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Muscle Motor Neurons & Burns

Total questions: 34

Worksheet time: 21mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of these are part of the peripheral nervous system?

a)

Upper Motor Neurons

b)

Lower Motor Neurons

c)

Subcortical Circuits

d)

Cerebellum

e)

Nerve Roots

2.

Which of these acts as the “boss” of movement?

a)

Cortical motor neurons

b)

Vestibulospinal tracts

c)

Reticulospinal tracts

d)

Basal ganglia

e)

Cerebellum

3.

Which of these is a muscle with both afferent and efferent fibers for a reflex?

a)

Homonymous muscle

b)

Antagonist muscle

c)

Synergist muscle

d)

Prime mover muscle

4.

Which of these are not true for alpha motor neurons?

a)

supply IFFs in stretch receptor cells

b)

fusimotor

c)

supplies one muscle fiber

d)

skeletomotor

e)

supply EFFs in whole muscle

5.

Which of these are true for the spinal motor control system?

a)

limited to the spinal cord

b)

located in anterior horn

c)

located in posterior horn

d)

activated by spinal efferent fibers

6.

Which reflex is for correcting errors in muscle length after external forces cause excessive stretching?

a)

stretch reflex

b)

golgi tendon reflex

7.

With the brachioradialis reflex, which of these are being activated?

a)

Radial Nerve

b)

C5-6

c)

Musculocutaneous Nerve

d)

C6-7

8.

The knee reflex activates which CNS levels?

a)

L2-4

b)

L1-2

c)

L2-3

d)

L1-3

9.

The biceps brachii reflex activates which of these?

a)

Musculocutaneous nerve

b)

C5-6

c)

Radial nerve

d)

C6-7

e)

C4-5

10.

What’s true about the stretch reflex?

a)

also known as deep tendon reflex

b)

stretch sensed by mechanoreceptors

c)

signals sent to prime mover LMN and antagonist LMN

d)

antagonist LMN is monosynaptic

e)

message sent back through lb fibers to interneurons

11.

 

Resting muscle tone is caused by stimulation of what motor neurons?

a)

gamma

b)

alpha

c)

cortical

12.

With resting muscle tone, tension is increased with which type of stretch receptor?

a)

static

b)

dynamic

13.

Force generated by a single muscle depends on number of motor neurons recruited and activated, also known as _____ ________.

(a)  

14.

Which of these are alternate names for the UMN systems?

a)

suprasegmental motor systems

b)

descending motor systems

c)

intersegmental motor systems

d)

ascending motor systems

e)

superior motor systems

15.

Which of these are part of the pyramidal system?

a)

corticospinal tract

b)

rubrospinal tract

c)

vestibulospinal tract

d)

reticulospinal tract

e)

tectospinal tract

16.

These neurons are glutamatergic and primarily function in motor execution. What are they?

a)

corticospinal neurons

b)

alpha neurons

c)

gamma neurons

d)

vestibulospinal neurons

17.

What is the name of the process that allows IFF muscle fibrils to keep stretch receptors from opening during a voluntary stretch?

(a)  

18.

Which of these is the abnormal contraction of individual muscle fibers?

a)

fibrillations

b)

fasciculations

19.

Which is true about fasciculations?

a)

often occur during early LMN dysfunction

b)

often occur during late LMN dysfunction

c)

pathognomonic for LMN injury

d)

axon “dies back” to small branches

20.

Which of these indicate a neuropathic cause with needle EMG?

a)

high amplitude

b)

polyphasic

c)

short duration

d)

increased recruitment

e)

normal duration

21.

Your patient’s EMG shows normal tibial CMAP and low amplitude peroneal CMAP. Superficial peroneal and sural SNAPs are normal. There are large motor units in the tensor fascia lata and anterior tibialis. Medial gastrocnemius, vastus lateralis, rectus femoris, biceps femoris, gluteus maximus, and lumbar paraspinals are normal. What’s most likely?

a)

radiculopathy

b)

neuropathy

c)

focal mononeuropathy

d)

myopathy

22.

Your patient’s EMG shows low amplitude R ulnar, R median, R tibial, and R peroneal CMAPs. SNAPs show low amplitude R median, absent R ulnar, absent R sural. Proximal muscles are normal. There is decreased recruitment of enlarged motor units seen in muscles with distal to proximal gradient, with fibrillation in distal muscles. What’s most likely?

a)

radiculopathy

b)

neuropathy

c)

focal mononeuropathy

d)

myopathy

23.

Your patient’s EMG shows normal R ulnar, R median prolonged DL CMAPs. SNAPs show R median with prolonged DL, low amplitude, normal R ulnar. Decreased recruitment of motor units seen in right abductor pollicis brevis. Deltoid, biceps, triceps, flexor carpi radialis, extensor digitorum communis, extensor carpi radialis, first dorsal interosseous are normal. What’s most likely?

a)

radiculopathy

b)

neuropathy

c)

focal mononeuropathy

d)

myopathy

24.

Your patient’s EMG shows normal peroneal, tibial, median, and ulnar CMAPs. Sural, median, ulnar SNAPs are also normal. Small motor units are seen in biceps, triceps, deltoid, and anterior tibialis. There are positive waves in those muscles and lumbar paraspinals. Medial gastrocnemius, vastus lateralis, rectus femoris, extensor carpi radialis, abductor pollicis brevis, and first dorsal interosseous are normal. What’s most likely?

a)

radiculopathy

b)

neuropathy

c)

focal mononeuropathy

d)

myopathy

25.

Which of these are late signs of UMN dysfunction?

a)

paralysis

b)

plegia

c)

hypertonia

d)

clonus

e)

hyporeflexia

26.

Name the 3rd layer of the epidermis.

(a)  

27.

What can be found in the epidermis?

a)

keratinocytes

b)

dendritic cells

c)

sweat ducts

d)

tactile nerve fibers

e)

blood vessels

28.

The mid area of a burn is the zone of …

a)

stasis

b)

coagulation

c)

hyperemia

29.

How much of the total body surface area needs to be affected to be considered a major burn?

a)

> 20%

b)

> 10%

c)

> 30%

d)

> 50%

30.

With burn shock, the recommended IV repletion of salt and water according to the Baxter formula is…

a)

4 ml/kg/% burn

b)

3 ml/kg/% burn

c)

5 ml/kg/% burn

d)

6 ml/kg/% burn

31.

Which of these is responsible for at least 50% of burn deaths?

a)

inhalational injury

b)

dehydration

c)

chemical injury

d)

electrical injury

e)

infection

32.

What’s the indication to use a skin graft?

a)

expected healing > 3 weeks

b)

total body surface area affected > 20%

c)

expected healing > 4 weeks

d)

total body surface area affected > 15%

33.

Which of these are appropriate treatments for burn wound care?

a)

debridement

b)

ventilatory support

c)

hemodynamic support

d)

dry any excess moisture

e)

preserve all skin that remains

34.

Which of these is caused by an acidic chemical injury?

a)

coagulation necrosis

b)

liquefactive necrosis