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The final!

Total questions: 36

Worksheet time: 12mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of these is NOT a risk factor for diabetes?

a)

Previous GDM

b)

Previous baby >4.5kg

c)

Australian ethnicity

d)

BMI >30

2.

Sarah, is 12+4 weeks pregnant and P0. Her BMI is 36. What screening will be offered in pregnancy?

a)

HbA1c at booking

b)

OGTT at booking

c)

OGTT at 24- 28 weeks

d)

Home blood glucose monitoring

3.

What are the diagnostic values for GDM?

a)

Fasting 5.6

2 hours 7.8

b)

Fasting 4.5

2 hours 6.7

c)

Fasting 7.0

2 hours 11.0

d)

HbA1c 42 mmol/l

4.

Sarah has her OGTT at 24 weeks, fasting is 6.0 and his two hours post OGTT is 8.1. What is the first line management?

a)

Gliclazide 40mg BD

b)

Humulin I 8 units nocte

c)

Metformin 500mg BD

d)

7 days diet + exercise

5.

Which of these is NOT a high risk factor for pre-eclampsia?

a)

Chronic hypertension

b)

Renal disease

c)

Type 1 Diabetes

d)

BMI >30

6.

Elizabeth, has type 1 diabetes, which of these medications prevent pre-eclampsia?

a)

Aspirin

b)

Labetalol

c)

Magnesium Sulphate

d)

Nifedipine

7.

Elizabeth attends the MAU with a headache, she has a blood pressure of 161/98. What is the most appropriate diagnostic, first line investigation?

a)

Urine PCR

b)

LFTs

c)

Renal USS

d)

Serum PCR

8.

What PCR is diagnostic of Pre-Eclampsia?

a)

>100

b)

>45

c)

>20

d)

>30

9.

Elizabeth, has a PCR of 48. She is diagnosed with Pre-eclampsia. What is the first line anti-hypertensive?

a)

Amlodipine

b)

Labetalol

c)

Nifedipine

d)

Lisinopril

10.

When would you aim to deliver Elizabeth's baby?

a)

Spontaneously

b)

39 weeks

c)

34 weeks

d)

37 weeks

11.

Emily is 33+2 weeks, she presents with itching of the palms and feet. What investigation is diagnostic?

a)

Liver USS

b)

U&Es

c)

LFTs

d)

Serum Bile Acids

12.

Emily's bile acids are 32, what is the diagnosis?

a)

Primary Biliary Cirrhosis

b)

Obstetric Cholestasis

c)

Hepatitis P

d)

Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis

13.

As Emily's bile acids are 35, when would Emily be delivered?

a)

37 weeks

b)

38 weeks

c)

39 weeks

d)

Spontaneously

14.

Rachel, is 34+6 weeks pregnant, she presents to MAU with a sudden gushing sensation and vaginal loss of clear fluid. What is the diagnostic investigation?

a)

Amnisure

b)

Fetal fibronectin

c)

High vaginal swab

15.

Rachel, is diagnosed with P-PROM, what is the first line management?

a)

Magnesium Sulphate + Tocolytics

b)

Erythromycin + Betamethasone

c)

Erythromycin + Tocolytics

d)

Magnesium Sulphate + Betamethasone

16.

Clara, presents to MAU at 32 weeks gestation with regular abdominal tightenings, what investigation predicts the likelihood of pre-term labour?

a)

Amnisure

b)

Fetal Fibronectin

c)

High Vaginal Swabs

d)

FBC

17.

Mandy, presents to MAU at 31+3, with a painless vaginal bleecd. Mandy is aware that she has to attend a scan next week, but can't remember why. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Placental Abruption

b)

Vasa Praevia

c)

Placenta Praevia

d)

Cervical Ectropion

18.

Annabelle is having twins, they have separate placentas and amniotic sacs. What type of twins is Annabelle having?

a)

DCMA twins

b)

MCMA twins

c)

MCDA twins

d)

DCDA twins

19.

