, or substance

c)

Transfer of a vector, regardless of time or the nature of the host

d)

Contact between two or more sources of infection

24.

What is the MOST common contributing factor to foodborne illness?

a)

Insect and rodent infestations

b)

Dirty equipment

c)

Incorrect labeling of containers

d)

Improper holding temperatures

25.

Why are some foods classified as time/temperature control for safety?

a)

They have a pH below 4.2

b)

They have a water activity below .085

c)

They support rapid growth of pathogenic microorganisms

d)

They require rapid and thorough cooking

26.

Which food does not require refrigeration at 41 degrees

a)

Open container of garlic in oil

b)

Tofu

c)

Sliced/cut cantaloupe

d)

UHT creamers

27.

What is the BEST means of inhibiting growth of microorganisms in fresh meat?

a)

Topical use of approved hypochlorite solutions

b)

Exposure to ultraviolet light for 30 minutes

c)

Chemical preservatives

d)

Adequate refrigeration and cleanliness

28.

What is the MAXIMUM accumulated time that time/temperature control for safety food can safely be exposed to the temperature danger zone?

a)

2 hours

b)

4 hours

c)

6 hours

d)

8 hours

29.

If time only used as a health control, the MAXIMUM period recommended by the FDA for time/temperature control for safety food to be held is

a)

2 hours

b)

4 hours if the warmest part of the food item does not exceed 120 degrees

c)

6 hours if the warmest part of the food item does not exceed 70 degrees

d)

this public health control is never permitted

30.

What is the MINIMUM period that the FDA recommends employees wash their hands and arms up to the elbow?

a)

10 seconds

b)

20 seconds

c)

30 seconds

d)

40 seconds

31.

Unpasteurized eggs NOT intended for immediate service should be cooked to

a)

165 degrees for 15 seconds

b)

155 degrees for 15 seconds

c)

145 degrees for 15 seconds

d)

140 degrees for 1 minute

32.

What is the usual mode of infection from Salmonella?

a)

Ingestion of contaminated food

b)

Ingestion of contaminated water

c)

Contact with an active case

d)

Contact with fomites

33.

What is the source of scombroid poisoning?

a)

Histamines in the muscle of fish

b)

Sprouted green potatoes

c)

Undercooked pork

d)

Rice contaminated with rodent feces

34.

All of the following are signs of spoiled fish EXCEPT

a)

strong odor

b)

elastic flesh

c)

gray gills

d)

sunken eyes

35.

Which of the following shellfish is MOST likely to cause illness?

a)

Oysters

b)

crabs

c)

Shrimp

d)

scallops

36.

The laboratory reports a positive coliform test that exceeds permissible limits on a bottle of pasteurized milk. What does that indicate?

a)

Improper bactericidal treatment of the equipment

b)

Improper virucidal treatment of the equipment

c)

A contaminated water supply

d)

A contaminated food supply

37.

What is the MOST effective practice for preventing trichinosis

a)

Be certain that ground meat is freshly ground at the time of purchase

b)

Be sure that fresh pork is thoroughly cooked

c)

Avoid the consumption of ground meat products

d)

Cook steak until well done

38.

An HACCP plan is NOT required when

a)

Smoking foods as a method of preservation

b)

cooling and reheating TCS foods in bulk

c)

performing reduced oxygen packaging

d)

Using food additives or adding other components to preserve food or render it non-TCS

39.

What should NOT be done with food samples collected during a foodborne illness investigation?

a)

Refrigerate

b)

Freeze

c)

Seal

d)

Label

40.

What is the PRIMARY requirement in designing a food service facility?

a)

Durability

b)

Cleanability

c)

Appearance

d)

Convenience

41.

What is the MOST important rule of food storage?

a)

Follow the "first in, first out" rule

b)

Store products in order of "pull by" date

c)

Repackage dry foods into metal containers

d)

store canned goods under refrigeration

42.

Insecticides/pesticides may be stored in all ways EXCEPT

a)

in a metal locked cabinet

b)

on the lowest shelf in the storage room

c)

above the dishwashing sink

d)

in the basement separate from food and other chemicals

43.

What type of well is considered LEAST likely to become contaminated?

a)

Drilled

b)

Bored

c)

Driven

d)

Dug

44.

Diatomaceous earth filters

a)

should be supplemented by a chlorination system

b)

should be integrated into a rapid sand filtration system

c)

can be used for a public water treatment system

d)

can be used in a public water sewer treatment system

45.

Microbial pollution travels only a short distance through

a)

sandstone

b)

smooth clay

c)

fissured rock

d)

limestone

46.

What type of filter is recommended for use in small communities and rural places?

a)

Diatomaceous earth

b)

granular

c)

cartridge

d)

Slow sand

47.

