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Worksheets

Spring 2022 - Exam 1

Total questions: 75

Worksheet time: 3hrs 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What of the following inhalers is considered a "rescue" inhaler that is used for acute asthma attacks?

a)

Albuterol

b)

QVAR

c)

Tiotropium

d)

Advair

2.

Which of the following medications is considered a long acting beta agonist?

a)

beclomethasone

b)

salmeterol

c)

Proair

d)

Atrovent

3.

What is the primary functional unit of the lungs where gas exchange between carbon dioxide and oxygen occur?

a)

Alveolar sacs

b)

Bronchial tubes

c)

Pharynx

d)

Upper respiratory tract

4.

A patient is having an asthma attack and uses an albuterol inhaler. How does this medication work to help the patient breathe?

a)

It is a beta 2 antagonist and causes constriction of the bronchioles (bronchiole tubes)

b)

It is a beta 2 agonist and causes dilation of the bronchioles (bronchiole tubes)

c)

It is a beta 2 agonist and causes constriction of the bronchioles (bronchiole tubes)

d)

It is a beta 2 antagonist and causes dilation of the bronchioles (bronchiole tubes)

5.

Why is it important for a patient to rinse and spit with water after using a steroid inhaler? Choose the best answer.

a)

It can prevent oral thrush as a major side effect

b)

It can cause the medication to be absorbed more efficiently

c)

It can reduce the systemic side effects of the medication

d)

It can increase the bioavailability of the medication

6.

Which statement best describes the difference between asthma and COPD?

a)

Asthma is irreversible and COPD is reversible

b)

Asthma is usually caused by smoking cigarettes

c)

COPD is irreversible and asthma is reversible

d)

COPD is not usually caused by smoking cigarettes

7.

What are the components in Advair? Select all that apply.

a)

salmeterol

b)

formoterol

c)

fluticasone

d)

budesonide

8.

A patient comes to the pharmacy to pick up Flonase. What is this medication most likely used for?

a)

Seasonal allergies

b)

Asthma

c)

COPD

d)

Cough and cold

9.

What is the primary and preventable cause of COPD?

a)

Smoking cigarettes

b)

Genetics

c)

Environmental allergies

d)

Exercise induced

10.

Which device can be used to create a fine air stream mist by vaporizing liquid medication for easier administration of inhaled drugs used for asthma and COPD?

a)

Metered dose inhaler (MDI)

b)

Dry powered inhaler (DPI)

c)

Nebulizer

d)

Spacer

11.

Which of the following inhaled medications contains a steroid? Select all that apply.

a)

Advair

b)

Dulera

c)

DuoNeb

d)

Symbicort

12.

A patient with COPD is given a prescription for Spiriva. Which statement is correct regarding this medication?

a)

It should be used on a PRN basis for acute attacks

b)

It should be taken by mouth every day at bedtime for maintenance

c)

It should be inhaled every day for maintenance

d)

It should be used with a spacer for easier administration

13.

What are the hallmark signs and symptoms of asthma? Select all that apply

a)

Shortness of breath

b)

Wheezing

c)

Coughing

d)

Bronchospasms

14.

Which neurotransmitter is primary involved with mood, cognition, and behavior?

a)

Glutamate

b)

Dopamine

c)

Epinephrine

d)

GABA

15.

What pharmacological effects can be seen with Tylenol? Select all that apply.

a)

Analgesia

b)

Antipyretic

c)

Anti inflammatory

d)

Amnesia

16.

Which receptor is primary found in the airways and bronchial tubes?

a)

Histamine type 1

b)

Beta 1

c)

Beta 2

d)

Alpha 1

17.

What rare but serious and potentially life-threatening side effect is associated with inhaled general anesthetics such as isoflurane?

a)

Malignant hyperthermia

b)

Nephrotoxicity

c)

Cardiac arrhythmias

d)

QT prolongation

18.

Which medication can be used to reverse the effects of malignant hyperthermia?

a)

Neostigmine

b)

Dantrolene

c)

Narcan

d)

Romazicon

19.

Naloxone can be used to reverse which of the following medication overdoses

a)

Fentanyl

b)

Nimbex

c)

Valium

d)

Sumatriptan

20.

Which opioid is not a controlled substance category II drug (C-II)?

a)

Fentanyl

b)

Dilaudid

c)

Morphine

d)

Tramadol

21.

Which medication can be used to help treat substance abuse and addiction for opioids?

a)

Suboxone

b)

Morphine

c)

Demerol

d)

Propofol

22.

What is a common indication for Dolophine?

a)

Nausea and vomiting

b)

Migraine headaches

c)

Antibiotic

d)

Substance abuse

23.

Which side effects are associated with anticholinergic medications? Select all that apply.

a)

Dry eyes

b)

Dry mouth

c)

Urinary retention

d)

Dilated pupils

24.

Which medication cannot be reversed with naloxone?

a)

Duragesic

b)

Ativan

c)

Morphine

d)

Percocet

25.

Which medication should have an auxiliary label placed on it for "High Alert - Paralyzing Agent?" Hint: which medication is a neuromuscular blocking agent?

a)

All of the above

b)

Succinylcholine

c)

Vecuronium

d)

Nimbex

26.

Which medication is considered a cephalosporin antibiotic? Select all that apply.

a)

Vantin

b)

Rocephin

c)

Ancef

d)

Zosyn

27.

What pharmacological effects can be seen with ibuprofen? Select all that apply.

a)

Analgesia

b)

Antipyretic

c)

Anti inflammatory

d)

Amnesia

28.

Which medication should be used to treat oral thrush?

a)

Fluconazole

b)

Nystatin

c)

Amphotericin B

d)

Caspofungin

29.

What special form is required to order controlled substance category II drugs?

a)

DEA 222

b)

DEA 106

c)

DEA 145

d)

DEA 219

30.

Fentanyl is classified as a C-II drug and diazepam is classified as a C-IV drug. