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HEMA 1 LEC WEEK 1 TO 4

Total questions: 206

Worksheet time: 2hrs 1mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the specific gravity of whole blood

a)

1.045-1.066

b)

1.050-1.070

c)

7.35

d)

7.45

2.

HE discovered erythrocytes

a)

Swammerdam

b)

Van Leuwenhoek

c)

Wharton Jones

d)

Jean Dausset

3.

He described human erythrocytes

a)

Swammerdam

b)

Van Leuwenhoek

c)

Wharton Jones

d)

Jean Dausset

4.

Year when the 1st complete classification of leukocytes

a)

1897

b)

1902

c)

1846

d)

1842

5.

Year when wright stain was developed

a)

1942

b)

1846

c)

1902

d)

1897

6.

Year when the PMN was distinguished from other leukocytes

a)

1902

b)

1897

c)

1846

d)

1842

7.

Year when the platelets was described

a)

1902

b)

1897

c)

1846

d)

1842

8.

Year when the worm described in the blood

a)

1657

b)

1658

c)

1674

d)

1842

9.

Year wen the erythrocytes was described

a)

1842

b)

1674

c)

1658

d)

1657

10.

Terminology used for "color"

(a)  

11.

Terminology used for "marrow"

(a)  

12.

meaning of MCH

(a)  

13.

It is the fluid that remains after coagulation has occurred and clot has formed

a)

Serum

b)

plasma

14.

it is composed of approximately 90% water and contains proteins, enzymes, hormones, lipids and salts

a)

serum

b)

plasma

15.

it is pale yellow or straw colored/ slightly hazy

a)

plasma

b)

serum

16.

TBV of newborns

a)

4-5 liters

b)

5-6 liters

c)

150-250 ml

d)

250-350 ml

17.

What is the range of normal pH

a)

7.35-7.45

b)

7.45

c)

7.30-7.50

d)

8.20-9.02

18.

What is the pH of arterial blood

(a)  

19.

It is the ratio of the density of a substance to the density of a reference substance

a)

Blood specific gravity

b)

Blood viscosity

c)

Osmolality

d)

pH

20.

Specific gravity of serum

a)

1.024-1.028

b)

1.025-1.029

21.

Specific gravity of plasma

a)

1.024-1.028

b)

1.025-1.029

22.

What is the color of pulmonary arteries and veins with an hemoglobin that has no oxygen?

a)

blue

b)

violet

c)

bright red

d)

dark reddish purple

23.

concentration of solutes dissolved in the blood

a)

osmolality

b)

viscosity

c)

specific gravity

d)

pH

24.

reference range of osmometer

a)

282-297 mosms

b)

281-298 mosms

c)

281-297 mosms

25.

Transports oxygen and carbon dioxide

a)

hematocrit

b)

hemoglobin

c)

plasma

d)

serum

26.

Increased RBC count reflecting increased circulating RBC mass

a)

polycythemia

b)

anemia

c)

leukopenia

d)

lyphodenopathy

27.

What is the measurement used for MCV

a)

femtoliter

b)

picograms

28.

What is the measurement used for MCH

a)

femtoliter

b)

picograms

29.

It reflects RBC diameter on a wright stained blood film

a)

MCV

b)

MCHC

c)

MCH

30.

Reflects RBC staining intensity and amount of central pallor

a)

MCHC

b)

MCV

c)

MCH

31.

Expresses the degree if variation in RBC volume

a)

MCHC

b)

MCH

c)

MCV

d)

RDW

32.

It aids in diagnosis of anemia

a)

MCHC

b)

MCV

c)

RDW

d)

MCH

33.

Used to differentiate and count these young RBCs

a)

Vital stain

b)

smears

34.

Increased bands indicates bacterial infection and is customarily called?

a)

Left shift

b)

Right shift

35.

Dark purple, irregular cytoplasmic granules and contains histamines and various proteins

a)

basophil

b)

lymphocytes

c)

neutrophils

d)

eosinophils

36.

It is rare and often signals a hematologic proteins

a)

Basophilia

b)

lymphodenopathy

c)

lymphocytosis

d)

lymphocytopenia

37.

Comprise a complex system of cells that provides for host immunity

a)

lymphocytes

b)

basophils

c)

neutrophils

d)

monocytes

38.

Increased lymphocyte count and associated with viral infections

a)

Lymphocytosis

b)

lymphocytopenia

c)

Chronic lymphatic leukemia

d)

Acute lymphoblastic leukemia

39.