All of the following are used to disinfect water EXCEPT

a)

chlorine

b)

bromine

c)

fluorine

d)

iodine

48.

Backsiphonage may be prevented by all of the following methods EXCEPT

a)

hydrostatic loops

b)

vacuum breakers

c)

air gap separation

d)

backpressure units

49.

Which of the following is LEAST effective method for cadmium removal from drinking water?

a)

Activated carbon

b)

Iron coagulation

c)

Lime softening

d)

Ion exchange

50.

Before a drinking water sample is taken, the sampling tap should be clean, free of leaks, and flushed for how long?

a)

1 to 1-1/2 minutes

b)

2 to 3 minutes

c)

4 to 5 minutes

d)

6 to 7 minutes

51.

What contaminant has been associated with learning and cognitive disorders in children who drink contaminated water

a)

Maganese

b)

Copper

c)

Lead

d)

Parathion

52.

The wastewater from the flushing of a water closet, latrine, or privy is referred to as

a)

Gray water

b)

Black water

c)

green water

d)

brown water

53.

If a septic tank is pumped during a wet period, the

a)

water may flow back into the tank

b)

field may flood the tank

c)

tank may float out of the ground

d)

tank may be crushed by the wet earth

54.

Nutrients associated with eutrophication included all of the following EXCEPT

a)

organic carbon

b)

potassium

c)

nitrogen

d)

phosphates

55.

Which of the following is LEAST important when reducing sewage to gases?

a)

anaerobic bacteria

b)

earth worms

c)

protozoa

d)

aerobic bacteria

56.

A septic tank maintenance worker has checked an empty tank for the presence of hydrogen sulfide (H2S). The test was negative, and there are no odors indicating the presence of other hazardous gases. Is the tank safe to enter without a respirator and supplied air?

a)

Yes, because hydrogen sulfide and odors were not detected

b)

No, because oxygen content and methane were not tested

c)

Yes, because the absence of odors and H2S indicates acceptable confined space entry conditions

d)

No, because lack of H2S is a sign of a hazardous confined space atmosphere

57.

All of the following are true about ozone as a disinfectant EXCEPT

a)

Nontoxic to aquatic organisms

b)

source of dissolved oxygen

c)

Excellent viricide

d)

Long-lasting residual

58.

Aerobic bacteria require all of the following nutrients EXCEPT

a)

carbon

b)

magnesium

c)

phosphorus

d)

nitrogen

59.

What does a mottled brown and red soil indicate?

a)

Unsuitability for absorption due to chemical composition

b)

Suitability for absorption due to granular structure

c)

Inadequate aeration methods

d)

Adequate agglomeration

60.

Alternative small wastewater treatment systems are considered UNLESS

a)

Impervious formations are found at a depth of 10 feet

b)

Space is limited and surface water supplies are inadequate

c)

highly porous formations exist

d)

high groundwater exists

61.

Lime coagulation, mixed media filtration, and activated carbon filtration will greatly reduce

a)

Heavy metals

b)

biological contaminants

c)

EPA priority pollutants

d)

EPA listed hazardous wastes

62.

It is known that some common pathogenic organisms found in wastewater will survive more than __ of harsh temperature extremes

a)

2 months

b)

5 months

c)

2 years

d)

5 years

63.

A storm sewer is used to

a)

remove rain and other standing surface water

b)

remove sewage and storm water

c)

remove household water waste and gutter drain water

d)

remove non-toxic, non-hazardous wastewater

64.

Stream pollution is sometimes apparent by

a)

increased levels of available oxygen in water

b)

a zone of degradation

c)

large numbers of crayfish and cristivomer species

d)

large number of small fish

65.

A young lake is considered to be

a)

Eutrophic

b)

Mesotrophic

c)

Oligotrophic

d)

Ohytotrophic

66.

If the septic tank will also have a garbage disposal unit feeding into it, the

a)

size of the tank should be increased by 50%

b)

tank should have an agitator

c)

tank should not be equipped with a gas baffle

d)

tank should not be constructed with precast concrete

67.

Sludge accumulation in tank serving a normal home has been estimated at

a)

40 to 50 liters per person per year

b)

69 to 80 gals. per person per year

c)

18 to 21 gals. per person per year

d)

2.2 gals. per person per year

68.

How often should a septic tank for a private home be services?

a)

Every year

b)

Every 5 to 10 years

c)

Every 3 to 5 years

d)

Every 10 years

69.

Human disease from aerosols of wastewater

a)

Are related primarily to wastewater treatment by the activated sludge, trickling filter, and spray irrigation processes

b)

Has been demonstrated from pathogens recovered in aerosols from the spray irrigation of treated wastewater

c)

may be caused by very small numbers of organisms

d)

is a hazard even to those who have had subclinical infections, and thus should be immunized

70.

