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Psych I full course review

Total questions: 171

Worksheet time: 1hrs 26mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What do we call research intended to increase the scientific knowledge base?

a)

Applied research

b)

Mental research

c)

Basic research

d)

Behavioral research

2.

Which theory attempts to understand conscious experience by analyzing the basic elements of thoughts?

a)

Structuralism

b)

Functionalism

c)

Psychoanalysis

d)

Gestalt

3.

What do psychoanalysts call a misstatement reflective of something you'd like to say?

a)

Pavlovian mistake

b)

Freudian slip

c)

Behavioral bobble

d)

Observable error

4.

Which kind of psychology focuses on the study of conscious experience and the individual's capacity for personal growth?

a)

Psychoanalytic

b)

Functionalist

c)

Humanistic

d)

Behavioral

5.

Which of the following psychologists is most closely associated with client-centered therapy?

a)

Carl Rogers

b)

Abraham Maslow

c)

John Watson

d)

Jean Piaget

6.

Which of the following psychologists presented research on internalized racism, helping the Supreme Court end legalized racial segregation?

a)

Martin and Mandy Seligman

b)

Kenneth and Mamie Clark

c)

Mary Calkins and Margaret Washburn

d)

Daniel and Louise Kahneman

7.

Which psychological school of thought focuses on how people think?

a)

Cognitive

b)

Social-cultural

c)

Behavioral

d)

Biological

8.

Elliott helps his little sister because he has learned that rewards come to those who help. Which of the following perspectives is illustrated in this scenario?

a)

Psychodynamic

b)

Biological

c)

Behavioral

d)

Cognitive

9.

Research from which of the following areas has shown that student achievement increases when students are taught how to be more resilient?

a)

Behavioral genetics

b)

Structural cognition

c)

Positive psychology

d)

Evolutionary psychology

10.

Which of the following questions would most likely be asked by an evolutionary psychologist?

a)

Who opened the first psychology laboratory?

b)

How does a behaviorist explain learning?

c)

What did Freud have to say about personality?

d)

How does a certain behavior help us survive?

11.

A tendency to focus on information that supports what I already believe to be true is called

a)

critical thinking

b)

confirmation bias

c)

a confounding variable

d)

participant bias

12.

Which of the following is naturalistic observation?

a)

A coach times potential team members to see how fast they can run 100 meters

b)

A principal comes in to the classroom to evaluate a teacher

c)

A marketing researcher sits outside of a busy store at the mall and notes what percentage of the people leaving the store are carrying bags or packages

d)

A father supervises as his son picks up his toys

13.

If there is a positive correlation between having a high income and having a successful marriage, what can we conclude about cause and effect?

a)

Having a high income leads to a successful marriage.

b)

Some other factor leads to both a successful marriage and a high income.

c)

Nothing.

d)

Having a successful marriage leads to a high income.

14.

The best sample to use for learning the opinions of the students in a high school is

a)

50 names drawn from a box containing the names of all the students

b)

the first 50 students to walk through the door one morning

c)

the 50 students with the highest GPAs

d)

all of the students in the high school

15.

A research technique that compares individuals from different age groups at one time is known as

a)

an experiment

b)

a longitudinal study

c)

a correlational study

d)

a cross-sectional study

16.

If I am interested in the effect of exercise on health, which of the following could I use for the operational definition of the DV?

a)

The number of days each week that the participants go to the gym

b)

The age of the participants in the study

c)

The number of days the participants call in sick

d)

The people in the group that does not go to the gym

17.

A researcher sets up an experiment where one group of students studies an hour each evening and another group studies 30 minutes each evening to see if this has an effect on test scores. The researcher is concerned that how smart the students are might be a confounding variable. How should the researcher control for this?

a)

By using a double-blind procedure

b)

By randomly assigning the students to the two groups

c)

By using a large sample of students

d)

By giving students an IQ test to find out how smart they are

18.

In an experiment designed to determine if taking a nap each afternoon leads to fewer dinnertime arguments, what would be true of the control group?

a)

They are the participants who would not nap in the afternoon.

b)

They are the participants who had fewer arguments at dinner.

c)

They are the participants who would nap in the afternoon.

d)

They are the participants who had more arguments at dinner.

19.

Statistical significance means

a)

the results of an experiment were probably not caused by chance.

b)

an experiment is likely to produce changes in the way people live their lives.

c)

the experiment used a double-blind procedure.

d)

an experiment has been replicated.

20.

Which of the following ethical principles requires the researcher to divulge any deception that may have occurred?

a)

The right to be protected from harm and discomfort

b)

Informed consent

c)

Debriefing

d)

The right to confidentiality

21.