Abnormally low lymphocyte count and associated with drug therapy / immunodeficiency

a)

Lymphocytosis

b)

lymphocytopenia

c)

Chronic lymphatic leukemia

d)

Acute lymphoblastic leukemia

40.

More prevalent in people older than 45 years old

a)

Chronic lymphatic leukemia

b)

Acute lymphoblastic leukemia

41.

Most common form of childhood leukemia

a)

Chronic lymphatic leukemia

b)

Acute lymphoblastic leukemia

42.

Found in certain infections, collagen vascular diseases, or acute and chronic leukemia

a)

monocytosis

b)

lymphodenopathy

c)

thrombocytsis

d)

essential thrombocytopenia

43.

Elevated platelet levels and signals inflammation/ trauma but convey modest intrinsic significance

a)

Monocytosis

b)

Thrombocytosis

c)

Essential Thrombocytopenia

d)

Endothelial cell

44.

Rare malignant condition characterized by extremely high platelet counts and uncontrolled platelet production

a)

Monocytosis

b)

Thrombocytosis

c)

Essential Thrombocytopenia

d)

Endothelial cell

45.

They are important in maintaining normal blood flow, in tethering (decelerating) platelets during times of injury, and in enabling WBCs to escape blood vessels

a)

thrombocytosis

b)

essential throbocytopenia

c)

endothelial cells

d)

monocytosis

46.

detects lineage specific antigens on the surface or in the cytoplasm of leukemia and lymphoma cells

a)

immunostaining method

b)

cytogenetic

c)

osmotic fragility test

d)

glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase assay

47.

A membrane protein that is present in the megakaryocytic lineage and may be diagnostic for megakaryocytic leukemia

a)

CD42b

b)

CD22

c)

CD24C

d)

CD23

48.

Uses graduated concentration of saline solution to detect spherocyte in hereditary spherocytosis or warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia

a)

OFT

b)

RDW

c)

MCH

d)

MCHC

49.

Oldest hematological test and detects inflammation and roughly estimates its intensity

a)

ESR

b)

RDW

c)

CD42b

50.

An internal standard methodology which supports hematology lab applications

a)

moving average

b)

moving high

c)

moving low

51.

Main clotting protein

a)

fibrinogen

b)

albumin

c)

hemoglobin

52.

Main clotting protein

a)

fibrinogen

b)

albumin

53.

The study of disorder and abnormalities related / associated with the quality and quantity of the cellular elements of the blood

(a)  

54.

he described worms in the blood

a)

athanasius kircher

b)

James Homer Wright

c)

Jean dausset

d)

Luc montagnier

55.

The year when hematology was considered a separate science from clinical pathology

a)

1920

b)

1921

c)

1930

d)

1940

56.

terminology used for "without"

a)

a

b)

none

c)

absent

d)

leave

57.

terminology used for "youngest/nucleated"

(a)  

58.

terminology used for "cell"

(a)  

59.

terminology used for "abnormal"

(a)  

60.

terminology used for "in the blood"

(a)  

61.

terminology used for "iron"

(a)  

62.

terminology used for "increased"

(a)  

63.

terminology used for "decreased"

(a)  

64.

terminology used for "equal"

(a)  

65.

terminology used for "large"

(a)  

66.

terminology used for "very large/huge"

(a)  

67.

terminology used for "small"

(a)  

68.

terminology used for "normal"

(a)  

69.

terminology used for "like"

(a)  

70.

Meaning of FBC

(a)  

71.

A life sustaining fluid which circulates through the heart and blood vessels

(a)  

72.

It is the liquid portion of unclotted blood

a)

serum

b)

plasma

73.

it is pale yellow, clear and transparent

a)

plasma

b)

serum

74.

the <20% remains in serum is called?

a)

fibrinogen

b)

residual prothrombin

c)

albumin

75.

How long 'til the blood coagulates?

(a)  

76.

TBV of male

a)

5-6 L

b)

4-5 L

c)

250-350 mL

77.

TBV of female

a)

5-6 L

b)

4-5 L

c)

250-350 mL

78.

it can be described as the thickness and stickiness of blood. It measures the resistance of blood flow.

a)

Blood viscosity

b)

Osmolality

c)

Specific gravity

79.

viscosity depends on what?

(a)  

80.

It is a measure of the acidity or basicity of an aqueous solution it is the negative decimal logarithm of hydrogen concentration

a)

specific gravity

b)

ph

c)

viscosity

d)

osmolality

81.