Plants absorb certain constituents of wastewater; using wastewater for irrigation of consumable plant products may present a health hazard to humans if the water contains

a)

Nitrates

b)

Iron

c)

Cadmium

d)

Chlorides

71.

After the servicing of a septic tank, it is essential that the tank and lid be

a)

cleaned with a bleach and chlorine product

b)

scrubbed to removed hardened sludge

c)

recolonized with a commercial biological product containing yeast

d)

replaced and secured for safety purposes

72.

According to the resource conservation and recovery act (RCRA) how must hazardous household waste be disposed?

a)

Household hazardous waste is exempt from RCRA requirements

b)

it must be disposed as hazardous waste by a professional hazardous waste company

c)

it must be incinerated

d)

it may be disposed in a storm drain or sanitary sewer

73.

The grinding of garbage is an acceptable method of

a)

Garbage disposal

b)

volume reduction

c)

wet oxidation

d)

energy recovery

74.

A solid waste manager is trying to reduce lead in the solid waste stream. What should be targeted in the municipal waste stream as a MAJOR contributor of lead to the environment?

a)

Fluorescent light tubes

b)

Lead acid batteries

c)

Household batteries

d)

Rechargeable Batteries

75.

All of the following are considered advantages of using the "shredded solid waste" landfill method EXCEPT

a)

it does not cause odors

b)

it may require daily earth cover

c)

it will readily absorb precipitation

d)

it reduces insect breeding

76.

the BEST sanitary landfill method for a location with rolling terrain is the

a)

low-area method

b)

valley or ravine area method

c)

trench method

d)

area or ramp method

77.

Why is it important for a business that generates hazardous waste to deal only with licensed disposal companies that have a good compliance history?

a)

Large companies with good compliance histories generally have deep pockets

b)

Once the hazardous waste disposal company picks up the waste, it becomes the responsible party

c)

The business is held accountable for where and how the hazardous waste generated is disposed of

d)

It is important only if the business generates 220 pounds or more per month of hazardous waste

78.

Which of the following is NOT a type of hazardous waste incinerator?

a)

Pressurized

b)

Fluidized

c)

Fixed hearth

d)

Rotary kiln

79.

Which federal law regulates underground storage tanks for hazardous waste

a)

Clean water act

b)

Federal Water Pollution Control Act

c)

Resource Conservation and Recovery Act

d)

Solid Waste Disposal Act

80.

A measure of the probability and severity of adverse effects under specific conditions BEST describe

a)

risk

b)

hazard

c)

exposure

d)

toxicity

81.

Which of the following sampling devices is BEST for collecting undisturbed soil samples?

a)

Auger

b)

Shelby tube

c)

Split Spoon

d)

Veihmeyer Rod

82.

What is the term for a statistical estimate of an oral dose of chemical that produces a lethal effect on half of an animal population?

a)

LC50

b)

LD50

c)

EC50

d)

ED50

83.

The dose-response relationship of a toxic substance depends on all of the following EXCEPT the

a)

Amount and concentration of the substance

b)

pH of the substance

c)

duration of exposure to the substance

d)

Toxicity of the substance

84.

Which respiratory device provides the BEST protection?

a)

Positive pressure respirator with a full-face piece

b)

Negative pressure respirator with a full-face piece

c)

Full-face canister respirator

d)

Half-face respirator

85.

The Emergency Planning and Community Right-to-Know-Act (SARA Title III) requires the disclosure of all of the following EXCEPT type and quantities of

a)

chemicals produced on site

b)

chemicals accidentally discharged into the atmosphere

c)

chemicals routinely discharged into the atmosphere

d)

all chemicals routinely discharged into the atmosphere

86.

For the first responders at an incident, which of the following is listed correctly according to order of importance?

a)

Responder safety, environmental safety, public safety, property protection

b)

Public safety, property protection, responder safety, environmental safety

c)

Responder safety, public safety, environmental safety, property safety

d)

property protection, public safety, responder safety, environmental safety

87.

The agents of Lyme disease is transmitted by

a)

dog ticks

b)

fleas

c)

deer or 'black-legged' ticks

d)

mosquitos

88.

Select the BEST public health strategy to abate a current outbreak of rickettsialpox (transmitted by rat-associated mites)?

a)

Deploy rodenticides and traps to kill rats, then apply acaricides

b)

Improve sanitation to deny rats food

c)

Conduct active surveillance to find infected people and ensure they are treated to prevent ongoing transmission

d)

Apply acaricides prior to suppressing rat abundance

89.

When is it most reasonable to treat a dwelling for a bed bug problem?

a)

Only after a living bed bug has been positively confirmed on the premises

b)

After an occupant reports suffering from bites or irritation

c)

Anytime as a preventative strategy

d)

After discovering one or more small furry caterpillar-like creatures on the bed linens or mattress

90.

