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vet science multiple choice 2022

Total questions: 145

Worksheet time: 1hrs 13mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

which of the following vaccines is legally required to be given to some animal species?

a)

distemper vaccine

b)

feline leukemia vaccine

c)

Lyme vaccine

d)

rabies

2.

how many years are some states required to keep medical records?

a)

3

b)

5

c)

10

d)

7

3.

which of the following filing methods is most commonly used in a veterinary facility

a)

numerical filing

b)

alphabetical filing

c)

free filing

d)

color coding

4.

where is the soap recording method commonly used?

a)

vaccine records

b)

consent form

c)

master problem list

d)

progress note

5.

the temperature and heart rate of an animal is an example of _____ information?

a)

objective

b)

subjective

c)

assessment

d)

plan

6.

which of the following is a do when recording in a medical report?

a)

erase all errors

b)

write illegibly

c)

place a single line though errors

d)

use common language

7.

which of the following statements is true about the confidentiality of medical records?

a)

the only time information can be shared is for the purpose of patient care

b)

it is okay for the information to be shared with anyone associated with the hospital

c)

it is okay to share information with your family members

d)

veterinary medical record are not confidential only human medical record are confidential

8.

in the soap format for progress notes in which category would the chief compliant be written?

a)

assessment

b)

plan or procedure

c)

subjective information

d)

objective information

9.

which of the following statements about filing medical records is not true?

a)

a color that is our of order is easier to identify than either numbers or letters that are out of order

b)

because no one is perfect owners are sympathetic when their records have been misfiled

c)

numeric filing requires a way to cross reference the clients name with the clients file number

d)

more misfiling occur with alphabetical filing

10.

who owns the physical medical record?

a)

the client

b)

the paitent

c)

vet practice

d)

the state

11.

which satement about recording information on the medical record is not true?

a)

stamps and stickers should not be used on medical records because they are legal documents

b)

medical records are legal documents

c)

do not try to erase or obliterate an error entry

d)

all entries are written in dark ink either blue or black

12.

when discharging a patient which is not necessary for the veterinary assistant to check?

a)

the discharge instructions are clear

b)

that client has all of the prescribed medications

c)

that the client has made follow up appointment if necessary

d)

the veterinary assistant should check all of the above

13.

the average normal typing score is _____ words per minute?

a)

25-40

b)

20-30

c)

45-55

d)

30-45

14.

which of the following is not an example of computer hardware?

a)

modem

b)

word perfect

c)

mouse

d)

printer

15.

which of the following is not a function of the printer?

a)

uses toner

b)

faxes information

c)

loads paper

d)

makes forms

16.

which component of the communication process relays the idea

a)

sender

b)

message

c)

channel

d)

feedback

17.

which component of the communication process refers to the route in which the message is sent?

a)

sender

b)

channel

c)

feedback

d)

receiver

18.

a letter is an example of what route of communication?

a)

verbal

b)

nonverbal

c)

none of the above

d)

written

19.

which stage of grief may require the aid of a physician to move past?

a)

depression

b)

sorrow

c)

denial

d)

shock

20.

which of the following is an example of patience?

a)

walking a pet to an exam room

b)

offering children coloring books

c)

making a phone call for someone

d)

calmly discussing a difficult situation

21.

puppies should be weaned from their mothers at?

a)

4-5 weeks

b)

2-3 weeks

c)

3-4 weeks

d)

5-6 weeks

22.

the dog with its ears up and forward and with a wagging tail is showing characteristics of a ______ dog.

a)

happy

b)

scared

c)

old

d)

aggressive

23.

teaching a dog to eliminate outside is called:

a)

obedience

b)

socialization

c)

housebreaking

d)

training

24.

using commands such as sit and stay are examples of what type of restraint?

a)

this is not a form of restraint

b)

chemical

c)

physical

d)

verbal

25.

a common position not used for radiograph is

a)

lateral recumbency

b)

standing recumbency

c)

dorsal recumbency

d)

sternal recumbency

26.

the jugular vein is located:

a)

on the inside of the front leg

b)

inside the thigh on the rear leg

c)

on either side of the neck

d)

in the tail

27.

the gestation length for a dog is ______ days

a)

63

b)

30

c)

72

d)

96

28.

which of the following is a bacterial disease?