What is the average normal pH

a)

7.35

b)

7.40

c)

7.45

82.

Specific gravity is also called?

(a)  

83.

Color of arterial blood

a)

Bright red

b)

Dark purple red

c)

Purple

d)

Blue

84.

Color of venous blood

a)

Bright red

b)

Dark purple red

c)

Purple

d)

Blue

85.

pH below 7.35

a)

Acidosis

b)

Alkalosis

86.

pH above 7.45

a)

Acidosis

b)

Alkalosis

87.

Transports oxygen from lungs to tissues and clears tissues of carbon dioxide and transports glucose, proteins, and fats moves waste to the liver and kidneys

a)

blood

b)

plasma

c)

hemoglobin

d)

hematocrit

88.

Provides coagulation enzymes that protect vessels from trauma and maintain the circulation

a)

serum

b)

plasma

c)

anemia

89.

Polycythemia leads to?

a)

anemia

b)

polycythemia

c)

high blood pressure

d)

Hyperviscosity

90.

Excluded from the hematocrit determination

a)

Buffy coat

b)

plasma

c)

serum

91.

What is the measurement used for MCHC

a)

g/dl

b)

fl

c)

pg

92.

Expresses the mass of hemoglobin and parallel the MCHC

a)

MCHC

b)

MCH

c)

MCV

93.

Newly released from bone marrow

a)

hematocrit

b)

polychromatic erythrocytes

c)

erythrocytes

94.

Phagocytic cells and its purpose is to engulf and destroy microorganism and foreign materials

a)

Neutrophi

b)

Basophil

c)

Eosinophil

d)

Monocyte

95.

Bright orange red regular cytoplasmic granules filled with proteins involved in immune system regulation

a)

Neutrophils

b)

MOnocytes

c)

Lymphocytes

d)

Eosinophils

96.

It signals a response to allergic reaction or parasitic infection

a)

Eosinophilia

b)

MOnocytophilia

c)

polycythemia

97.

These are immature macrophages

a)

Monocytes

b)

Dendritic cells

c)

Mast cells

98.

It is the most abundant cell type in the body, more abundant than RBC, or skin cells

a)

Macrophage

b)

Monocyte

c)

LYmphocyte

d)

Eosinophils

99.

True blood cells that maintains blood vessels integrity by irritating vessel wall repairs

a)

platelets

b)

rbc

c)

wbc

100.

A third system of enzymes and cofactors digests clots to restore vessel patency

a)

fibrinolysis

b)

globulin

c)

hemoglobin

101.

A continuous, regulated process of blood cell production that includes cell renewal, proliferation, differentiation and maturation

a)

hematopoiesis

b)

hematopoietic system

102.

It serves as a functional model to study stem cell biology, proliferation, maturation and their contribution to disease and tissue repair

a)

Hematopoiesis

b)

Hematopoietic system

103.

It begins on the 19th day of embryonic development

a)

Hemoglobin phase

b)

Mesoblastic phase

c)

Hepatic phase

d)

Medullary Phase

104.

What is the major site of adult blood formation in the embryo?

a)

Spleen

b)

Liver

c)

Yolk sac

d)

Bone marrow

105.

5 to 7 gestational weeks

a)

Hemoglobin phase

b)

Mesoblastic phase

c)

Hepatic phase

d)

Medullary phase

106.

It is where the lymphoid cells begins to appear

a)

Hemoglobin Phase

b)

Medullary Phase

c)

Mesoblastic phase

d)

Hepatic phase

107.

Hematopoiesis in hepatic phase happens ______

a)

Intravascularly

b)

Extravascularly

108.

It is the first organ in the fetus and also the major site of T cell production

a)

Spleen

b)

Bone marrow

c)

Thymus

d)

Liver

109.

In the hepatic phase, which of the following produces B cells?

a)

Liver

b)

Spleen

c)

Thymus

d)

Kidney

110.

It is the predominant hemoglobin in the hepatic phase but detectable level of hemoglobin A may be present

a)

Hb F

b)

Hb A

c)

Hb A1

d)

Hb A2

111.

This phase happens on the 5th month of fetal development

a)

Hemoglobin phase

b)

Hepatic phase

c)

Medullary phase

d)

mesoblastic phase

112.

A type of embryonic tissue, differentiate into structural elements that supports the developing blood cells

a)

Mesenchymal cell

b)

Epithelial Cells

c)

Hemoglobin

113.