Poison Ivy, poison oak, and poison sumac are most usually BEST managed by

a)

Pulling out the plants with bare hands

b)

burning the plants

c)

treating them with herbicides

d)

using a chainsaw or string trimmer

91.

To reduce transmission risk of West nile virius which strategy is NOT appropriate?

a)

Ensuring window screens are in place and in good condition

b)

Empty water from buckets and other open containers

c)

Treating catch basins with EPA-registered mosquito larvicides

d)

Applying motor oil to catch basins and ponds

92.

Persons suffering allergic symptoms in the home during all seasons of the year might most likely be reacting to allergens from

a)

plaster

b)

pollen

c)

food

d)

cockroaches

93.

Which of the following is MOST effective for controlling ragweed?

a)

Fenthion

b)

Dieldrin

c)

2,4-D

d)

Petroleum Oil

94.

The interval between exposure to an infectious agent and the appearance of the first symbol is called

a)

lag time

b)

susceptible period

c)

incubation period

d)

primary period

95.

Which of the following statements is most correct? Headlice...

a)

is spread mainly by shared fomites (combs, brushes, hats)

b)

are acquired mainly by direct and prolonged head-to-head contact

c)

on a child is a reasonable sign of parental neglect

d)

should cause an infested child to be quarantined or isolated

96.

A disease that might result from inhaling dust from bird droppings is

a)

dengue fever

b)

psittacosis

c)

tularemia

d)

murine typhus

97.

Rodent populations in a food production or service facility are BEST kept low by

a)

Maintaining cats inside

b)

improving sanitation and securing food

c)

deploying rodent traps at 10-foot intervals along interior walls

d)

placing piles of rodenticides in the corners of rooms and beneath shelves where rodents hide

98.

The killing of an infectious agent outside the body by chemical or physical means is termed

a)

detoxification

b)

deodorization

c)

destabilization

d)

disinfection

99.

When pesticides be considered in an integrated pest management program?

a)

As a first choice

b)

As the last option

c)

Never

d)

Anytime they might be appropriate to reaching the goals of the program

100.

What is the BEST option when a bat is found in a room with a sleeping infant?

a)

Capture the bat alive and consider having it tested for rabies virus

b)

kill the bat and dispose of the carcass

c)

open the window and chase it outside

d)

advise the caregivers to have the child treated according to post exposure rabies vaccine protocol

101.

The term rad means

a)

required administered dose

b)

radiation admitted dose

c)

roentgen absorbed dose

d)

radiation absorbed dose

102.

Which of the following have little penetrating power and are normally a hazard to healthy only in the form of internal radiation received through ingestion, inhalation, or open wounds

a)

X-rays

b)

Alpha particles

c)

Beta particles

d)

Gamma rays

103.

Beta radiation is MOST commonly blocked by which of the following materials?

a)

Lead

b)

Concrete

c)

Magnesium alloy

d)

Glass or plastic

104.

Microwaves are reflected by

a)

metals

b)

plastic

c)

glass

d)

polymers

105.

The energy of ionizing radiation is measured in

a)

ergs of energy per gram

b)

one electrostatic unit

c)

electron volts (eV)

d)

one-person sievert (SV)

106.

The term "frequency" cannot be described as

a)

waves

b)

particles

c)

vibrations

d)

oscillations

107.

The shorter the wavelength, the

a)

higher the frequency and lower energy

b)

lower the frequency and energy

c)

lower the frequency and higher the energy

d)

higher the frequency and energy

108.

The roentgen is a measure of the ionization in air produced by exposure to

a)

x-rays or gamma rays

b)

alpha particles

c)

beta particles

d)

all of the above

109.

The principles of shielding are represented by which three methods?

a)

Sensitivity, selectivity, dose

b)

Distance, atomic number, mass

c)

Time, distance, and shielding

d)

Alpha, beta, and gamma

110.

The term "rem" is short for

a)

None of the above

b)

roentgen energy measure

c)

roentgen equivalent man

d)

radiation energy measure

111.

Which term is used to show exposure of large populations to low-level radiation?

a)

Person-rem

b)

Gamma-rem

c)

Radiation-rem

d)

Quantum-rem

112.

The rate at which atoms of radioactive sources (radionuclides) disintegrate are measured in

a)

curies

b)

rems

c)

rods

d)

roentgens

113.

Isotopes of the same element have

a)

the same atomic number, but different mass numbers

b)

the same mass number, but different atomic numbers

c)

different atomic and mass numbers

d)

the same atomic and mass numbers

114.

The half-value layer represents

a)

the time needed for radiation exposure to decrease by 50%

b)

the best type of shielding

c)

that 50% of radiation is reflected by metal

d)

the thickness of a particular shield that decreases exposure by 50%

115.