The overall purpose of statistics is to

a)

discover how two variables are related

b)

determine statistical significance

c)

identify the center of a distribution of numbers

d)

make numbers meaningful

22.

Bar graphs are most closely related to

a)

correlation coefficients

b)

frequency distributions

c)

statistical significance

d)

standard deviations

23.

When a distribution of data is skewed, the best measure of central tendency is the

a)

median

b)

mean

c)

range

d)

standard deviation

24.

A limitation of the range is that it

a)

considers only two pieces of data.

b)

cannot be used as a measure of variation

c)

may provide a false indication of statistical significance

d)

is too difficult to calculate

25.

A statistic that always gets larger as data become less consistent is the

a)

mean

b)

percentile

c)

median

d)

standard deviation

26.

Scores that are three standard deviations above the mean are

a)

much more common than scores that are three standard deviations below the mean

b)

an indication of statistical significance

c)

rare

d)

an indication of positive correlation

27.

A student who scores at the 50th percentile on a test has scored at the

a)

mode

b)

median

c)

standard deviation

d)

mean

28.

A scatterplot is a visual representation of

a)

statistical significance

b)

a standard deviation

c)

a correlation

d)

percentage scores

29.

Which of the following can never be a correlation coefficient?

a)

r = - 1.00

b)

r = + 0.85

c)

r = + 2.00

d)

r = - 0.01

30.

Which of the following does not contribute to statistical significance?

a)

the correlation coefficients of the two groups

b)

the number of participants

c)

the standard deviations of the two groups

d)

the difference between the two groups' means

31.

Which of the following is not a task accomplished by neurons?

a)

Neurons carry information down their length.

b)

Neurons communicate with each other across small gaps.

c)

Neurons manufacture and release hormones.

d)

Neurons receive information from other neurons.

32.

Which of the following is a function of myelin?

a)

Myelin fills the synapse.

b)

Myelin keeps neurons from overheating.

c)

Myelin slows down action potentials.

d)

Myelin allows information to travel down the axon more quickly

33.

The all-or-none principle means that

a)

all the neurons in a region fire together.

b)

neurons and endocrine glands work together to produce the body's response.

c)

a neuron always fires at the same intensity.

d)

the action potential occurs at all parts of a neuron at the same time.

34.

The function of neurotransmitters is to carry information across the

a)

soma

b)

synapse

c)

axon

d)

myelin sheath

35.

What is the correct order for the neural chain?

a)

receptor, motor neuron, interneuron, sensory neuron

b)

receptor, interneuron, sensory neuron, motor neuron

c)

receptor, interneuron, motor neuron, sensory neuron

d)

receptor, sensory neuron, interneuron, motor neuron

36.

Antidepressant medications like Prozac serve as an ____________ for ____________.

a)

antagonist; serotonin

b)

agonist; serotonin

c)

agonist; dopamine

d)

antagonist; dopamine

37.

Which of the following cells are part of the central nervous system?

a)

receptor cells

b)

interneurons

c)

sensory neurons

d)

motor neurons

38.

What is the neurotransmitter that allows for muscle action?

a)

Dopamine

b)

Acetylcholine

c)

Serotonin

d)

Prozac

39.

Your heart rate gradually returns to normal after you are startled by a noise at night. Which part of the nervous system does not play a role in this calming?

a)

Autonomic nervous system

b)

Parasympathetic nervous system

c)

Somatic nervous system

d)

Central nervous system

40.

The pituitary gland controls other endocrine glands by

a)

releasing hormones into the bloodstream.

b)

releasing hormones into the synapse.

c)

generating neurotransmitters.

d)

generating action potentials.

41.

Case studies are of somewhat limited value because

a)

the findings might not apply to other cases

b)

they can cost too much money

c)

they can provide information about brain structure but not brain function

d)

they may take too long to complete

42.

To locate a tumor in the brain, it would be best to use a(n)

a)

fMRI

b)

CT

c)

case study

d)

EEG

43.

The reticular formation is part of the

a)

brainstem

b)

limbic system

c)

cerebral cortex

d)

somatosensory cortex

44.

Damage to the amygdala would most likely have a negative impact on

a)

memory

b)

speech

c)

regulation of emotion

d)

basic life functions

45.

All of the following are parts of the limbic system except the

a)

reticular formation

b)

hypothalamus

c)

amygdala

d)

hippocampus

46.

