wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Chapter 23: Renal System

Total questions: 135

Worksheet time: 1hrs 11mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Acid + condition, an increase in the blood's acidity, resulting from the accumulation of acid or loss of bicarbonate; the blood's pH is lower.

a)

Acidosis

b)

Alkalosis

c)

Anions

d)

Cations

2.

Base + condition, an increase in the blood's alkalinity, resulting from the accumulation of alkali or reduction of acid content; the blood's pH is higher

a)

Acidosis

b)

Alkalosis

c)

Anions

d)

Cations

3.

Anode + ion negatively charged ions

a)

Acidosis

b)

Alkalosis

c)

Anions

d)

Cations

4.

Cathode + ions, positively charged ions

a)

Acidosis

b)

Alkalosis

c)

Anions

d)

Cations

5.

A condition that reduces the kidneys' ability to function properly

a)

Chronic kidney disease (CKD)

b)

Collecting duct

c)

Dialysate

d)

Dialysis

6.

A series of tubules in the kidneys that connect the nephrons to the ureter

a)

Chronic kidney disease (CKD)

b)

Collecting duct

c)

Dialysate

d)

Dialysis

7.

The fluid into which material passes by way of the membrane in dialysis

a)

Chronic kidney disease (CKD)

b)

Collecting duct

c)

Dialysate

d)

Dialysis

8.

The passage of a solute through a semipermeable membrane to remove toxic materials and to maintain fluid, electrolyte, and pH levels when the kidneys malfunction

a)

Chronic kidney disease (CKD)

b)

Collecting duct

c)

Dialysate

d)

Dialysis

9.

An agent that increases urine output and excretion of water

a)

Diuretic

b)

Edema

c)

Erythropoietin

d)

Interstitial space

10.

An excess of watery fluid in the cavities or tissues of the body

a)

Diuretic

b)

Edema

c)

Erythropoietin

d)

Interstitial space

11.

Red + create + proteins, a hormone that kidneys secrete that increases the rate of red blood cell production

a)

Diuretic

b)

Edema

c)

Erythropoietin

d)

Interstitial space

12.

Small, narrow spaces between tissues

a)

Diuretic

b)

Edema

c)

Erythropoietin

d)

Interstitial space

13.

Atoms or molecules with a net electrical charge (positive or negative)

a)

Ions

b)

Lithotripsy

c)

Micturition

d)

Nephron

14.

Stone + rubbing, a treatment with ultrasound shock waves to break kidney stones into small particles

a)

Ions

b)

Lithotripsy

c)

Micturition

d)

Nephron

15.

Urination

a)

Ions

b)

Lithotripsy

c)

Micturition

d)

Nephron

16.

The filtering unit of the kidneys

a)

Ions

b)

Lithotripsy

c)

Micturition

d)

Nephron

17.

An infection that originates in the hospital or institutional setting

a)

Nosocomial infection

b)

osmosis

c)

peritonitis

d)

plasma

18.

Push + condition, the diffusion of water from low-solute concentrations to higher solute concentrations across a semipermeable membrane

a)

Nosocomial infection

b)

osmosis

c)

peritonitis

d)

plasma

19.

Peritoneum + inflammation, an inflammation of the peritoneum, typically caused by a bacterial infection

a)

Nosocomial infection

b)

osmosis

c)

peritonitis

d)

plasma

20.

The colorless fluid portion of the blood

a)

Nosocomial infection

b)

osmosis

c)

peritonitis

d)

plasma

21.

One of the pair of arteries that branch from the abdominal aorta; each kidney has on renal artery

a)

Renal artery

b)

Renal vein

c)

Renin

d)

Stress incontinence

22.

The vein in which filtered blood from the kidneys is sent back into the body's circulatory system; each kidney has one renal vein

a)

Renal artery

b)

Renal vein

c)

Renin

d)

Stress incontinence

23.

An enzyme secreted by and stored in the kidneys that promotes the production of the protein angiotensin

a)

Renal artery

b)

Renal vein

c)

Renin

d)

Stress incontinence

24.