a)

hepatitis

b)

leptospirosis

c)

ringworm

d)

giardiasis

29.

which of the following is a viral disease?

a)

tetanus

b)

rocky mountain spotted fever

c)

coccidiosis

d)

rabies

30.

a parasite that lives on hair is called?

a)

lice

b)

mite

c)

flea

d)

tick

31.

a parasite that can result in the death of a dog is

a)

whipworm

b)

heartworm

c)

roundworm

d)

hookworm

32.

birds have this many toes or digits on each foot

a)

6

b)

4

c)

5

d)

3

33.

the total number of eggs in a nest at one time is called a

a)

group

b)

clutch

c)

brood

d)

flock

34.

birds have natural biting and screaming behaviors because in the wild they

a)

want to be dominant

b)

all of the above

c)

are natural prey

d)

have a social ranking

35.

birds have the emotions and intelligence of a:

a)

senior citizen

b)

adult

c)

child

d)

teenager

36.

which of the following statements is not true?

a)

birds should be yelled at to correct and punish them

b)

birds learn by reputation

c)

birds are territorial

d)

birds try to be the head of the household

37.

what is used to determine the gender of the bird?

a)

feather sample

b)

blood sample

c)

dna test

d)

all of the above

38.

which of the following statements is true about avian breeding and reproduction?

a)

breeding pairs should be under 1 year of age

b)

all breeding pairs bond and mate

c)

handling eggs is ideal for checking for damage

d)

female birds should have diet supplements

39.

the conditions in birds that causes straining and a swollen abdomen is

a)

egg bound

b)

psittacosis

c)

pbfd

d)

knemidkoptes

40.

which of the following food is not safe for birds to eat?

a)

avocado

b)

broccoli

c)

banana

d)

papaya

41.

which of the following avian diseases does not typically show signs but birds still shed the disease?

a)

PBFD

b)

psittacosis

c)

knemidokoptes

d)

egg bound

42.

which of the following is not true about rabits?

a)

rabbits are ruminants

b)

rabbits are related to hares

c)

rabbits are lagomorphs

d)

rabbits eat their own feces

43.

what is runny nose in rabbits?

a)

respiratory disease

b)

pasteurella

c)

diarrhea

d)

tyzzers disease

44.

housing a rabbit should be done by providing _____ square foot or feet of space per rabbit.

a)

1.5

b)

1

c)

2

d)

2.5

45.

a newborn rabbit should receive _____ ml of formula per day if orphaned

a)

15

b)

5

c)

10

d)

20

46.

which of the following behaviors is not a normal rabbit behavior?

a)

growling

b)

striking with the front feet

c)

all are normal rabbit behaviors

d)

thumping the foot

47.

which of the following foods is not ideal for rabbits?

a)

pellets

b)

carrots

c)

chocolate

d)

lettuce

48.

rabbits should eat this percentage of their body weight as a maintenance?

a)

5

b)

10

c)

2

d)

4

49.

which of the following diseases has no vaccine or treatment?

a)

tyzzers disease

b)

pasteurella

c)

all of the above

d)

respiratory disease

50.

which of the following ph levels of water is alkaline?

a)

6.5

b)

1.0

c)

7.5

d)

4.0

51.

which of the following fish bear live young?

a)

catfish

b)

mollies

c)

goldfish

d)

gouramis

52.

glass on tanks and aquariums should be ______ in thickness.

a)

1/4 to 3/8

b)

102 inches

c)

1/4 to 1/8

d)

1/4 to 3/4

53.

which of the following filters supplements the action of bacteria and is used in large specialized tanks?

a)

canister filter

b)

nitrifier filters

c)

outside filter

d)

under gravel filiter

54.

which of the following is not a ruminant?

a)

elk

b)

ostrich

c)

alpaca

d)

bison

55.

which of the following agencies usually regulate exotic species?

a)

department of wildlife

b)

department of agriculture

c)

department of treasury

d)

department of state

56.

which of the following is not a duty or responsibility of a zookeeper?

a)

training staff

b)

diagnosing and treating animals

c)

educational tours

d)

cleaning cages and enclosures

57.

the term for a cow or dairy animal in labor is called:

a)

freshening

b)

freemartin

c)

heifer

d)

springing

58.