In the medullary phase, what is the myeloid to erythroid ratio?

a)

1:1

b)

1:2

c)

3:1

d)

3:2

114.

At the end of the 24 weeks gestation, what organ becomes the primary site of hematopoiesis under the medullary phase

a)

Spleen

b)

Lymph nodes

c)

Liver

d)

Bone marrow

115.

In this organ, it contains developing erythroid, myeloid, megakaryocytic, and lymphoid

a)

Bone marrow

b)

Liver

c)

Spleen

116.

It consist of the bone marrow and thymus and is here T and B lymphocytes are derived

a)

Primary lymphoid tissue

b)

Secondary lymphoid tissue

c)

None of the above

117.

It is where lymphoid cells respond to foreign antigens, consists of the spleen, lymph nodes, and mucosa associated lymph tissue

a)

Primary lymphoid tissue

b)

Secondary lymphoid tissue

c)

None of the above

118.

What is the largest organ in the body, it contains the tissue located within the cavities of the cortical bones

a)

Bone marrow

b)

Spleen

c)

Lymph nodes

d)

Liver

119.

The projection of calcified bone, radiate out from the bone cortex into the central space, forming 3 dimensional matrix resembling a honeycomb

a)

Bone marrow

b)

Trabeculae

c)

Fimbriae

d)

Corticoids

120.

Hematopoietically active marrow consisting of the developing blood cells and their progenitors

a)

Yellow marrow

b)

Red marrow

c)

Brown marrow

d)

None of the above

121.

Hematopoietically inactive marrow composed primarily of adipocytes, with undifferentiated mesenchymal cell and macrophage

a)

Red marrow

b)

Yellow marrow

c)

Brown marrow

d)

None of the above

122.

The process of replacing the active marrow by adipocytes during development

a)

retrogression

b)

Progression

c)

Impression

d)

None of the above

123.

The red marrow is capable of reverting back to active marrow.

The brown marrow is capable to convert back to brown marrow.

a)

The first statement is correct while the second statement is incorrect

b)

The first statement is incorrect while the second statement is correct

c)

Both of the statements are incorrect

d)

Both of the statements are correct

124.

These cells originates from mesenchymal cell tat migrate into the central cavity of the bones

a)

Stromal cells

b)

Epithelial cells

c)

Macrophage

d)

mesenchymal cells

125.

These cells regulate the flow of particulates entering the leaving hematopoietic spaces in the vascular sinuses

a)

Stromal cells

b)

Epithelial cells

c)

Mesenchymal cells

d)

None of the above

126.

These are large cells with a single fat vacuole that plays a role in regulating the volume of the marrow in which active hematopoiesis occurs

a)

Stromal cells

b)

Adipocytes

c)

Epithelial cells

d)

Mesenchymal cells

127.

Bone forming cells

a)

osteoblast

b)

osteoclast

128.

bone resorbing cells

a)

osteoblast

b)

osteoclast

129.

It forms an incomplete layer of cells on the abluminal surface of the vascular sinuses

a)

Epithelial cells

b)

Adipocytes

c)

Reticular adventitial cells

d)

Stromal cells

130.

It secretes a semifluid extracellular matrix that serves to anchor developing hematopoietic cells in the bone cavity

a)

Adipocytes

b)

Stromal cells

c)

Mesenchymal cells

d)

None of the above

131.

It is composed of the hematopoietic ells and macrophage arranged in extravascular cords

a)

Yellow marrow

b)

Red marrow

132.

It is found surrounding iron laden macrophage

a)

Erythroblast

b)

Megakaryocytes

c)

Leukocytes

133.

It provides nutrients for the osseous bone and the marrow

a)

Erythroblast

b)

Megakaryocytes

c)

Periosteal arteries

134.

It plays an important role in nurturing and protecting HSCs and regulating a balance among their quiescence, self renewal, and differentiation

a)

Niche

b)

Cache

c)

Kupffer cells

d)

Liver

135.

It serves as a major site of blood cell production during the second trimester of fetal production

a)

Spleen

b)

Liver

c)

Kupffer cells

d)

Medullary phase

136.

They are macrophages that remove senescent cells and foreign debris from the blood that circulates through the liver

a)

Stromal cells

b)

Adipocytes

c)

Kupffer cells

d)

None of the above

137.

They secrete mediators that regulate protein synthesis in the hepatocytes

a)

Kupffer cells

b)

Stromal cells

c)

Epithelial cells

138.

It is the largest organ in the body that is vital but not essential for life

a)

Bone marrow

b)

LIver

c)

Spleen

d)

Skin

139.