Involuntary emission of urine when the pressure in the abdomen suddenly increases

a)

Renal artery

b)

Renal vein

c)

Renin

d)

Stress incontinence

25.

The conservation of protein, glucose, bicarbonate, and water from the glomerular filtrate by the tubules

a)

Tubular reabsorption

b)

Tubular secretion

c)

Ureteroscopy

d)

Urethritis

26.

A function of the nephron in which ions, toxins, and water are secreted into the collecting duct to be excreted

a)

Tubular reabsorption

b)

Tubular secretion

c)

Ureteroscopy

d)

Urethritis

27.

Ureter + viewing, an examination of the upper urinary tract, usually performed with an endoscope passed through the urethra

a)

Tubular reabsorption

b)

Tubular secretion

c)

Ureteroscopy

d)

Urethritis

28.

Urethra + inflammation, an inflammation of the urethra

a)

Tubular reabsorption

b)

Tubular secretion

c)

Ureteroscopy

d)

Urethritis

29.

Urinary incontinence because of involuntary bladder contractions that result in an urgent need to urinate

a)

Urge incontinence

b)

Urinary acidification

c)

Urolithiasis

d)

Urethritis

30.

The conversion of urine to a more acidic content

a)

Urge incontinence

b)

Urinary acidification

c)

Urolithiasis

d)

Urethritis

31.

Urinary + stone + condition, solid mineral deposits that form stones in the urinary tract

a)

Urge incontinence

b)

Urinary acidification

c)

Urolithiasis

d)

Urethritis

32.

The urinary system cleans waste by filtering the body's __________.

a)

urine

b)

blood

c)

urea

d)

chyme

33.

Which of the following are functions of the kidneys? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Create stool

b)

Control the body's fluid balance

c)

Filter waste from the blood

d)

Produce white blood cells

34.

Which region of the kidney contains renal pyramids, which hold thousands of nephrons?

a)

Renal medulla

b)

Renal cortex

c)

Renal pelvis

35.

What occurs during secretions?

a)

Nephrons retain needed chemicals

b)

Nephrons remove toxins

c)

Nephrons produce hormones

d)

Nephrons send cleaned blood to the bloodstream

36.

Urine is primarily made up of:

a)

sodium

b)

water

c)

creatinine

d)

uric acid

37.

How do the kidneys communicate with the nervous system?

a)

Renal plexus

b)

Renal ureter

c)

Renal arteries

d)

Renal veins

38.

How often is urine emptied into the bladder from the kidneys?

a)

15-30 seconds

b)

10-15 minutes

c)

15-30 minutes

d)

10-15 seconds

39.

How much urine can an adult bladder hold?

a)

4 oz

b)

16 oz

c)

32 oz

d)

8 oz

40.

Which fluids does the urethra carry outside the body for males?

a)

Urine and blood

b)

Urine and saline

c)

Urine and plasma

d)

Urine and semen

41.

No urine output

a)

Nocturia

b)

Glycosuria

c)

Anuria

d)

Hematuria

e)

Dysuria

42.

Blood in the urine

a)

Nocturia

b)

Glycosuria

c)

Anuria

d)

Hematuria

e)

Dysuria

43.

Painful urination

a)

Nocturia

b)

Glycosuria

c)

Anuria

d)

Hematuria

e)

Dysuria

44.

Sugar in the urine

a)

Nocturia

b)

Glycosuria

c)

Anuria

d)

Hematuria

e)

Dysuria

45.

Urination at night

a)

Nocturia

b)

Glycosuria

c)

Anuria

d)

Hematuria

e)

Dysuria

46.

Which of the following are types of renal failure? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Acute

b)

Diastolic

c)

Chronic

d)

Systematic

47.

A renal calculus forms when __________ and ___________ clump together.

a)

urea; sodium bicarbonate

b)

uric acid; calcium salts

c)

calcium; fluoride

48.