The longitudinal fissure separates

a)

the cerebral cortex from the limbic system

b)

the left hemisphere from the right hemisphere

c)

the motor cortex from the somatosensory cortex

d)

Broca's area from Wernicke's area

47.

Information from the ears is processed in the ____________ lobes.

a)

frontal

b)

occipital

c)

parietal

d)

temporal

48.

Brain plasticity refers to the

a)

ability of the brain to change to respond to damage.

b)

method the thalamus uses to route sensory information to the proper area of the brain.

c)

difference in functions between the left hemisphere and the right hemisphere.

d)

way the brain wrinkles to fit into the skull.

49.

The somatosensory cortex can

a)

sense very quiet sounds.

b)

understand the speech of others.

c)

allow you to feel a bug crawling up your leg.

d)

activate your left arm.

50.

Albert was unable to form words correctly following his stroke. The stroke probably damaged

a)

Broca's area

b)

the corpus callosum

c)

Wernicke's area

d)

the somatosensory cortex

51.

Learning is generally defined as a change in

a)

behavior

b)

emotion

c)

thinking

d)

memory

52.

In classical conditioning,

a)

two similar stimuli cause different responses

b)

two similar stimuli cause the same response

c)

a response gains the power to cause a stimulus

d)

a stimulus gains the power to cause a response

53.

A stimulus that produces a response reflexively and automatically is called a(n) ____________ stimulus.

a)

unconditioned

b)

neutral

c)

extinguished

d)

conditioned

54.

A conditioned stimulus always begins as a(n)

a)

conditioned response

b)

unconditioned response

c)

unconditioned stimulus

d)

neutral stimulus

55.

Pairing a neutral stimulus with an unconditioned stimulus produces

a)

acquisition

b)

generalization

c)

extinction

d)

discrimination

56.

Ivan Pavlov's original research interest involved

a)

how the brain works

b)

memory

c)

digestion

d)

how children learn

57.

Which of the following is an example of discrimination?

a)

A college student in the shower jumps when someone yells, “Flush!” and when someone yells, “Flesh!”

b)

Pavlov's dog salivates to the tones produced by two different tuning forks.

c)

Little Albert shows fear in the presence of a rat but not in the presence of a rabbit.

d)

Antonia is afraid of spiders and wasps.

58.

Which of the following demonstrates the importance of cognition in classical conditioning?

a)

A teenager will learn not to eat shrimp if he gets sick from eating shrimp.

b)

A neutral stimulus will become a conditioned stimulus only if it predicts an unconditioned stimulus.

c)

A dog will learn to salivate to a tone similar to one that was trained as a conditioned stimulus.

d)

A dog will learn to salivate to the sound of one tone, but not to the sound of a different tone.

59.

Classical conditioning is probably involved if a(n)

a)

little girl learns to fear snakes after watching her older sister freak out when a snake crosses the sidewalk in front of her.

b)

young woman succeeds in mastering a difficult song on the guitar after months of practice.

c)

advertiser succeeds in getting customers to develop romantic associations to a product.

d)

person continues to buy a particular cough drop because he believes it works well.

60.

What will happen if a dog that has been classically conditioned to salivate to a tone hears the tone 100 times without having it paired with meat?

a)

Acquisition will occur.

b)

Taste aversion will occur.

c)

The salivation response will generalize.

d)

The salivation response will extinguish.

61.

In operant conditioning, behavior is determined by

a)

consequences

b)

the attitude of the learner

c)

the event that precedes the behavior

d)

pairing a neutral stimulus with an unconditioned stimulus

62.

B. F. Skinner received his first public recognition when an article was published about his

a)

extension of Pavlov's work to animals other than dogs

b)

affair with a graduate student

c)

work with pigeons in the Skinner box

d)

air crib for babies

63.

Two possible consequences in operant conditioning are

a)

fixed and variable

b)

interval and ratio

c)

reinforcement and punishment

d)

cognitive and biological

64.

The law of effect indicates that

a)

positive consequences decrease the future likelihood of a behavior

b)

reinforcement increases the future likelihood of a behavior

c)

negative consequences increase the future likelihood of a behavior

d)

punishment increases the future likelihood of a behavior

65.

Which of the following is a secondary reinforcement?

a)

bread

b)

lemonade

c)

a gift certificate

d)

candy

66.

Punishment can be

a)

positive but not negative

b)

negative but not positive

c)

either positive or negative

d)

neither positive nor negative

67.

Which of the following is not a potential problem with punishment?

a)

Punishment can cause the learner to avoid the teacher

b)

Punishment can model aggressive behavior for the learner

c)

Punishment is so effective that its results cannot be reversed

d)

The effects of punishment are temporary

68.