It consists of scattered follicles with germinal centers

a)

White pulp

b)

Red pulp

c)

Marginal zone

140.

They are found with germinal centers

a)

Activated B lymphocytes

b)

Periarteriolar lymphatic system

c)

marginal zone

d)

kupffer cells

141.

It surrounds the white pulp and forms a reticular meshwork containing blood vessels, macrophage, memory B cells, and CD4+ cells

a)

White pulp

b)

Red pulp

c)

Marginal zone

142.

It is composed primarily of vascular sinuses separated by cords of reticular cell meshwork containing loosely connected specialized macrophage

a)

White pulp

b)

Red pulp

c)

Marginal zone

143.

Cells are phagocytized with subsequent degradation of cell organelles

a)

Culling

b)

Pitting

144.

In splenic macrophages remove inclusions or damage surface membrane from the circulating RBC

a)

Culling

b)

Pitting

145.

What organ serves as a storage site for platelets

a)

Liver

b)

Spleen

c)

Bone marrow

146.

This is when the spleen becomes enlarge and is palpable

a)

Splenomegaly

b)

hypersplenism

c)

lymph nodes

d)

afferent lymphatic vessels

147.

It is the enlargement of the spleen resulting in some degree of pancytopenia despite the presence of hyperactive bone marrow

a)

Splenomegaly

b)

Hypersplenism

c)

Spleen

d)

Apoptosis

148.

It is located along the lymphatic capillaries that parallel, but are not part of the circulatory system

a)

Spleen

b)

Bone marrow

c)

Lymph nodes

149.

the cortical region of some follicles develop foci of activated B cells proliferation

a)

Germical center

b)

Secondary follicles

c)

Primary follicles

150.

Follicles with germinal centers

a)

Germinal centers

b)

Secondary follicles

c)

Primary follicles

151.

Without follicles an germinal centers

a)

Germinal center

b)

Secondary follicles

c)

Primary follicles

152.

Located between the cortex and the medulla that contains T cells and numerous macrophage

a)

Cortex

b)

Paracortex

c)

Medulla

153.

Infection of the lymph node

(a)  

154.

It is characterized by a blood supply system that is unique in that it consist of capillaries

a)

Cortex

b)

Medulla

155.

It suggests that all blood cells are derived from a single progenitor stem cells called pluripotent hematopoietic stem cells

a)

monophyletic theory

b)

polyphyletic theory

156.

It suggests that each of the blood cell lineages is derived from its own unique stem cell

a)

monophyletic theory

b)

polyphyletic theory

157.

What is the most widely accepted theory among experimental hematologists today?

a)

Stem cell theory

b)

monophyletic theory

c)

polyphyletic theory

158.

It proliferates and differentiates into T, B and NK lymphocytes and dendritic lineages

a)

hematopoietic stem cells

b)

common lymphoid progenitor

c)

common myeloid progenitor

159.

Proliferates and differentiates into individual granulocytic, erythrocytic, monocytic, and megakaryocytic lineages

a)

Common lymphoid progenitor

b)

Common myeloid progenitor

c)

Hematopoietic stem cells

160.

It is able to reconstitute the hematopoietic system of lethally irradiate host

a)

hematopoietic stem cells

b)

common lymphoid progenitors

c)

common myeloid progenitor

161.

A bipotential progenitor cell of mesodermal origin that gives rise to hematopoietic and endothelial lineages

a)

hemangioblast

b)

osteoblast

c)

hemoglobinopathies

d)

Stem cell

162.

Associated with a loss of stemness

a)

CD38 & HLA-DR

b)

CD33 & CD38

c)

CD10 & CD38

d)

CD 7

163.

Seen on committed myeloid progenitors

a)

CD38 & HLA-DR

b)

CD33 & CD38

c)

CD10 & CD38

d)

CD7

164.

Seen on committed lymphoid progenitor

a)

CD38 & HLA-DR

b)

CD3 & CD38

c)

CD10 & CD38

d)

CD9

165.

Seen on T lymphoid progenitors cells and natural killer cells

a)

CD 10 & CD38

b)

CD 7

c)

CD 19

d)

CD 10

166.

Seen on B lymphoid progenitors

a)

CD10 & CD38

b)

CD17

c)

CD 7

d)

CD 19

167.

A group of specific glyoproteins

(a)  

168.

It is responsible for stimulation / inhibition of production, differentiation, and trafficking of mature blood cells and their precursors

a)

Cytokines

b)

Progenitors

c)

hemangioblast

169.