Cystitis most commonly occurs due to:

a)

Bacteria from the gut that travels into the kidneys and bladder.

b)

Bacteria entering the bladder or urethra and multiplying.

c)

Bacteria negatively affecting the nephrons, causing them to malfunction.

d)

Bacteria multiplying and attacking the kidneys and ureters

49.

Nephritis is commonly found during routine:

a)

Blood and urine tests

b)

Checks-ups and physicals

c)

Blood pressure and glucose checks

50.

What drugs are classified as loop diuretics? (Select all that apply)

a)

Bumex (bumetanide)

b)

Demadex (torsemide)

c)

Osmitrol (mannitol)

d)

Lasix (furosemide)

51.

What drugs are classified as osmotic diuretics? (Select all that apply)

a)

Bumex (bumetanide)

b)

Demadex (torsemide)

c)

Osmitrol (mannitol)

d)

Lasix (furosemide)

52.

What drugs are classified as potassium-sparing diuretics? (Select all that apply)

a)

Aldactone (spironolactone)

b)

Demadex (torsemide)

c)

Osmitrol (mannitol)

d)

Lasix (furosemide)

53.

What drugs are classified as thiazide and thiazide-like diuretics? (Select all that apply)

a)

Aldactone (spironolactone)

b)

Microzide (hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ))

c)

Osmitrol (mannitol)

d)

Lasix (furosemide)

54.

What drugs are classified as agents to treat CKD and are hematopoietic agents? (Select all that apply)

a)

Aldactone (spironolactone)

b)

Microzide (hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ))

c)

Epogen (epoetin alfa)

d)

Lasix (furosemide)

55.

What drugs are classified as agents to treat CKD and are Vitamin D analogs? (Select all that apply)

a)

Calciferol (ergocalciferol)

b)

Microzide (hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ))

c)

Epogen (epoetin alfa)

d)

Rocaltrol (calcitriol)

56.

What drugs are classified as antibiotics to treat urinary tract infections? (Select all that apply)

a)

Bactrim (sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim)

b)

Macrobid (nitrofurantoin)

c)

Epogen (epoetin alfa)

d)

Rocaltrol (calcitriol)

57.

What drugs are classified as agents to treat overactive bladder? (Select all that apply)

a)

Bactrim (sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim)

b)

Macrobid (nitrofurantoin)

c)

Ditropan (oxybutynin)

d)

Rocaltrol (calcitriol)

58.

The kidneys are the major organs of the renal and urinary systems.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

59.

The kidneys maintain the chemical composition of ____________, ________, and ________ in the body.

a)

electrolytes

b)

nephrons

c)

fluids

d)

tissues

60.

Where are the kidneys inside of the body?

a)

upper abdominal cavity

b)

lower abdominal cavity

c)

upper thoracic cavity

d)

lower thoracic cavity

61.

The ureters carry wastes removed from the blood to the bladder, which stores the waste for excretion as urine.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

62.

What is the normal urine output for an adult?

a)

1-2 L/day

b)

1-2 mL/day

c)

3-4 L/day

d)

3-4 mL/day

63.

If electrolytes concentrations fall out of balance because the kidneys cannot filter appropriately, conditions such as metabolic hypertension and hypotension can develop.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

64.

________ is an excess of free hydrogen ions (H+) in the body fluids. ________ is the retention of bicarbonate (HCO3-) or excessive loss of hydrogen ions.

a)

Acidosis; Alkalosis

b)

Alkalosis; Acidosis

65.

The functional unit of the kidney is the ________.

a)

Nephron

b)

Plasma

c)

Renin

d)

Ions

66.

What do nephrons regulate in the body?

a)

Regulate homeostasis

b)

Regulate fluids, solutes, and wastes

c)

Regulates electrolytes, fluids, and tissues

d)

Regulates the filtration of blood

67.

Each kidney contains millions of microscopic nephrons.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

68.

_______, mostly water, is the blood's liquid component.

a)

Plasma

b)

Nephrons

c)

Renin

d)

Ions

69.

As sodium ions exit the DCT, they are exchanged for calcium ions.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

70.