A mother has been teaching her child to make his bed. She does this by praising the child's first efforts, even though they are not very good. The mother is using the technique of

a)

extinction

b)

shaping

c)

discrimination

d)

delayed reinforcement

69.

Which of the following represents reinforcement on a variable-interval schedule?

a)

Rosie addresses envelopes for a local company. She is paid $20 for every 100 envelopes she completes

b)

Ahmad buys 10 raffle tickets, hoping to win the computer being given away for a local charity fundraiser

c)

Juan checks his phone repeatedly to see if an important email has arrived

d)

Charlie studies hard to prepare for his semester finals

70.

The overjustification effect is important because it illustrates the importance of ____________ in operant conditioning.

a)

biology

b)

extinction

c)

discrimination

d)

cognition

71.

A mental representation of a place is:

a)

a Skinner box

b)

a maze

c)

a cognitive map

d)

shaping

72.

Learning by watching others is called

a)

observational learning

b)

imitative learning

c)

operant conditioning

d)

classical conditioning

73.

You can learn new behaviors by watching a(n)

a)

model

b)

actor

c)

inflatable toy

d)

instigator

74.

Groundbreaking research in observational learning was done by

a)

John Watson

b)

Robert Rescorla

c)

Albert Bandura

d)

B.F. Skinner

75.

All of the following were important for the original research in observational learning except a(n)

a)

adult who interacted with toys

b)

child who observed videos

c)

peer of the learner

d)

Bobo doll

76.

When children observed adults interacting with inflatable Bobo dolls, they

a)

were not likely to imitate aggressive behaviors

b)

were aggressive and imitated some of the exact behaviors and words of the adults

c)

were aggressive but didn't imitate exact behaviors and words of the adults

d)

imitated exact behaviors but not exact words

77.

Which of the following is true of vicarious learning?

a)

In only applies to nonaggressive behavior

b)

It is determined by the consequences of another person's behavior

c)

It occurs by observation of media but not real-life events

d)

It only applies to aggressive behavior

78.

Mirror neurons

a)

provide a neurological explanation of why observational learning occurs

b)

provide a neurological explanation of why aggression modeled in the media is more significant than aggression modeled in real life

c)

are located in the brain of the observer but not in the brain of the model

d)

are located in the brain of the model but not in the brain of the observer

79.

Which of the following is an example of prosocial behavior?

a)

A high school class collecting cans for a food drive

b)

A student studying to do her best job ever on a psychology test

c)

A politician harassing a student intern

d)

A star athlete dunking a basketball

80.

Which of the following has not proven to be necessary for observational learning?

a)

Remembering the modeled behavior

b)

Witnessing a behavior at least three times

c)

Motivation to learn

d)

The ability to reproduce the behavior

81.

All of the following are conclusions of the American Psychological Association Commission on Violence and

Youth except:

a)

media violence and aggressive behavior by viewers are correlated, but this may not represent a cause-and-effect relationship

b)

higher levels of viewing violence on television are associated with increased aggressive attitudes

c)

exposure of children to media violence can have lifelong consequences

d)

higher levels of viewing violence on television are associated with increased aggressive behaviors

82.

Which of the following sequences is in the correct order?

a)

encoding, sensory memory, short-term/working memory, retrieval

b)

short-term/working memory, encoding, sensory memory, retrieval

c)

short-term/working memory, sensory memory, encoding, retrieval

d)

sensory memory, encoding, short-term/working memory, retrieval

83.

Which of the following is an example of automatic processing?

a)

encoding the names of your co-workers when you begin a new job

b)

encoding of the three steps of the information-processing model

c)

encoding your new password to your Twitter account

d)

encoding of where a particular photograph appears on the page of this textbook

84.

Hermann Ebbinghaus's research established the importance of

a)

the serial position effect

b)

rehearsal

c)

mnemonic devices

d)

semantic encoding

85.

The self-reference effect is a tool used to improve

a)

mnemonic devices

b)

chunking

c)

distributed rehearsal

d)

semantic encoding

86.

Which of the following is associated with sensory memory?

a)

the hippocampus

b)

long-term potentiation

c)

recall

d)

the echoic store

87.

Short-term/working memory

a)

holds a lot of information and lasts a long time

b)

holds a lot of information but only lasts a short time

c)

doesn't hold much information and only lasts a short time

d)

doesn't hold much information but lasts a long time

88.

A vivid memory of meeting the person who later becomes your spouse is an example of

a)

a flashbulb memory

b)

working memory

c)

the iconic store

d)

the serial position effect

89.