A programmed cell death

a)

Apoptosis

b)

Necrosis

170.

Am early acting growth factor, its receptor is the transmembrane

a)

Kit ligand

b)

KIT

c)

FLT2

d)

FLT3

171.

It is a receptor type tyrosine protein kinase that is expressed on HSCs and is down regulated with differentiation

a)

KIT ligand

b)

KIT

c)

FLT2

d)

FLT3

172.

It is a receptor type tyrosine protein kinase

a)

KIT ligand

b)

KIT

c)

FLT 2

d)

FLT 3

173.

It regulates process for maintaining adequate number of erythrocytes in the peripheral blood

a)

erythropoiesis

b)

EPO

c)

BFU-E

174.

Produces a large multiclustered colony that resembles a cluster of grapes containing brightly colored hemoglobin

a)

erythropoiesis

b)

BFU-E

c)

EPO

175.

activities done in prior to the examination of the specimen or sample that is intended to establish system conducive to accuracy

a)

preventive

b)

assessment

c)

corrective

176.

activities done during testing to determine whether the test systems are performing correctly

a)

preventive

b)

assessment

c)

corrective

177.

IT is done when error is detected to correct the system. recalibration f instrument / machine

a)

preventive

b)

assessment

c)

corrective

178.

It is the closeness to the estimated value

a)

Accuracy

b)

Precision

179.

It is the reproducibility of a result, whether accurate or inaccurate

a)

accuracy

b)

precision

180.

It means it is free from defects or errors

a)

Quality control

b)

Quality

c)

Quality assurance

181.

It minimizes error

a)

Quality

b)

Quality control

c)

Quality assurance

182.

It ensures results are reliable and to determine how correct or incorrect the result is

a)

Quality

b)

Quality control

c)

Quality assurance

183.

Unit of measurement for ESR

(a)  

184.

Length of needle

(a)  

185.

Bind to non ionize form of calcium then chelates calcium

a)

sequesterene

b)

citrate

c)

heparin

d)

oxalate

186.

Most common and preferred anticoagulant for coagulation studies

(a)  

187.

It binds calcium

a)

EDTA

b)

Citrate

c)

Oxalate

d)

Double Oxalate

e)

Heparin

188.

Most commonly used for osmotic fragility testing & immunotyping

(a)  

189.

What evacuated tube is not recommended for blood transfusion

(a)  

190.

A tube used in all RBC evaluation test ssince there is no effect on RBC

(a)  

191.

At what phase does the production of Alpha globin chain begins?

a)

mesoblastic phase

b)

medullary phase

c)

hepatic phase

d)

hemoglobin phase

192.

What is the globin chain combination of gower 1

(please use "&" instead of "and")

(a)  

193.

What is the globin chain combination of gower 2

(please use "&" instead of "and")

(a)  

194.

What is the globin chain combination of Portland

(please use "&" instead of "and")

(a)  

195.

Hematopoiesis at this phase occurs extravascularly with liver remaining the major site of hematopoiesis during the second trimester of fetal life

a)

Mesoblastic phase

b)

Hepatic phase

c)

Medullary phase

196.

What is the major site of hematopoiesis during the second trimester of fetal life?

(a)  

197.

What organ does hematopoiesis begins in myeloid phase?

(a)  

198.

What is the globin chain combination of hemoglobin A?

(please use "&" instead of "and")

(a)  

199.

What is the globin chain combination of hemoglobin F

(please use "&" instead of "and")

(a)  

200.

A pan myeloid rgowth factor that stimualte granu-, mono, megakaryocytes and eosinophil progenitors

a)

GM-CSF

b)

G-CSF

c)

M-CSF

d)

MEG-CSF

201.

Stimulates granulocytes production and functional activation

a)

GM-CSF

b)

G-CSF

c)

M-CSF

d)

MEG-CSF

202.

GM-CSF

a)

fibroblast

b)

T cells

c)

endothelial cells

d)

Monocyte

e)

megakaryocytes

203.

G-CSF

a)

fibrblast

b)

T cell

c)

endithelial cell

d)

monocyte

204.

M-CSF

a)

monocyte

b)

fibroblast

c)

endothelial cells

d)

macrophage

e)

t cells

205.

MEG-CSF

a)

monocyte

b)

fibroblast

c)

megakaryocyte

d)

endothelial cells

e)

lymphocyte

206.

What is the source of EPO?

(a)