What is the danger and/or hazard posed by an etiological agent?

a)

Corrosive reaction

b)

Asphyxiation

c)

Human Disease

d)

Allergic reaction

116.

No person should be permitted to work in a trench or pit in sandy clay soil that has unsupported sides or banks higher than

a)

2 feet

b)

3 feet

c)

4 feet

d)

5 feet

117.

An employer moves employees who have reached the upper permissible level of exposure to a hazardous environment, to prevent further exposure. What type of hazard control is this?

a)

Professional control

b)

Personal control

c)

Administrative control

d)

Engineering control

118.

A negative pressure fit test for a protective mask

a)

Is done by placing both palms against the intake filter

b)

is done by placing both palms over the exhalation points

c)

should be conducted at a minimum of once a week

d)

should be repeated until an open air leak is detected

119.

Quantitative risk assessments USUALLY measure human exposure through all of the following EXCEPT

a)

computer models

b)

blood and urine analyses

c)

personal surveys

d)

toxicological analysis

120.

The MOST likely cause of photochemical smog is due to

a)

large industries

b)

chemical processing plants

c)

hazardous waste incinerators

d)

heavy motor vehicle traffic

121.

The industries LEAST likely to be a source of sulfur dioxide pollution are

a)

metal smelters

b)

coal and oil burning power plants

c)

refineries

d)

hazardous waste incinerators

122.

Scrubbers are wet collectors generally used to remove particles that form as a

a)

dust, aerosol, or fog

b)

mist, solid, or vapor

c)

fog, mist, or dust

d)

fume, dust, or mist

123.

Particle size selective inlets are used to separate particulates above and below 2 to 3 microns in size on

a)

high-volume samplers

b)

outfall vacuums

c)

baghouse air filters

d)

atmospheric respirator sieves

124.

The MOST common type of noise measurement device used for initial inspections is the

a)

octave-band analyzer

b)

noise dosimeter

c)

sound level meter

d)

sound analyzer

125.

When two pollutants are combined, the effects are greater than the sum of the individual effects. This is called

a)

commensalisms

b)

synergism

c)

magnification

d)

multiplication

126.

Air is vital to existence. In fact, in a day's time humans breathe an average of

a)

35 pounds of air

b)

3 to 4 pounds of air

c)

37 pounds of air

d)

1,600 ft3 of air

127.

Which component of clean, dry air has the smallest volume?

a)

Carbon monoxide

b)

Nitrogen dioxide

c)

Ammonia

d)

Sulfur dioxide

128.

Ozone reduces the useful life of all of the following EXCEPT

a)

Rubber

b)

Textiles

c)

Dyes

d)

Nylon

129.

Major effects on humans are caused by Los Angeles and London-Type smog, along with what two pollutants?

a)

Sulfur dioxide and hydrogen fluoride

b)

Sulfur dioxide and carbon monoxide

c)

Hydrogen sulfide and peroxacyl nitrates

d)

Ozone and nitrogen dioxide

130.

Photochemical smog has been reported in congested areas with

a)

large industries

b)

chemical processing plants

c)

industries processing hazardous wastes

d)

high motor vehicle traffic

131.

What type of air pollution causes bleaching of leaves in plants?

a)

PAN

b)

Sulfur dioxide

c)

Industries processing hazardous wastes

d)

High motor vehicle traffic

132.

Which of the following are not major sources of sulfur dioxide pollution?

a)

metal smelters

b)

Coal and Oil burning power plants

c)

Refineries

d)

Electrical substations

133.

Which of the following is not a moldorous gas?

a)

Sulfur dioxide

b)

Hydrogen sulfide

c)

Carbon monoxide

d)

Phenol

134.

What size particles can reach the lower parts of the lungs

a)

15 microns

b)

50 microns

c)

3 microns

d)

Any size particle

135.

The three tiny bones contained in the middle ear are?

a)

Incus, malleus, and stapes

b)

Ulna, radius, stapes

c)

Femur, phalanges, metatarsal

d)

Incus, radius, xyloid

136.

is defined as noise induced hearing loss attributed to environmental noise?

a)

Presbycusis

b)

Tinnitus

c)

Cochlea

d)

Socioacusis

137.

Choose the physiological effect of excessive exposure to chronic noise or exposure to very loud impact noise?

a)

Sleep disturbance

b)

Hearing loss

c)

Loss of concertation

d)

Loneliness

138.

Vent gases from a coal-burning furnace combined with high moisture inside a chimney will form

a)

a glass-like glaze

b)

hydrochloric acid

c)

sodium chloride

d)

sulfuric acid

139.

What is the PRIMARY cause of death resulting from automobile exhaust accumulation in garages?

a)

Methane

b)

Ethylene dioxide

c)

Carbon monoxide

d)

Tetraethyl lead

140.