An example of an implicit memory is remembering

a)

how to walk

b)

details of a trip to your grandparents' house last summer

c)

your cell phone number

d)

how to change Wi-Fi networks on your cell phone

90.

What best explains the finding that if you always drink coffee while studying, you will probably do better on tests if you also drink coffee?

a)

state-dependent memory

b)

long-term potentiation

c)

flashbulb memory

d)

implicit memory

91.

The cerebellum is involved in ____________ memory.

a)

explicit

b)

iconic

c)

flashbulb

d)

implicit

92.

For a few minutes, Carlos couldn't remember the name of his math teacher from last year. Then, it popped back into his head. What is the most likely explanation for Carlos forgetting the name?

a)

permastore failure

b)

encoding failure

c)

retrieval failure

d)

storage failure

93.

Georjeanna couldn't tell her friend what color the house on the corner was, even though she had walked by it dozens of times. What is the most likely explanation for Georjeanna forgetting the color of the house?

a)

storage failure

b)

encoding failure

c)

retrieval failure

d)

permastore failure

94.

Sejal couldn't remember what she had for dinner two birthdays ago. All she could remember was what she ate for her most recent birthday dinner. Sejal experienced:

a)

retroactive interference

b)

storage failure

c)

proactive interference

d)

encoding failure

95.

Ebbinghaus demonstrated that most forgetting occurs within a few ____________ after learning

a)

weeks

b)

days

c)

years

d)

months

96.

Permastore memory

a)

is an effective studying technique

b)

refers to memories that are especially resistant to forgetting

c)

relates to encoding, but not to storage or retrieval

d)

refers to the impact of very old memories on new memories

97.

Repression is a concept popularized by

a)

Ernst

b)

Freud

c)

Ebbinghaus

d)

Loftus

98.

Motivated forgetting is most likely to explain why we

a)

usually don't do well in classes we don't like

b)

can't remember details of some things we've seen repeatedly, like the details on a dollar bill

c)

can't remember information we studied for a history quiz

d)

forget to include a candy bar in our calorie count when on a diet

99.

Interference relates to

a)

storage

b)

retrieval

c)

permastorage

d)

encoding

100.

Which of the following has NOT been shown to enhance the accuracy of the results of adult interviews with children?

a)

using anatomically correct dolls

b)

using words the child can understand

c)

using neutral language that doesn't suggest a particular answer

d)

having no contact between the adult and the child before the interview

101.

When therapists use hypnosis, imagination techniques, and dream analysis to help patients recover repressed memories

a)

the accuracy of the recovered memories increases for children but decreases for adults

b)

the accuracy of the recovered memories increases for adults but decreases for children

c)

any recovered memories are likely to be false

d)

the accuracy of the recovered memories increases

102.

Which of the following is a basic category?

a)

kidney beans

b)

soy milk

c)

gluten-free products

d)

cheese

103.

Which of the following is a heuristic?

a)

going through the football team roster to identify all of the linebackers on the team

b)

retracing your steps to find where you left your phone

c)

looking in every cupboard to find a pan you know is in the kitchen

d)

trying every unused piece in every space to fit in the last 20 pieces in a jigsaw puzzle

104.

Which of the following represents insight?

a)

suddenly realizing what you are going to use as the topic of your English essay

b)

creating a computer program to calculate the area of geometric shapes

c)

having a good idea of what your friend is really thinking

d)

carefully revising your college application

105.

When trying to unscramble the letters spoxee into a common word, Stefano remembered that many words begin with the letters ex. Once he remembered this, it was relatively easy to figure out that the solution is expose. Stefano made use of

a)

a heuristic

b)

insight

c)

an algorithm

d)

a concept hierarchy

106.

Even though it wasn't working, Mary continued to use the checkers strategy that served her well as a child when she played the game with her new friend. The fact that she didn't change her strategy shows

a)

confirmation bias

b)

framing

c)

overconfidence

d)

fixation

107.

When he couldn't find a fly swatter, Li Wei used a rolled-up magazine to swat an annoying fly in his bedroom. In this way, he overcame

a)

functional fixedness

b)

a mental set

c)

confirmation bias

d)

the availability heuristic

108.

Elizabeth was pretty sure the Senate candidate she supported would win easily because her friends on Facebook, where she got most of her news, kept posting links to articles that talked about her candidate's accomplishments. Her friends never posted links to critical articles. Because of ____________, she was very surprised when the candidate lost.

a)

overconfidence

b)

framing

c)

confirmation bias

d)

a mental set

109.

