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P&R QUIZ #2

Total questions: 43

Worksheet time: 43mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

During the acute phase, (a)   of the joints reduces pain and inflammation.

2.

Group of symptoms (including moon face, buffalo hump)

a)

Cushingoid

b)

Uveitis

c)

Enthesitis

d)

Felty's disease

3.



(a)  

4.

Which assessment findings will the nurse expect for the client with late-stage rheumatoid arthritis - SATA

a)

Bony nodes in finger joints

b)

Subcutaneous nodules

c)

Severe weight loss

d)

Joint deformity

e)

Thrombocytosis

5.

Which health teaching by the nurse is important for clients diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus? SATA

a)

Take frequent rest periods to prevent fatigue

b)

Avoid green leafy vegetables to prevent bleeding

c)

Avoid sun exposure to prevent disease flare-ups

d)

Report fever to your health care provider immediately

e)

Use a mild soap for bathing to prevent sin irritation

6.

What is it called when all bone marrow cells are low

(a)  

7.

One of the biggest problems is the misperception by patients and nononcology nurses that these drugs are less toxic than IV chemotherapy

a)

True

b)

False

8.

Cell growth that does not cause harm.

a)

Neoplasia

b)

Benign cells

c)

Malignant cells

d)

metastasis

9.

The disease caused by an uncontrolled division of abnormal cells in a part of the body.

(a)  

10.

Cells growing in wrong place at wrong time due to a small problem with cellular regulation.

(a)  

11.

What are characteristics of benign growth? SATA

a)

Cell Division

b)

Adherence

c)

Migratory

d)

Appearance

12.

Cells that are abnormal, serve no useful function and are harmful to normal body tissues.

(a)  

13.

Growth in size of cell is called?

a)

hypertrophy

b)

hyperplasia

c)

Benign

d)

•Malignant

14.

Examples of benign growth: moles, skin tags, nasal polyps, endometriosis, fibroids

a)

True

b)

False

15.

Cancer can metastasize to other vital organs and disrupt multiple bodily functions.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

16.

When cells break off from the primary location and establish a remote colony.

(a)  

17.

What is the most common cause of cancer spread?

a)

Bloodborne metastasis

b)

Lymphatic spread

c)

Progression

d)

Carcinogenesis

18.

The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving rituximab (Rituxan) for treatment of lymphoma. During the infusion, it is essential for the nurse to observe for which side effect?

a)

Alopecia

b)

Allergy

c)

Fever

d)

Chills

19.

When caring for the client with hyperuricemia associated with tumor lysis syndrome (TLS), for which medication does the nurse anticipate an order?

a)

Recombinant erythropoietin (Procrit)

b)

Allopurinol (Zyloprim)

c)

Potassium chloride

d)

Radioactive iodine-131 (131I)

20.

Which medication does the nurse plan to administer to a client before chemotherapy to decrease the incidence of nausea and vomiting?

a)

Morphine

b)

Ondansetron (Zofran)

c)

Naloxone (Narcan)

d)

Diazepam (Valium)

21.

A newly graduated RN has just finished a 6-week orientation to the oncology unit. Which client is most appropriate to assign to the new graduate?

a)

A 30-year-old with acute lymphocytic leukemia who will receive combination chemotherapy today

b)

A 40-year-old with chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting who has had no urine output for 16 hours

c)

A 45-year-old with pancytopenia who will require IV administration of erythropoietin (Procrit)

d)

A 72-year-old with tumor lysis syndrome who is receiving normal saline IV at a rate of 250 mL/hr

22.

Which potential side effects does the nurse include in the teaching plan for a client undergoing radiation therapy for laryngeal cancer? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Fatigue

b)

Changes in color of hair

c)

Change in taste

d)

Changes in skin of the neck

e)

Difficulty swallowing

23.

The nurse has received in report that a client receiving chemotherapy has severe neutropenia. Which interventions does the nurse plan to implement? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Assess for fever.

b)

Observe for bleeding.

c)

Administer

pegfilgrastim

(Neulasta).

d)

Do not permit fresh flowers or plants in the room.

e)

Teach the client to omit raw fruits and vegetables from the diet

24.

The nurse is teaching a client who is receiving an antiestrogen drug about the side effects she may encounter. Which side effects does the nurse include in the discussion? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Heavy menses

b)

Smooth facial skin

c)

Hyperkalemia

d)

Breast tenderness

e)

Deep vein thrombosis

25.

Biologic response modifiers have which positive effects on patients receiving chemotherapy? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Less risk of life-threatening infections

b)

Reduced incidence of alopecia

c)

Reduced severity of nausea

d)

Able to tolerate higher doses of chemotherapy

e)

Euphoria and increases libido

26.

A patient with advanced breast cancer reports severe back pain and leg weakness. Based on these symptoms, what does the nurse suspect?

a)

Tumor lysis syndrome

b)

Lower back cancer

c)

Spinal cord compression.

d)

Bladder tumor

27.