The end of waste pipe should terminate below the rim of a sink directly connected to the drainage system by at LEAST

a)

2 inches

b)

4 inches

c)

5 inches

d)

6 inches

141.

The most common type of injury in a home is

a)

a fall

b)

asphyxiation

c)

tripping

d)

an animal bite

142.

A "S" trap is not considered legal in most state plumbing codes due to which of the following factors?

a)

they clog easily

b)

they are not vented

c)

they are unsightly

d)

they do not drain

143.

Which of the following products is not a traditional formaldehyde air pollution

a)

cosmetics

b)

burning vegetation

c)

particle board

d)

computer emissions

144.

Long term effects of lead poisoning include

a)

learning disabilities

b)

severe acne

c)

loss of large motor skills

d)

adult diabetes

145.

A stud is an element of building construction that is intended as a

a)

vertical support

b)

horizontal support

c)

roof only support

d)

support for sheet rock

146.

A joist is used

a)

to provide bracing for a wall

b)

as a horizontal support

c)

as a roof only support

d)

as a support for sheet rock

147.

A footing drain is required to

a)

control moisture

b)

eliminate radon

c)

keep a foundation from slipping

d)

keep the feet dry while pouring concrete

148.

The chimney of the house should be a minimum of __ above the highest structure of the home

a)

5 feet

b)

3 feet

c)

18 inches

d)

level with the eve of the house

149.

What is the horizontal element of a stairway called?

a)

Riser

b)

Tread

c)

Step

d)

Footer

150.

What is the vertical element of a stairway called

a)

Riser

b)

Tread

c)

Step

d)

Footer

151.

When footings fail this often results in

a)

leaky roofs

b)

warped studs

c)

twisted joist

d)

cracked and/or displaced foundations

152.

A 6-mil vapor retarder should be installed below any slab-on-grade foundation or crawlspace of the home to

a)

control moisture in the crawlspace

b)

keep natural gas out of the crawlspace

c)

keep underground springs from washing away footers

d)

keep insects from eating the wood structure

153.

The footing drain is intended to drain water away from the base of the home to

a)

prevent damage to the footing and foundation

b)

keep the concrete from dissolving

c)

control termites

d)

control mold on the footer

154.

The termite shield is placed between the

a)

foundation and the sill

b)

footer and the foundation

c)

joist and the header

d)

stud and the header

155.

The maximum size of a stair riser should be

a)

8" 1/4

b)

12"

c)

6"

d)

10" 1/4

156.

What is the ASHRAE-recommended minimal thermal standard for dwellings at 40% humidity and an air circulation rate of 45 fpm

a)

57 degree

b)

60 degree

c)

68 degree

d)

76 degree

157.

The distance between the end of the water supply pipe and the sink should be how many times the diameter of the supply pipe?

a)

1-1/2

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

158.

Excessive condensation, corrosion, and mildew occur when the relative humidity exceeds

a)

20%

b)

40%

c)

60%

d)

80%

159.

Nosocomial infections are a recurring problem in

a)

food establishments

b)

health care facilities

c)

swimming pools

d)

health spas

160.

MINIMUM wash water temperature in a hospital laundry is

a)

146 degrees to 150 degrees

b)

160 degrees to 167 degrees

c)

170 degrees to 178 degrees

d)

185 degrees to 196 degrees

161.

A biohazard is

a)

any material that negatively impacts a biological organism

b)

a material of biological composition, especially if infective, that constitutes a threat to the people or their environment

c)

a chemical that constitutes a threat to people or their environment

d)

any virus that causes fatal disease

162.

Bloodborne pathogens are regulated by

a)

OSHA

b)

FDA

c)

CPSC

d)

HHS

163.

Hantavirus is a virus mainly carried by

a)

deer

b)

sheep

c)

mice

d)

gophers

164.

Hantavirus causes a disease that destroys what primary organs in humans?

a)

Lungs

b)

Kidneys

c)

Liver

d)

Brain

165.

The incidence of tuberculosis in English laboratory workers working with M. tuberculosis was reported to be how many times higher than for the general population?

a)

2 times

b)

3 times

c)

5 times

d)

10 times

166.

The term "universal precautious" refers to

a)

specific respiratory protection used in hospitals

b)

an infection control program regulating the handling of blood and certain body fluids

c)

personal and environmental protection procedures used when handling hazardous chemical wastes

d)

precautious to be used when collecting samples for potential litigation

167.

The biosafety containment level suitable for work involving agents of moderate potential hazard to personnel and the environment is

a)

Biosafety level 1

b)

Biosafety level 2

c)

Biosafety level 3

d)

Biosafety level 4

168.