A movie advertisement reporting that 95% of viewers gave the movie a thumbs-up rating is likely to be more effective than an advertising that 5% of viewers gave the movie a thumbs-down rating because of

a)

insight

b)

the availability heuristic

c)

framing

d)

confirmation bias

110.

After they take a test one day, a teacher asks students to estimate what percentage of the questions they got right. The class estimated that they got 84% of the questions right, but when the tests were graded, it turned out the class actually got 71% right on the test. This indicates

a)

a mental set

b)

fixation

c)

the availability heuristic

d)

overconfidence

111.

Tom avoids going downtown because he has read several news stories about muggings that occurred downtown. Official police reports indicate that you are actually more likely to get mugged in the suburbs. The fact that Tom won't go downtown indicates he is being influenced by

a)

concept hierarchies

b)

functional fixedness

c)

the availability heuristic

d)

insight

112.

Which of the following would be part of visual–spatial intelligence?

a)

being able to judge how much space there is between your car and the car in front of you

b)

knowing how far apart you should plant corn seeds in your garden

c)

being able to read a complicated text

d)

being able to understand how your best friend is really feeling

113.

Practical intelligence would include being able to

a)

find the best bargain on a new cell phone

b)

write and perform a rap for your best friend's birthday

c)

invent a new way to prop open a closet door that always closes unexpectedly

d)

calculate the correct answer to a complex algebraic formula

114.

The IQ formula is no longer used because

a)

it doesn't work well for calculating the IQ of adults

b)

experts don't believe its assumptions apply anymore

c)

the Flynn effect means that the formula is no longer useful

d)

IQ tests are rarely given anymore

115.

Which of the following is an innovation David Wechsler made in intelligence tests?

a)

He developed a formula to calculate an IQ score.

b)

He divided intelligence into verbal and nonverbal abilities.

c)

He developed the first group tests.

d)

He compared mental age to chronological age.

116.

An early intelligence test used in France over a hundred years ago was developed by

a)

Alfred Binet

b)

David Wechsler

c)

Lewis Terman

d)

Charles Spearman

117.

A 10-year-old child took the original Stanford-Binet intelligence test. The child was able to answer questions typically answered by 12-year-olds. According to the IQ formula, the child's IQ is

a)

100

b)

90

c)

110

d)

120

118.

The determination of intellectual disability is made by considering intelligence test scores and

a)

the ability to live independently

b)

overall physical health

c)

the level of emotional intelligence

d)

whether the disability is caused by nature or nurture

119.

A child takes an IQ test and gets a score of 120. A month later, the same child takes the same test and gets a score of 90. From this decrease in scores, you can conclude that the test is not a ____________ test.

a)

good aptitude

b)

reliable

c)

good achievement

d)

valid

120.

Emotional intelligence does NOT involve

a)

expressing emotion appropriately

b)

explaining emotions to others

c)

understanding one's own emotional responses

d)

controlling emotion

121.

A thermometer always measures two degrees hotter than the actual temperature. This thermometer is

a)

neither reliable nor valid

b)

reliable but not valid

c)

both reliable and valid

d)

valid but not reliable

122.

A psychological disorder is a harmful dysfunction in which thoughts, feelings, or behaviors are maladaptive, disturbing, atypical and

a)

unjustifiable

b)

unified

c)

unusual

d)

unhappy

123.

What do we call behaviors that are destructive to oneself or others?

a)

disturbing

b)

predispositioned

c)

maladaptive

d)

predestined

124.

Which of the following would be most likely categorized as disturbing by a psychologist?

a)

feeling compelled to hurt another when tired

b)

refusing to read newspapers or watch the news on television

c)

speaking in nonsense words in public in a loud voice

d)

believing that aliens are responsible for starting life on Earth

125.

Which of the following would most likely be explained as a product of the medical model?

a)

discussing stressors with a therapist

b)

examining how a person was raised

c)

using drugs to treat a disorder

d)

reviewing environmental causes of a disorder

126.

Which of the following is most likely a goal of the DSM's authors?

a)

Gather all statistics involving psychological disorders to advise government health agencies on policy matters.

b)

Identify labels for psychological disorders in various cultures at various historical periods.

c)

List human strengths and weaknesses to guide therapists' advice for patients trying to improve their lives.

d)

Categorize psychological disorders and describe them specifically enough to guide future research.

127.

The study from Stanford University of healthy individuals who admitted themselves to a mental hospital showed that psychological labels

a)

do not help increase the reliability of diagnoses

b)

cause excessive stress, which can lead to heart disease

c)

benefit patients because they enable them to be admitted to effective treatment programs

d)

influence how psychologists interpret normal behaviors of patients

128.