The loop of Henle has a different transport mechanism, called _______ _________.

a)

Active transport

b)

Active services

c)

Transport activation

d)

Transport services

71.

Instead of ion exchange, there is a one-way uptake of sodium and chloride. These ions return to the circulatory system. Overall, the body resorbs most renal system sodium.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

72.

What is the pH of blood?

a)

7.4

b)

7.6

c)

7.5

d)

7.3

73.

The second secretive function allows the kidney to regulate the blood pH through urinary acidification to a pH of 1 to 9.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

74.

As nephron takes in hydrogen ions, they combine with other molecules to produce _____________.

a)

Bicarbonate (HCO3-)

b)

Phosphate (PO43-)

c)

Sodium (Na+)

d)

Calcium (Ca2+)

75.

Bicarbonate enters the bloodstream as a _______, where it regulates the overall body pH to maintain homeostasis.

a)

Buffer

b)

Renin

c)

Osmotic agent

d)

Duct

76.

Buffers can bind hydrogen to create basic environments or release hydrogen for acidic environments, balancing blood pH.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

77.

______ can release hydrogen ions, whereas ______ can remove hydrogen ions by binding to them.

a)

Acids; bases

b)

Bases; acids

78.

Tubules take up the extra potassium ions to excrete them.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

79.

Kidneys maintain homeostasis by balancing electrolyte levels.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

80.

Which of the following are cations: (Select all that apply)

a)

Calcium

b)

Bicarbonate

c)

Magnesium

d)

Potassium

e)

Sodium

81.

Which of the following are anions: (Select all that apply)

a)

Chloride

b)

Bicarbonate

c)

Phosphate

d)

Potassium

e)

Sodium

82.

______ are positively charged ions and ________ are negatively charged ions

a)

Cations; anions

b)

Anions; cations

83.

What is the element abbreviation for Calcium?

a)

Ca2+

b)

Cal2+

c)

Calc2+

d)

Cl2+

84.

What is the element abbreviation for Magnesium?

a)

Mg2+

b)

Mag2+

c)

Mn2+

d)

Mm2+

85.

What is the element abbreviation for Potassium?

a)

K+

b)

Po+

c)

Pm+

d)

Pt+

86.

What is the element abbreviation for Sodium?

a)

Na+

b)

Sm+

c)

So+

d)

Sd+

87.

What is the element abbreviation for Bicarbonate?

a)

HCO3-

b)

BCN3-

c)

HCN3-

d)

BiN3-

88.

What is the element abbreviation for Chloride?

a)

Cl-

b)

Ch-

c)

Cd-

d)

CHl-

89.

What is the element abbreviation for Phosphate?

a)

PO43l-

b)

PH43-

c)

PS43-

d)

PA43-

90.

__________ is the progressive loss of renal function.

a)

CKD

b)

GFR

c)

HBP

d)

LBP

91.

What are the most common causes of CKD in adults in the U.S.?

a)

Diabetes mellitus

b)

Uncontrolled hypertension

c)

Uncontrolled hypotension

d)

Diabetes insipidus

92.

CKD potential causes include kidney diseases such as glomerulonephritis, pyelonephritis, and vascular disorders.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

93.

Kidney function increases with age resulting in higher CKD incidence in older individuals.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

94.

Kidney damage with normal or increased GFR

a)

Stage 1 CKD

b)

Stage 2 CKD

c)

Stage 3 CKD

d)

Stage 4 CKD

e)

Stage 5 CKD

95.

Kidney damage with a mild decrease in GFR

a)

Stage 1 CKD

b)

Stage 2 CKD

c)

Stage 3 CKD

d)

Stage 4 CKD

e)

Stage 5 CKD

96.

Moderate decrease in GFR

a)

Stage 1 CKD

b)

Stage 2 CKD

c)

Stage 3 CKD

d)

Stage 4 CKD

e)

Stage 5 CKD

97.