Biological safety equipment includes

a)

biosafety cabinets

b)

needles and syringes

c)

hazardous chemicals

d)

technical manuals

169.

The three biosafety containment levels consist of a combination of

a)

laboratory practices, safety equipment, and laboratory design

b)

laboratory techniques, research protocols, and safety equipment

c)

research protocols, safety training, and laboratory design

d)

laboratory practices, safety training, and research protocols

170.

The protection of personnel and the immediate laboratory environment from exposure to infectious agents by good microbiological technique and safety equipment is called

a)

primary containment

b)

secondary containment

c)

tertiary containment

d)

pentiary containment

171.

The release of genetically engineered materials into the environment is regulated by

a)

USDA and EPA

b)

NIH and CDC

c)

EPA and AEC

d)

FDA and PHS

172.

Studies indicate that swimmers have a higher overall illness rate over non-swimmers

a)

regardless of bathing water quality

b)

due to poor regulatory practices

c)

if they are over 50 years of age

d)

if they swim in pools

173.

The treatment system of a pool is typically recommended to be installed in which of the following flow arrangements?

a)

Skimmer or gutter line, main drain line, adjustment valves, disinfectant feeder, hair strainer, pump, filter, pH feeder pump, adjustable inlets

b)

Skimmer or gutter line, main drain line, adjustment valves, hair strainer, pump, filter, pH feeder pump, adjustable inlets

c)

Skimmer or gutter line, main drain line, adjustment valves, pH feeder pump, hair strainer, pump filter, disinfectant feeder, adjustable inlets

d)

Skimmer or gutter line, main drain line, adjustment valves, hair strainer, filter aid pump, filters, disinfectant feeder, pH feeder, adjustable inlets

174.

Swimming pool water clarity is measured in terms of NTU or Nephelometer Turbidity Units. It is recommended that a level of 0.5 NTU

a)

shall be maintained

b)

shall not be exceeded

c)

is the minimum level

d)

is the maximum level

175.

A swimming pool filtration system should filter the entire volume of water at a minimum of every

a)

2 hours

b)

6 hours

c)

10 hours

d)

13 hours

176.

The rate of filtration for a vacuum diatomite filter should be

a)

1 to 2 gpm/ft2

b)

3 to 4 gpm/ft2

c)

5 to 6 gpm/ft2

d)

7 to 8 gpm/ft2

177.

Chemicals that have been used for pool disinfection include chlorine, chloro-iso-cyanurates, bromine, and

a)

ammonia

b)

soda ash

c)

sodium thiosulfate

d)

none of the above

178.

Due to the large quantity of floating organisms and materials, the gutters or skimmers should received what MINIMUM percent of the total pool water?

a)

95%

b)

45%

c)

60%

d)

30%

179.

The recommended and MOST effective method of maintaining pool water quality is

a)

superchlorination

b)

intermittent circulation, chlorination, and filtration

c)

continuous recirculation, chlorination, and filtration

d)

chlorination/dichlorination

180.

One advantage of using cyanuric acid additive is that it

a)

allows easier measurement of chlorine

b)

prevents pH deterioration

c)

stabilizes residual chlorine

d)

requires less soda ash as an additive to the pool

181.

The acidity-alkalinity balance affects eye irritation, water coagulation, and the

a)

effectiveness of chlorine

b)

ambient water temperature

c)

effectiveness of the skimmers

d)

evaporation rate

182.

The addition of sodium bicarbonate will

a)

raise the ambient water temperature

b)

lower the ambient water temperature

c)

raise the pH

d)

lower the pH

183.

To raise the pH, add

a)

chlorine

b)

muriatic acid

c)

soda ash (sodium carbonate)

d)

sulfuric acid

184.

To mix acid and water, always

a)

add water to acid

b)

add acid to water

c)

add soda ash to acid

d)

stir while pouring water into the acid

185.

When chlorine is added to water

a)

one acid is formed

b)

two primary acids are formed

c)

HC1 is considered the primary product

d)

ozone is produced in large quantities

186.

The best control of swimmer's itch at a bathing beach is to

a)

add copper sulfate

b)

increase the chlorine residual

c)

lower the chlorine residual

d)

lower water level and allow plants to dry out

187.

The preferred method for controlling sewage from watercraft is the use of

a)

onboard holding tanks

b)

shipboard discharge

c)

incinerator toilet

d)

compost toilet

188.

Gas chlorine provides

a)

50% available chlorine

b)

75% available chlorine

c)

92% available chlorine

d)

100% available chlorine

189.

The microbe primarily responsible for skin infections in whirlpools is

a)

escherichia coli

b)

pseudomonas aeruginosa

c)

shigella sonnet

d)

salmonella typhimurium

190.

Water in children's wading pools should be completely recirculated every (minimum standard)

a)

60 minutes

b)

90 minutes

c)

120 minutes

d)

180 minutes

191.

The ideal pH range for swimming pools is

a)

6.0 to 8.5

b)

6.5 to 8.5

c)

7.4 to 7.6

d)

5.0 to 7.0

192.

The generally prohibited swimming facility from a public health perspective is a

a)

home outdoor pool

b)

fill and draw pool

c)

natural flow-through pool

d)

recirculating pool

193.

It is essential that all public pools

a)

require footbaths

b)

require pre-showering of patrons

c)

run the recirculation and disinfection equipment 24 hours per day

d)

shovel in the least 4 pounds of calcium hypochlorite per 10,000 gallons per 4-hour period

194.

To calculate Turn Over Rate

a)

Pool volume ÷ flow rate /60

b)

Pool volume x Flow rate ÷ 60

c)

Pool volume ÷ flow rate x 60

d)

Pool volume ÷ turn over rate /60

195.

The main drain should have a grate that is how much larger than the area of the discharge pipe to prevent dangerous suction effects? (absolute minimum)

a)

4 times

b)

5 times

c)

6 times

d)

7 times

196.

The speed and effectiveness with which emergency action can be taken is dependent PRIMARILY on the

a)

size of the emergency

b)

probable number of vitcims

c)

amount of prior planning

d)

level of the agency responding

197.

Evacuation and survival of individuals in an emergency or natural disaster is most often dependent on

a)

the extent which individuals can help themselves

b)

how soon relief can be mustered

c)

how soon a favorable environment can be restored

d)

quality prior planning has taken place

198.

The government organization that usually deals with major disasters is the

a)

Environmental Protection Agency

b)

Federal Emergency Management Agency

c)

Red Cross

d)

Disaster Response Agency

199.

One of the FIRST actions an individual should take upon hearing an order for the evacuation of homes and businesses is turn off the

a)

main electric power switch

b)

outside gas valve

c)

property water supply valve

d)

public utility services to the building

200.

When temporary shelter is necessary in an emergency, the FIRST consideration in shelter selection should be

a)

protection of the survivors from health and safety risks

b)

availability of heat, light, and space

c)

the emotional state of the survivors

d)

availability of chlorination tablets

201.

The minimum amount of water per day that should be provided for natural disaster victims is

a)

1 to 2 gallons per person

b)

3 to 5 gallons per person

c)

6 to 9 gallons per person

d)

10 gallons or more per person

202.

After flooding and other natural disasters, vaccination may be needed for

a)

typhoid

b)

measles

c)

AIDS

d)

vaccinations not required

203.

The quantity of liquid bleach (household) used to treat 1,000 gallons of bacterially contaminated water for drinking is

a)

2 quarts

b)

2 pints

c)

1 pint

d)

0.5 pint

204.

A satisfactory method for disinfecting water that is not chemically or grossly polluted with bacteria is

a)

chlorination

b)

fluorination

c)

oxygenation

d)

CO2 treatment

205.

In emergency situations, when the water is turbid or colored but not chemically contaminated, the chlorine dosage should be

a)

tripled

b)

discontinued

c)

decreased

d)

doubled

206.

Approved emergency response plans at nuclear electric power plant sites must be tested AT LEAST every

a)

two years

b)

three years

c)

four years

d)

five years

207.

Key components of HAZWOPER program EXCLUDE

a)

safety and health programs

b)

personal protection

c)

training

d)

sanitary requirements

208.

HAZWOPER requirements apply to

a)

voluntary cleanup at uncontrolled hazardous waste sites

b)

routine sanitary sewer operations

c)

small quantity generators of hazardous waste

d)

water treatment plant operators

209.

The difference between a disaster and terrorism is best described as

a)

intent

b)

criminal activity

c)

nature of disaster

d)

number impacted

210.

Xeriscape landscaping means

a)

Using rocks as a basis for yard landscapes

b)

Eliminating the use of trees in yards for landscaping

c)

Selecting plants that can thrive on natural precipitation

d)

Using sand as the basis for all landscaping needs

211.

Swimmer's itch is also known as

a)

gastroentertis

b)

trichinosis

c)

schistosomiasis

d)

leptospirosis

212.

Which organism would probably survive in a hot tub?

a)

E. coli

b)

vibrio cholera

c)

Entamoeba histolytica

d)

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

213.

A seechi disk is used to determine

a)

pH

b)

clarify in recreational waters

c)

coliform contamination

d)

heavy metals

214.

What compound is the principal scale former?

a)

calcium carbonate

b)

potassium carbonate

c)

magnesium sulfate

d)

sodium carbonate

215.

The preferred treatment for algae control is

a)

copper sulfate

b)

superchlorination

c)

quaternary ammonium

d)

drain and scrub pool