Clinical psychologists classify psychological disorders according to their symptoms. This allows them to describe the disorder, predict its future course, treat the disorder appropriately, and

a)

provide a springboard for research

b)

certify their credentials

c)

avoid labeling

d)

charge more money for their services

129.

Which approach to psychological disorders studies both nature and nurture and focuses on their interaction?

a)

social-predispositional

b)

medical

c)

DSM

d)

a bio-psycho-social

130.

Research indicates that most people who suffer from mental disorders are

a)

faking their illness in order to get sympathy

b)

stigmatized and discriminated against

c)

easily able to shed the disorder label

d)

routinely given the best housing

131.

What do some psychologists call the “un-DSM”?

a)

a listing and explanation of character strengths

b)

the bio-psycho-social model

c)

the categories and descriptions of disorders

d)

bravery, courage, and zest

132.

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of anxiety?

a)

feeling on edge

b)

irritability

c)

excitement about upcoming events

d)

restlessness

133.

Phobias are disruptive, ____________ fears.

a)

unconscious

b)

observable

c)

justified

d)

irrational

134.

A person with agoraphobia experiences fear

a)

of situations that would be difficult to escape from

b)

of anything made of wool

c)

in the presence of any animal with horns

d)

when near farmland

135.

Which of the following is true of obsessions and compulsions?

a)

Both are always considered disorders

b)

Compulsions are always disorders, but obsessions may or may not be disorders

c)

They are not considered abnormal unless they disrupt a person's life

d)

Obsessions are always disorders, but compulsions may or may not be disorders

136.

Which of the following is true regarding biological causes of anxiety disorders?

a)

Specific genes that cause anxiety disorders have been discovered

b)

We are rapidly evolving to develop anxiety about modern threats like cars

c)

People with anxiety disorders may show more activity in the frontal lobes of the brain

d)

People with anxiety disorders may show reduced activity in the amygdala

137.

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of major depressive disorder?

a)

changes in weight or appetite

b)

sleep changes

c)

periods of mania

d)

diminished ability to concentrate

138.

Bipolar disorder involves

a)

swinging between depression and unreasonable and disruptive optimism

b)

depression that is even deeper than major depressive disorder

c)

episodes of unexplained terror

d)

a delayed reaction to highly stressful situations

139.

The highest rate of suicide occurs among

a)

adolescent males

b)

elderly males

c)

adolescent females

d)

middle-age females

140.

If one identical twin is diagnosed with major depressive disorder

a)

there is about a 50–50 chance that the other twin will develop depression

b)

there is a high chance that the other twin will develop depression if the twins are female, but a lowchance if the twins are male

c)

it is almost certain that the other twin will develop depression

d)

there is little increased likelihood that the other twin will develop depression

141.

Vicky was unable to get a date for the Valentine's Day dance. She concluded that “nobody will ever love me.” Which of the following is true?

a)

She has an unstable, external, and specific explanatory style, and this is not associated with depression.

b)

She has an unstable, external, and specific explanatory style, and this is associated with depression

c)

She has a stable, internal, and global explanatory style, and this is associated with depression

d)

She has a stable, internal, and global explanatory style, and this is not associated with depression

142.

Psychologists skeptical about the increase in the number of people diagnosed with dissociative identity disorder believe the increase is likely due to

a)

better diagnostic criteria

b)

genetic factors that may trigger the disorder

c)

therapists who “cause” the disorder through suggestion

d)

an increase in severe child abuse

143.

Individuals with a deep distrust of others might be diagnosed with ____________ personality disorder

a)

borderline

b)

paranoid

c)

antisocial

d)

avoidant

144.

According to the DSM-5, how many kinds of personality disorders are there?

a)

100

b)

10

c)

200

d)

300

145.

Which of the following is characterized by memory loss caused by a reaction to a traumatic event?

a)

dissociative amnesia

b)

dissociative fugue

c)

dissociative identity disorder

d)

dissociative paranoia

146.

A person who becomes paralyzed because of a stressful situation might be diagnosed with

a)

dissociative amnesia

b)

conversion disorder

c)

somatic symptom disorder

d)

borderline personality disorder

147.

What kind of disorders are usually a response to overwhelming stress?

a)

schizophrenic

b)

predispositional

c)

antisocial

d)

dissociative

148.

What is the disorder characterized by disorganized and delusional thinking, disturbed perceptions, and inappropriate emotions and behaviors called?

a)

impulsive disorder

b)

amnesia

c)

multiple personality

d)

schizophrenia

149.