Severe decrease in GFR

a)

Stage 1 CKD

b)

Stage 2 CKD

c)

Stage 3 CKD

d)

Stage 4 CKD

e)

Stage 5 CKD

98.

ESRD (End-stage Renal Disease)

a)

Stage 1 CKD

b)

Stage 2 CKD

c)

Stage 3 CKD

d)

Stage 4 CKD

e)

Stage 5 CKD

99.

________ ____________ is vital in CKD treatment.

a)

Risk management

b)

Dietary management

c)

Lifestyle management

d)

Therapy management

100.

Patients should limit the consumption of food high in phosphate (eg, colas) and dairy products (eg, milk cheese).

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

101.

For patients with significant edema and/or hypertension, extra high sodium intake is important.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

102.

Restriction on what may help someone reduce their damage to their kidneys?

a)

Protein

b)

Insulin

c)

Uric acid

d)

Bacteria

103.

Dialysis compensates for the lack of kidney filtration to remove waste products from the blood and balance electrolytes and fluid volume.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

104.

The most common ESRD side effect is _______, for which we use iron and epoetin alfa (Epogen, Procrit).

a)

Anemia

b)

Hypotroanemia

c)

Hypertension

d)

Hypotension

105.

Iron supplements decrease the oxygen-carrying capacity of red blood cell hemoglobin.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

106.

Generic name: ferrous sulfate (over-the-counter [OTC])

Trade name: None

Indication: Iron deficiency anemia

Mechanism of Action: ?

Auxiliary Labels: N/A

a)

Increased blood iron concentrations to increase red blood cell production

b)

Stimulates red blood cell production and mimic endogenous erythropoietin action

c)

Binds to dietary phosphate in the gastrointestinal tract to inhibit its absorption, reducing phosphate levels

d)

An active form of vitamin D; does not require activation by the kidneys

107.

Generic name: epoetin alfa

Trade name: Epogen, Procrit

Indication: Anemia with hemoglobin less than 10 g/dL as a result of CKD

Mechanism of Action: ?

Auxiliary Labels: Refrigerate, Do not shake, Protect from light

a)

Increased blood iron concentrations to increase red blood cell production

b)

Stimulates red blood cell production and mimic endogenous erythropoietin action

c)

Binds to dietary phosphate in the gastrointestinal tract to inhibit its absorption, reducing phosphate levels

d)

An active form of vitamin D; does not require activation by the kidneys

108.

Generic name: calcium carbonate (OTC)

Trade name: Tums

Indication: ?

Mechanism of Action: Binds to dietary phosphate in the gastrointestinal tract to inhibit its absorption, reducing phosphate levels

Auxiliary Labels: N/A

a)

Iron deficiency

b)

Anemia with hemoglobin less than 10 g/dL as a result of CKD

c)

Renal osteodystrophy

d)

Hyperphosphatemia

109.

Generic name: calcium acetate (Rx)

Trade name: PhosLo

Indication: ?

Mechanism of Action: Binds to dietary phosphate in the gastrointestinal tract to inhibit its absorption, reducing phosphate levels

Auxiliary Labels: Protect from moisture, Take with meals

a)

Iron deficiency

b)

Anemia with hemoglobin less than 10 g/dL as a result of CKD

c)

Renal osteodystrophy

d)

Hyperphosphatemia

110.

Generic name: sevelamer

Trade name: Renagel, Renvela

Indication: ?

Mechanism of Action: Binds to dietary phosphate in the gastrointestinal tract to inhibit its absorption, reducing phosphate levels

Auxiliary Labels: Protect from moisture, Take with meals

a)

Iron deficiency

b)

Anemia with hemoglobin less than 10 g/dL as a result of CKD

c)

Renal osteodystrophy

d)

Hyperphosphatemia

111.

_______ ______ are small aggregation of material (usually calcium, magnesium, or uric acid salts) that form in the kidney and/or urinary tract.

a)

Kidney stones

b)

Kidney rocks

c)

Kidney pebbles

d)

Kidney boulders

112.

Hundreds of thousands of Americas experience a condition known as urolithiasis (kidney stones) annually.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

113.

