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Worksheets

Pediatrics 2

Total questions: 29

Worksheet time: 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What level of risk (number of times the baseline risk) of anaphylaxis to latex do children with spina bifida have?

a)

50

b)

100

c)

500

d)

1000

2.

What level of lesion is correctly paired with the level of lesion in spina bifida and needed assistive device?

a)

Midthoracic lesion – Reciprocal Gait Orthosis

b)

Upper lumbar lesion – HKAFO

c)

Lower Lumbar lesion – AFO

d)

Sacral lesion – Lofstrand crutches

3.

What percentage of children with spina bifida with high lumbar involvement attain community ambulation?

a)

15%

b)

20%

c)

30%

d)

45%

4.

What is not a common finding on physical exam in Muscular Dystrophy?

a)

Pseudohypertrophy of the calf

b)

Gower’s sign

c)

Pelvic Girdle

d)

Wrist Extensors

5.

In DMD, which muscle group tends to develop weakness first?

a)

Neck flexors

b)

Shoulder

c)

Pelvic Girdle

d)

Wrist Extensors

6.

What is the most common type of CP in premature infants?

a)

Diplegic

b)

Hemiplegic

c)

Dyskinetic

d)

Mixed Type

7.

Which subgroup of spastic CP has the highest incidence of significant disability?

a)

Hemiplegia

b)

Diplegia

c)

Triplegia

d)

Tetraplegia

8.

Which of the following is described as a slow rhythmic movement with tone changes in trunk and extremities, associated with abnormal posturing?

a)

Athetosis

b)

Chorea

c)

Choreoathetoid

d)

Dystonia

e)

North Korea

9.

A child walking without assistive devices but with limitations outdoors or in community is gross motor function classification system (GMFCS) Level

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

e)

5

10.

Which of the following is a positive prognostic factor on a child with CP being able to eventually walk?

a)

Crawl by age 3

b)

Sitting independently by age 2

c)

Persistence of 3 or more primitive reflexes by 18-24 months

d)

Prognosis does not depend on type of CP

11.

What is the most common cause of death in patients with myelodysplasia (congenital disorders with failure of the fetal spinal cord to close)?

a)

Central Respiratory Depression

b)

Vasomotor Changes

c)

Tethered Cord

d)

Cardiac Abnormalities

12.

A myelomeningocele at which of the following levels is associated with loss of sympathetic adrenergic innervation to the bladder?

a)

T10-L2

b)

L2-L5

c)

S1-S4

13.

In myelodysplasia patients, which reflex is associated with a greater chance of bowel continence?

a)

Achilles

b)

Bulbocavernosus

c)

Absent Babinski

d)

Fencer

14.

Which of the following is false regarding Spina Bifida patients?

a)

The highest incidence occurs in the UK, and is lowest in Japan.

b)

The higher the lesion in the spinal cord, the lower the IQ.

c)

Independent self-catheterization can be achieved in 5yo. Easier for boys than girls.

d)

Spinal deformities such as kyphosis and scoliosis are most common in lumbar lesions.

15.

Which type of spina bifida is most strongly associated with an Arnold-Chiari Type 2 malformation?

a)

Spina Bifida Occulta

b)

Meningocele

c)

Myelomeningocele

d)

Myelocele

16.

Which of the following is not a recommended test for juvenile myasthenia?

a)

Repetitive EMG stimulation at 4-10 Hz

b)

Tensilon Test

c)

Single-fiber EMG

d)

Muscle Biopsy

17.

AIDP is least associated with which of the following infectious illnesses

a)

CMV

b)

EBV

c)

Campylobacter

d)

HSV

18.

A child who has a positive Gower's sign, lives to adulthood, and has a mutation on chromosome 5q11-q13 carries which diagnosis

a)

SMA 1

b)

SMA 2

c)

SMA 3

d)

BMD

19.

This is the number 1 cause of mortality in childhood neuromuscular disease

a)

Cardiovascular complications

b)

Pulmonary complications

c)

Seizures

d)

Neglect

20.

This disease is associated with nearly 100% incidence of scoliosis within 10 years and a mitochondrial protein defect

a)

DiGeorge Syndrome

b)

Cri du Chat

c)

Freidreich's Ataxia

d)

Duchenne's Muscular Dystrophy

21.

What is the genetic inheritance pattern of Emery-Dreifuss muscular dystrophy?

a)

Autosomal Dominant

b)

Autosomal Recessive

c)

X-linked

d)

Mitochondrial

22.

Facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy is autosomal dominant disorder primarily affecting what muscles?

a)

Facial and Shoulder girdle muscles

b)

Shoulder girdle and hip girdle muscles

c)

Facial and Hip girdle muscles

d)

Shoulder girdle and Plantar flexors

23.

What EMG finding would you expect to find in Myotonia Congenita?

a)

Increased Recruitment pattern

b)

High Amplitude potentials

c)

Myotonic discharges

d)

Fibrillations

24.

In Central Core Myopathy what muscle fibers are predominantly affected?

a)

Type II fibers

b)

Type I fibers

c)

Type 1 and Type 2 equally

d)

All of Tylers muscles fibers

25.

As part of the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (IDEA) which of the following services are required for individuals under the age of 3 years old with developmental delay?

a)

Physical Therapy

b)

Speech Therapy

c)

Occupational Therapy

d)

Recreational Therapy

26.

Which of the following is also known as neurodevelopmental treatment (NDT) in which the goal is to normalize tone, inhibit abnormal primitive reflex patterns, and facilitate automatic reactions with subsequent normal development?

a)

Bobath Technique

b)

Phelps Technique

c)

Deaver Technique

d)

Rood Technique

27.

Which age is generally preferred for a patient with cerebral palsy to get a selective posterior rhizotomy?

a)

1-3 years old

b)

3-8 years old

c)

8-12 years old

d)

12-16 years old

28.

Which of the following is true about aging with cerebral palsy?

a)

There is no correlation between degree of disability and level of sexual activity.

b)

Scoliosis occurs much more frequently in ambulatory individuals

c)

General health related problems occur at a rate that is twice as often as the general population.

d)

Individuals with CP are often not capable of reproduction

29.

By what age should the asymmetric tonic reflex be suppressed in an infant?

a)

4-5 months

b)

6-7 months

c)

7-8 months

d)

9-10 months