Which of the following is NOT considered a biological factor related to schizophrenia?

a)

brain structure

b)

genetics

c)

blood type

d)

brain function

150.

What do we call a disorder where the person's sense of self has become separated from memories, thoughts, or feelings?

a)

dissociative

b)

anxiety

c)

illness anxiety disorder

d)

mood

151.

What kind of personality disorder involves a lack of conscience and a lack of respect for the rights of other

people?

a)

antisocial

b)

dissociative identity

c)

dependent

d)

schizophrenia

152.

Sigmund Freud was the founder of what controversial theory?

a)

psychoanalytic therapy

b)

client-centered therapy

c)

light-exposure therapy

d)

behavior therapy

153.

What type of therapy uses a method that involves weekly sessions over a few months and focuses on what's going on in the patient's life now?

a)

eclectic

b)

psychodynamic

c)

psychoanalytic

d)

interpersonal

154.

What is the key to client-centered therapy?

a)

transference

b)

active listening

c)

free association

d)

light exposure

155.

What does Carl Rogers call a feeling of being accepted that does not depend on any specific behaviors?

a)

latent content

b)

repressed memories

c)

unconditional positive regard

d)

psychodynamic assumptions

156.

What type of therapy applies learning principles to the elimination of unwanted behaviors?

a)

psychotherapy

b)

humanistic therapy

c)

behavior therapy

d)

interpersonal therapy

157.

What type of therapy gradually helps you overcome an anxiety-producing stimulus?

a)

systematic desensitization

b)

cognitive therapy

c)

operant conditioning

d)

aversive conditioning

158.

What type of therapy can help desensitize people to fears?

a)

aversive conditioning

b)

token economy

c)

cognitive therapy

d)

virtual reality therapy

159.

What is the process behind aversive conditioning?

a)

replacing a negative response to a fearful experience with a positive response

b)

overcoming a maladaptive behavior to feel better about yourself

c)

replacing a positive response to a harmful experience with a negative response

d)

rewarding desired behaviors and withholding rewards or punishing unwanted behaviors

160.

What do cognitive therapists believe?

a)

Our childhood traumas affect us today

b)

We need to be rewarded for our behaviors

c)

Desensitization helps us to overcome fears

d)

Our thinking affects how we feel

161.

What type of therapy helps people become aware of irrationally negative thoughts and behaviors?

a)

cognitive-behavioral therapy

b)

virtual-reality therapy

c)

aversive conditioning

d)

systematic desensitization

162.

Which of the following is NOT considered a biomedical therapy?

a)

cognitive therapy

b)

electroconvulsive therapy

c)

repetitive transcranial magnetic stimulation therapy

d)

drug therapies

163.

The factor most responsible for deinstitutionalization after the 1950s was

a)

the development of effective drugs

b)

the growth in the use of lobotomies

c)

a new edition of DSM that reclassified several categories of disorders

d)

a change in federal law

164.

Antipsychotic drugs are most effective when used to treat

a)

post-traumatic stress disorder

b)

anxiety disorders

c)

depression

d)

schizophrenia

165.

Tardive dyskinesia is

a)

the term that describes the amount of time it often takes before antidepressant medications take effect

b)

a new treatment for substance abuse disorders

c)

a technique that involves using magnets to stimulate the brain

d)

a serious side effect of antipsychotic medications

166.

The major side effect of electroconvulsive therapy is

a)

weight gain

b)

memory loss

c)

muscle tremor

d)

hallucinations

167.

One advantage of electroconvulsive therapy over drugs is

a)

ECT is much less expensive

b)

ECT can be used to treat a greater number of disorders than drugs can

c)

we understand how ECT works but how the drugs work is a mystery

d)

ECT may work more quickly than drugs

168.

Antipsychotic medications

a)

block the effect of serotonin

b)

block the effect of dopamine

c)

boost the effect of serotonin

d)

boost the effect of dopamine

169.

Prozac is an ____________ medication.

a)

antipsychotic

b)

anticonvulsive

c)

antidepressant

d)

antianxiety

170.

The original purpose of a lobotomy was to

a)

destroy memories of traumatic events

b)

sedate the patient

c)

disconnect the emotional parts of the brain from the rational parts of the brain

d)

stimulate the growth of new neurons and synapses

171.

Repetitive transcranial magnetic stimulation is being developed as a possible replacement for

a)

antianxiety medication

b)

antipsychotic medication

c)

electroconvulsive therapy

d)

lobotomies