which production systems goal is to raise a calf to market size and then sell it for profit?

a)

back grounding system

b)

cow calf system

c)

finishing system

d)

feedlot system

59.

what is the gestation length of a cow?

a)

180

b)

283

c)

195

d)

205

60.

what amount of milk is made up of water?

a)

65

b)

50

c)

99

d)

87

61.

which of the following disease is a reproductive disease that may cause sterility and abortion in cattle?

a)

brucellosis

b)

displaced abomasum

c)

leptospirosis

d)

bovine viral diarrhea

62.

which of the following diseases is not zoonotic?

a)

bang's disease

b)

mastitis

c)

brucellosis

d)

leptospirosis

63.

which of the following metabolic conditions ,causes low blood sugar?

a)

mastitis

b)

grass tetany

c)

ketosis

d)

bloat

64.

which of the following is not an example of an draft animal?

a)

buffalo

b)

goat

c)

elephant

d)

camel

65.

which quality is not a benefit of a mule over a horse?

a)

mules endure heat better than horses

b)

mules need less food

c)

mules have a hardier digestive system

d)

mules are capable of pulling larger weight loads

66.

the straps that attach the collar and harness are called:

a)

yokes

b)

reins

c)

hames

d)

whipple trees

67.

which of the following may occur if an animal is not conditioned?

a)

become more anorexic

b)

injure legs or muscles

c)

decreased body temperature

d)

lose weight

68.

which of the following is an advantage of sheep?

a)

industry competition

b)

low meat production

c)

excellent scavengers

d)

susceptible to disease

69.

what is the gestation length for sheep?

a)

148-150 days

b)

140-142 days

c)

135-138 days

d)

114-116 days

70.

which of the following is not a sheep production system?

a)

range band method

b)

confinement method

c)

feeder sheep method

d)

fann flock method

71.

why is it important to be gentle with sheep during handling?

a)

all of the above

b)

bones can easily be fractured

c)

sheep wool can be damaged

d)

sheep can easily be injured

72.

how long are sheep in estrus?

a)

1 week

b)

1-2 days

c)

10 hours

d)

30 hours

73.

what is the part of the egg where the sperm enters the egg cell to allow fertilization to occur?

a)

germinal disc

b)

albumin

c)

chalaza

d)

yolk

74.

what is the incubation time of chickens?

a)

11 days

b)

21 days

c)

18 days

d)

15 days

75.

what type of poultry production system is raised specifically to produce fertile eggs?

a)

broiler production

b)

egg production

c)

pullet production

d)

broiler egg production

76.

how many eggs can one hen produce a year?

a)

400

b)

500

c)

300

d)

200

77.

what disease causes respiratory distress that may make a bird twist its neck?

a)

newcastle disease

b)

avian influenza

c)

marek's disease

d)

infectious bronchitis

78.

what is a capon?

a)

a castred male chicken over 6 pounds and 6 months of age

b)

a chick between 6-8 weeks old used for meat

c)

a chick over 8 weeks of age and over 4 pounds

d)

a female hen used for laying eggs

79.

which of the following is a sign of a healthy egg?

a)

a small air cell

b)

a yellow yolk

c)

albumin clings to yolk

d)

all of the above

80.

which of the following is not a function of cell biology?

a)

cell division

b)

metabolism

c)

flexion

d)

phagocytosis

81.

the study of the functions of the human body is called:

a)

anatomy

b)

physiology

c)

pathology

d)

histology

82.

the type of tissue that lines internal organ structures and serves as a protective layer is called?

a)

mucular

b)

epithelial

c)

connective

d)

nervous

83.

which of the following animal is not a ruminant?

a)

llama

b)

pig

c)

goat

d)

cow

84.

herbivores would eat which of the following

a)

beef

b)

corn

c)

chicken

d)

pork

85.

wavelike motion of the digestive tract?

a)

papillae

b)

mucosa

c)

peristalsis

d)

fundus

86.

type of digestive system characterized by a single simple stomach?

a)

ruminant

b)

nonruminat

c)

avian

d)

monogastric

87.

substance created by the liver

a)

bile

b)

mucosa

c)

glucose

d)

trypsin

88.

animals known as cud chewers have which type of digestive system?

a)

ruminant

b)

monogastric

c)

avian

d)

nonruminat

89.