At what point is a patient radioactive when receiving radiation by teletherapy and is therefore a potential danger to other people?

a)

the patient is never radioactive

b)

during the mechanical delivery of gamma rays

c)

for the first 24-48 hours after treatment

d)

until the radiation source has decayed by one half life

28.

what are the side effects of radiation (select all that apply)

a)

altered taste sensation

b)

skin changes and permanent local hair loss

c)

diarrhea and tooth loss

d)

weight gain and fluid retention

e)

fatigue

29.

For a patient undergoing external radiation therapy, what do the nurses instruction include? (Select all that apply)

a)

do not remove the markings

b)

do not use lotions or ointments

c)

avoid direct skin exposure to sunlight for up to a year

d)

use mild soap and water on affected skin

e)

gently rub treated areas to stimulate circulation

30.

why does the nurse wear a dosimeter when providing care to a patient receiving brachytherapy?

a)

indicated special expertise in radiation therapy

b)

protects the nurse from absorbing radiation

c)

measures the nurses exposure to radiation

d)

ensures that the radiation dosage is accurate

31.

the nurse hears in report that the patient has xerostomia. which teaching point does the nurse plan to review with the patient?

a)

regular dental visits are essential because of increased risk for dental caries

b)

use mild soap and apply unscented lotion to reduce itching sensation

c)

avoid rigorous sports because bones are more prone to pathologic fractures

d)

avoid direct sun exposure for at least a year because your skin will be sensitive

32.

While reviewing the laboratory reports of a patient with cancer, the nurse anticipates that the patient has tumor lysis syndrome. Which finding indicates this condition? (select all that apply)

a)

increased calcium levels

b)

Decreased sodium levels

c)

Increased uric acid levels

d)

Increased potassium levels

e)

Decreased phosphorus levels

33.

The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving cancer treatment. What disease-related consequence will contribute to sensory and motor deficits in this patient?

a)

Increased risk for fatigue

b)

Increased risk for impaired clotting

c)

Increased risk for shortness of breath

d)

Increased risk for peripheral neuropathy

34.

Which complications may occur due to bone metastasis? Select all that apply.

a)

Hypoxia

b)

Fractures

c)

Hypercalcemia

d)

Poor tissue oxygenation

e)

Spinal cord compression

35.

The nurse is caring for a patient with cancer who also has thrombocytopenia. What has likely caused the thrombocytopenia? Select all that apply.

a)

Impaired immune function

b)

Impaired platelet production

c)

Impaired tissue oxygenation

d)

Impaired bone marrow function

e)

Impaired blood-producing function

36.

Which type of surgery is performed to remove tissues that are at risk of becoming cancerous?

a)

Prophylactic

b)

Diagnostic

c)

Curative

d)

Cytoreductive

37.

Which method of radiation treatment delivery uses radioactive isotopes either in solid form or within body fluids?

a)

Teletherapy

b)

Brachytherapy

c)

Stereotactic body radiotherapy (SBRT)

d)

Intensity-modulated radiation therapy (IMRT)

38.

Which statement correctly describes oral chemotherapy agents as compared to traditional intravenous agents?

a)

Their use avoids the safety risks associated with traditional intravenous agents.

b)

Their schedule allows for more flexibility without dependence on intravenous access.

c)

Oral chemotherapy drugs are just as toxic as traditional intravenous chemotherapy agents.

d)

Self-management is easy for patients and families to accomplish with oral chemotherapy drugs.

39.

What are key points for the nurse to include in patient education about skin care during radiation therapy? Select all that apply.

a)

Clean skin cautiously to avoid removing ink or dye markings.

b)

Avoid exposure of the irradiated skin areas to heat or sun.

c)

Protect the irradiated area with soft, non constrictive clothing.

d)

Over-the-counter lotions and ointments may be used for soothing.

e)

Use a washcloth rather than a loofah for cleansing.

40.

What are some of the precautions to be taken in providing nursing care to patients with sealed radioactive implants? Select all that apply.

a)

Assign the patient to a private room with a private bath.

b)

Use a shared dosimeter film badge for the patient.

c)

Wear a lead apron during care, keeping the apron between the nurse and the patient.

d)

After 12 weeks of pregnancy, pregnant nurses may care for these patients.

e)

Remove linens and dressings from the room immediately after use.

41.

What is the most significant factor resulting from cancer treatment that places patients at increased risk for infection?

a)

Mucositis

b)

Neutropenia

c)

Hemorrhagic cystitis

d)

Cardiac muscle damage

42.

Which term describes the occurrence where bone marrow activity and white blood cell counts are at their lowest levels after chemotherapy?

a)

Bone marrow suppression

b)

Thrombocytopenia

c)

Neutropenia

d)

Nadir

43.

This determines the exact location of the cancer and degree of metastasis.

a)

Ploidy

b)

Staging

c)

Grading

d)

Oncogenesis