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ADOTT/IMA test 6

Total questions: 30

Worksheet time: 21mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is the correct sequence of general anesthesia?

a)

Maintenance, induction, recovery

b)

Induction, maintenance, recovery

c)

Induction,recovery, maintenance

d)

Maintenance, recovery, induction

2.

Which of the following is the reason of maintenance phase of general anesthesia?

a)

To stop unconsicousness

b)

To induce unconsicousness

c)

To prolong unconsciousness

d)

To prevent unconsicousness

3.

Which of the following is not among the advantages of ET tube?

a)

Tight seal

b)

Air does not go to the stomach

c)

Prevent leakage of gases

d)

Danger of aspiration

4.

Which of the following is among the uses of ET tube?

1) Support breathing in certain illneses, such as pneumonia,etc.

2) Allow the provider to get a better view of the Upper Airway.

3) Upper Airway.

a)

Only 1 & 2 are correct

b)

Only 2 is correct

c)

Only 1 & 3 are correct

d)

All are correct

5.

A patient is experiencing swelling in his gums. This condition is called gingivitis. He visits a dentist for the treatment. The dentist advices him a surgery to remove the extra soft tissue in his gums. Which of the following anesthesia is to be given in this type of procedure?

a)

General anesthesia

b)

Local infiltration

c)

Brachial plexus block

d)

Spinal anesthesia

6.

What do you understand by the medical term anaphylaxis?

a)

Blood sugar above 100mg/dL

b)

Fever

c)

Acidity in blood

d)

Allergic reaction

7.

Which position relieves nausea?

a)

Patient lying with leg higher than head

b)

Patient lying with head higher than leg

c)

Patient lying flat

d)

None of the above

8.

What are the symptoms of myocardial infection?

a)

Pain in stomach

b)

Tightness or pain in chest and shoulder region

c)

Increased thrust

d)

Tightness in leg

9.

How many pair of spinal nerves arise from the cervical segments of spine?

a)

8

b)

5

c)

9

d)

7

10.

The correct no of spinal segment and

Pair of nerve emerging from them is:

a)

Cervical-8, Thoracic-11, Lumbar-5,

Sacrum-5,coccyx-5

b)

Cervical-8, Thoracic-12, Lumbar-5,

Sacrum-5,coccyx-1

c)

Cervical-7, Thoracic-11, Lumbar-5, Sacrum-5,coccyx-1

d)

Cervical-8, Thoracic-5, Lumbar-11, Sacrum-5,coccyx-1

11.

What is the correct sequence of spaces from outside to inside?

a) subarachnoid space

b) epidural space

c) subdural sapce

a)

b) a) c)

b)

c) a) b)

c)

b) c) a)

d)

a) b) c)

12.

What is the needle specification for spinal anesthesia?

a)

25 gauge, 9 cm long

b)

18 gauge, 15 cm

c)

20 gauge, 5 cm

d)

15 gauge, 20 cm

13.

A person has met a road traffic accident. He is taken to the emergency department of the district hospital. He is

diagnosed with a fracture of the

vertebral column. The orthopedic surgeons advise surgery for the same. On the day of surgery the anesthesiologist advises medicine for the prevention of pain. Which of the following drug is used for this?

a)

Pathidine

b)

Ranitidine

c)

Glycopyrrolate

d)

Omeprazole

14.

Which of the following is TRUE about metabolic acidosis?

a)

Acidic blood

b)

Basic blood

c)

Neutral blood

d)

None of the above

15.

Which of the following drug reduces nerve excitation and intensity of uncontrolled movements?

a)

Phenobarbital

b)

Morphine

c)

Nitrous oxide

d)

Adrenaline

16.

Adrenaline is effective in the treatment of?

a)

Asthama

b)

Anaphylaxis

c)

Superficial bleeding

d)

All

17.

If BP drops very low and hypotension is not managed, what is the life threatening consequence?

a)

Epilepsy

b)

Asthama

c)

Convulsion

d)

Shock

18.

Which of the following drug is given in cases of bradyarrhythmia?

a)

Paracetamol

b)

Atropine

c)

Amoxicillin

d)

Propofol

19.

Myocardial infarction is caused by?

a)

Decreased blood supply to heart

b)

Decreased blood supply to brain

c)

Decreased blood supply to lungs

d)

Increase blood supply to heart

20.

A patient is diagnosed with cysts in the pancreas. These are fluid-filled pouches inside the pancreas. The surgeon advises surgery to remove a part of the pancreas. This is to be performed under general anesthesia. Before the anesthesia, the anesthesiologist orders you to prepare IV agents to induce and maintain anesthesia. Which of the following are among IV agents used to induce and maintain anesthesia?

1. Thiopental

2. Diazepam

3. Lorazepam

4. Naloxone

5. Rocuronium

a)

1, 2 &4

b)

2 & 5

c)

1, 2 & 3

d)

All

21.

A doctor wants to use an intravenous cannula in the patient to provide drugs inside the veins. But the patient is extremely sensitive to pain and uncooperative. The doctor decides to apply local anaesthesia over the skin to numb the area before the insertion of the IV cannula. Which of the following is the correct term for this procedure?

a)

Inhelational anesthesia

b)

Nerve block

c)

Topical anesthesia

d)

Infiltration anesthesia

22.

Which of the following nerves form the brachial plexus?

C1 C2 C3 C4 C5 C6 C7 C8 T1 T2 T3 ?

a)

C1-C5

b)

C5-C8

c)

C5-T1

d)

C8-T3

23.

What is the location of needle insertion for brachial anesthesia using interscalene technique?

a)

posterior scalene muscle

b)

2 and 3 rib

c)

anterior and middle scalene muscle

d)

armpit

24.

What is the direction of needle in supraclavicular brachial anesthesia technique?

a)

toward shoulder

b)

toward thoracic spine

c)

towards cervical spine

d)

none of the above

25.

Which of the following is true about parasthesia when detecting nerve for giving regional anesthesia?

a)

increase heart rate

b)

unconciousness

c)

sudden pain

d)

tingling sensation on approaching close to nerve

26.

Which of the following is NOT a contraindication of endotracheal intubation?

1. Neck trauma

2. Inability to open mouth

3. Food entered into windpipe

a)

Only 1

b)

Only 1 and 2

c)

Only 3

d)

Only 2

27.

What is the life-threatening consequence of bacteremia?

a)

Pain

b)

Anxiety

c)

Septic shock

d)

Sweating

28.

What is the preferred route of antibiotic registration for managing bacteremia?

a)

Intravenous

b)

Intramuscular

c)

Intradermal

d)

Topical

29.

Which of the following drug reduces muscle spasm?

a)

Morphine

b)

Vecuronium

c)

Nitrous oxide

d)

Ondansetron

30.

Which of the following drug reduces nerve excitation and intensity of uncontrolled movements?

a)

Phenobarbital

b)

Morphine

c)

Nitrous oxide

d)

Adrenaline