animals that do not have a gallbladder have which type of digestive system?

a)

nonruminant

b)

avian

c)

monogastric

d)

ruminant

90.

a condition resulting from fluid loss in the body is

a)

dehydration

b)

diabetes

c)

peristalsis

d)

digestion

91.

a swolen and painful abdomen is a sign of

a)

bloat

b)

constipation

c)

overeating

d)

dehydration

92.

inflammation of the lungs is a characteristic of

a)

asthma

b)

pneumonia

c)

bordertella

d)

heaves

93.

a tear in the chest muscle allowing muscle to protrude though it is called:

a)

diaphragmatic hernia

b)

roaring

c)

pleural friction rub

d)

heaves

94.

a severe and chronic cough may be the result of

a)

pneumonia

b)

Bordetella

c)

asthma

d)

shipping fever

95.

an allergy to dust seen mainly in horses is called

a)

asthma

b)

roaring

c)

heaves

d)

kennel cough

96.

a respiratory infection caused by transport of livestock is called:

a)

bordetella

b)

shipping fever

c)

asthma

d)

heaves

97.

which of the following is caused by a virus?

a)

influenza

b)

salmonella

c)

anaplasmosis

d)

encephalitis

98.

which of the following is caused by bacteria?

a)

joint ill

b)

rabies

c)

leukemia

d)

ich

99.

diseases that are spread by biting insects are called

a)

viral

b)

fungal

c)

rickettsial

d)

bacetrial

100.

which of the following is a type of roundworm?

a)

trichuris vulpine

b)

taxocara cati

c)

ancylostoma caninum

d)

dirofilaria immitis

101.

which of the following parasities can cause a skin condition in humans called cutaneous larval margins?

a)

heartworm

b)

hookworm

c)

roundworm

d)

whipworm

102.

a parasite that is flat and segmented living in the small and large intestine is called:

a)

giardia

b)

tapeworm

c)

strongyles

d)

coccidia

103.

a parasite known to cause lyme disease is

a)

tick

b)

flea

c)

fly

d)

mite

104.

bartonella is a bacteria spread by

a)

ticks

b)

lice

c)

fleas

d)

mites

105.

which animal is a greatest risk for developing west nile virus from the bite of a mosquito?

a)

cat

b)

dog

c)

goat

d)

horse

106.

pregnant women are at increased risk of developing which of the following zoonotic diseases?

a)

toxoplasmosis

b)

brucellosis

c)

encephalitis

d)

west nile virus

107.

which of the following is the most common source of coccidian?

a)

bird dropping

b)

rabbit droppings

c)

water contamination

d)

food contamination

108.

which of the following parasites is visible to the naked eye?

a)

hookworm

b)

whipworm

c)

roundworm

d)

coccidian

109.

which of the following insects cause heart worm disease?

a)

mosquitos

b)

ticks

c)

flies

d)

fleas

110.

which of the following descriptions pertains to the cephalic vein?

a)

the medial aspect of the rear limb

b)

the lateral aspect of the front limb

c)

the medial aspect of the front limb

d)

the lateral aspect of the rear limb

111.

what type of aggression is displayed when an animal protects its owner

a)

dominance aggression

b)

territorial aggression

c)

fear aggression

d)

redirected aggression

112.

which of the following is an example of phycological restraint?

a)

the bear hug

b)

the scuff

c)

a sedative

d)

the evil eye

113.

which of the following factors should be considered when handling animals?

a)

temperature

b)

stress

c)

teamwork

d)

all of the above

e)

none of the above

114.

which of the following knots is most commonly used for tying of a large animal?

a)

surgeons knot

b)

reefers knot

c)

square knot

d)

half hitch

115.

which of the following restraint equipment should not be used on cats?

a)

rabies pole

b)

muzzle

c)

anesthesia chamber

d)

squeeze chute

116.

which of the following is not an example of an aseptic practice?

a)

wearing exam gloves

b)

treating patients in isolation before treating surgical patients

c)

wearing a gown in the isolation ward

d)

washing hands after removing gloves

117.

which of the following is not a class of sanitation?

a)

sterilization

b)

cleaning

c)

disinfecting

d)

aseptic technique

118.

which of the following agents is used to disinfect

a)

chlorhexidine

b)

all of the above

c)

alcohol

d)

iodine

119.