Kat, presents to GEAU in early pregnancy (8+2 weeks by dates) with heavy vaginal bleeding and abdominal cramping. On USS there is an empty uterus, the cervical os is closed. What is the diagnosis?

a)

Inevitable Miscarriage

b)

Missed Miscarriage

c)

Incomplete Miscarriage

d)

Complete Miscarriage

20.

Harriet, attends her dating scan at 12+4 weeks gestation. Sadly, there is no fetal heartbeat seen on the scan. Harriet has had no symptoms of miscarriage. What is the diagnosis?

a)

Missed Miscarriage

b)

Complete Miscarriage

c)

Inevitable Miscarriage

d)

Threatened Miscarriage

21.

After consultation with the Gynae team, Harriet opts to have medical management of miscarriage. What is the first line medication?

a)

Oxytocin

b)

Carboprost

c)

Methotrexate

d)

Misoprostol

22.

Rebecca, presents to ED with severe right sided abdominal pain. She has a positive pregnancy test. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Cholecystitis

b)

Appendicitis

c)

Miscarriage

d)

Ectopic pregnancy

23.

Rebecca's HCG is 6781. On USS she has an adnexal mass measuring 42mm, which has ruptured. What is the first line management?

a)

Salpingotomy

b)

Salpingectomy

c)

Methotrexate

d)

ERPC

24.

Kate, presents with left sided abdominal pain. The USS shows a left sided adnexal mass which is 21mm. There is no free fluid, and no visible heartbeat. Her HCG is 1239. What is the first line management?

a)

Salpingotomy

b)

Salpingectomy

c)

Methotrexate

d)

ERPC

25.

Karly is 25, she had her first cervical smear. She is HPV positive with no cell changes. What is the next stage?

a)

Colposcopy ASAP

b)

Routine recall

c)

Colposcopy in one year

d)

Smear in one year

26.

Elena, is 31, she has is HPV on her smear with mild dyskaryosis. What is the next stage of her management?

a)

Colposcopy ASAP

b)

Colposcopy in one year

c)

Smear in one year

d)

Routine Recall

27.

What is the most common presenting symptom with fibroids?

a)

Pelvic Pain

b)

Menorrhagia

c)

Dysmenorrhea

d)

Pressure Effect

28.

What is the surgical removal of a fibroid?

a)

Endometrial Ablation

b)

Hysterectomy

c)

Myomectomy

29.

Nancy is 71, she presents with abdominal pain and bloating. The pelvic USS shows a suspicious lesion on her left ovary. What is the most appropriate investigation?

a)

CEA

b)

Ca 15-3

c)

Ca-125

d)

Ca 19-9

30.

Pamela is 62, she presents with post-menopausal bleeding. What is the first line investigation?

a)

Staging CT

b)

Pipelle Biopsy

c)

Hysteroscopy

d)

Transvaginal USS

31.

On USS Pamela has an endometrial thickness of 5.9mm. What is the most appropriate next line investigation?

a)

Hysterectomy

b)

Hysteroscopy

c)

Staging CT

d)

Pipelle Biopsy/ Hysteroscopy w/ biopsy

32.

Pamela is diagnosed with endometrial hyperplasia with atypia. What is the most appropriate management?

a)

Hysterectomy with BSO

b)

Surveillance

c)

Mirena Coil

d)

Endometrial Ablation

33.

Which of these anti-emetics should be avoided in the first trimester?

a)

Cyclizine

b)

Prochlorperazine

c)

Ondansetron

d)

Metoclopramide

34.

What is the first line manoeuvre in shoulder dystocia?

a)

Episiotomy

b)

McRobert's Manoeuvre

c)

Lithotomy

d)

Neville Barnes Forceps

35.

What is the ideal position for the baby to be delivered?

a)

Breech

b)

Occipito- Anterior

c)

Occipito- Posterior

d)

Occipito- Transverse

36.

Which of these is not in the Rotterdam Criteria for diagnosing PCOS?

a)

Weight gain

b)

Hirsuitism

c)

Follicles seen on ovaries on Pelvic USS

d)

Oligomenorrhea/ Amenorrhea