Generic name: tolterodine

Trade name: Detrol, Detrol LA

Indication: ?

Mechanism of Action: Relaxes bladder smooth muscle

Auxiliary Labels: May cause; dizziness; Detrol LA: Do not crush, break, or chew

a)

Iron deficiency

b)

Overactive Bladder, urinary urgency

c)

Renal osteodystrophy

d)

Hyperphosphatemia

114.

Generic name: oxybutynin

Trade name: ?

Indication: Overactive Bladder

Mechanism of Action: Relaxes bladder smooth muscle

Auxiliary Labels: May cause; dizziness/drowsiness; Ditropan XL: Do not crush, break, or chew; Transdermal patch or gel: For topical use only

a)

Oxytrol for Women (OTC Patch)

b)

Keflex

c)

Macrobid

d)

Microzide

115.

Oxybutynin is available as a patch for convenience

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

116.

Note, anticholinergics often cause side effects such as a dry mouth.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

117.

Anticholinergic medications can manage urge incontinence.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

118.

The most common incontinence nondrug treatment is pelvic muscle (Kegel) exercises.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

119.

Urge incontinence can come from decreased bladder capacity, infection, or irritation. Increased fluid intake including alcohol or caffeine ingestion, can increase the risk.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

120.

_____ _____________ = When a person coughs or sneezes, it can force the bladder to release a small amount of urine.

a)

Stress incontinence

b)

Urge incontinence

121.

A common condition that affects millions of Americans is incontinence or overactive bladder (OAB), a loss of urinary control.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

122.

What would be the auxiliary label for any antibiotic?

a)

Take until gone

b)

Take with meals

c)

Take before meals

d)

Take after meals

123.

Phenazopyridine (Pyridium) is an OTC and prescription urinary analgesic to treat UTI pain.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

124.

One side effect is to turn urine an orange or reddish color for Phenazopyridine (Pyridium)

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

125.

Generic name: nitrofurantoin

Trade name: Macrobid; Macrodantin

Indication: UTI

Common Dosage: ?

Auxiliary Labels: Take until gone

a)

100 mg twice daily for 7 days

b)

500 mg twice daily for 7-14 days

c)

400 mg twice daily for 10 days

d)

200mg twice daily for 14 days

126.

What is the most common cause of chronic kidney disease (CKD) in the United States?

a)

Diabetes

b)

Pyelonephritis

c)

Glomerulonephritis

d)

Age

127.

Dialysis is used to aid ____________ of the kidneys.

a)

filtration and secretion

b)

filtration

c)

secretion

d)

absorption

128.

Nitrofurantoin is indicated for the treatment of which condition?

a)

Urinary incontinence

b)

Urinary antispasmodic

c)

Urinary analgesic

d)

Urinary tract infection

129.

Which is an adverse effect of acetazolamide?

a)

Hyperkalemia

b)

Hypernatremia

c)

Metabolic alkalosis

d)

Hyperglycemia

130.

Which of the following is a common side effect associated with diuretics?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Urinary frequency

c)

Hypokalemia

d)

Hyperkalemia

131.

Which of the following is not an appropriate treatment for UTIs?

a)

Allopurinol for gonorrheal infections

b)

Fluconazole for fungal infections

c)

Tetracycline for Chlamydia infections

d)

Sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim for bacterial infections

132.

Which is an adverse effect of Aldactone (spironolactone)?

a)

Gynecomastia

b)

Hypertension

c)

Constipation

d)

Increased libido

133.

Allopurinol (Zyloprim) is indicated for the prevention of which condition?

a)

Gout

b)

Kidney stones and gout

c)

UTIs

d)

Kidney stones

134.

Which is the generic name for Rocaltrol?

a)

Darbepoetin alfa

b)

Calcitriol

c)

Solifenacin succinate

d)

Darifenacin

135.

The kidneys are involved in the production of all of the following substances except

a)

renin

b)

erythropoietin

c)

vitamin D

d)

vitamin K