which of the following is not considered for selecting a disinfect?

a)

toxic effects

b)

surface type

c)

name of product

d)

contact time

120.

which of the following is used at extremely high temperatures to destroy living organisms?

a)

cold tray

b)

autoclave

c)

radiation

d)

ultrasound

121.

which of the following statements is not true

a)

everyone should clean as you go

b)

clean by starting at the front of the cage and working toward the back

c)

clean at the top and work down

d)

everyone should practice aseptic techniques

122.

which of the following is the term for blood noted within the eye?

a)

anisicoria

b)

nystagmus

c)

hyphema

d)

jaundice

123.

which of the following animals may have a normal core body temperature of 105?

a)

cow

b)

rabbit

c)

horse

d)

dog

124.

which of the following is not a cause of an aural hematoma?

a)

otitis

b)

ear mites

c)

bitewound

d)

all of the above are cause of aural hematomas

125.

which of the following is a term for tartar?

a)

plaque

b)

calculus

c)

gingiva

d)

abscess

126.

which of the following teeth are carnassial teeth?

a)

lower premolers

b)

lower canines

c)

upper 4th premolers

d)

upper 4th molers

127.

which of the following is the definition of hyperplasia?

a)

increased amounts of tissue

b)

decreased amounts of tissue

c)

lack of tissue

d)

abnormal tissue

128.

which of the following is required before a bath?

a)

removing mats

b)

basic brushing

c)

basic combing

d)

all of the above

129.

which of the following may cause irritation or discomfort in an animal?

a)

using a mat splitter

b)

rinsing conditioner

c)

applying spray or conditioner

d)

rinsing shampoo

130.

which of the following is not done when using clippers?

a)

hold the clipper blade flat against the hair

b)

clip against the hair

c)

use a clipper guard when clipping or shaving

d)

use cool lube to prevent over heating

131.

which of the following is appropriate for shampoo or conditioner coat contact?

a)

2

b)

5

c)

10

d)

20

132.

which of the following is a concern with the ear drum

a)

packing wax into ear canal

b)

damaging the ear drum while cleaning

c)

use of cotton tipped applicators during cleaning

d)

all of the above

133.

which of the following should be done in floppy eared animals prior to a bath?

a)

place a cotton ball into the ear canal

b)

tie back the ear flaps

c)

do not bath the ear flaps or head

d)

all of the above

134.

which of the following test procedures requires clay to plug the tube?

a)

packed cell volume

b)

blood smear

c)

fecal sample

d)

urinalysis

135.

which of the following is the layer of blood cells where the PCV is read?

a)

buffy coat

b)

anticoagulant

c)

feathered edge

d)

microhematocrit

136.

which of the following is not a vacutainer color?

a)

white

b)

blue

c)

red

d)

green

137.

which of the following is a common snap test?

a)

fiv

b)

all of the above

c)

heartworm

d)

feline leukemia virus

138.

which of the following is not a part of the blood smear procedure?

a)

keep a constant and even pressure on the spreader slide

b)

very small drop of blood

c)

keep the spreader slider at a 45 degree angle

d)

rinse the slide well after applying the blood drop

139.

which of the following is the amount necessary for a fecal flotation to prepare?

a)

15 minutes

b)

20 minutes

c)

5 minutes

d)

10 minutes

140.

which of the following animals may get ear mites?

a)

dogs

b)

rabbits

c)

cats

d)

all of the above

141.

which of the following defines the term efficacy?

a)

the trade name of a drug

b)

the dosage of a drug

c)

the strength and life of a drug

d)

the amount of a drug

142.

which of the following is the highest level of addictive drug class?

a)

schedule 2

b)

schedule 3

c)

schedule 4

d)

schedule 5

143.

which of the following is not a DEA requirement for controlled substances?

a)

all veterinary's must have a DEA license to prescribe controlled substances.

b)

DEA licenses are renewed every three years

c)

controlled substances may kept on pharmacy shelves

d)

the DEA license must be post in a visible area of the pharmacy

144.

which of the following is not a route of giving medications?

a)

by mouth

b)

aural

c)

ophthalmic

d)

dram

145.

which of the following is the common color of a drug container?

a)

amber

b)

beige

c)

purple

d)

mauve

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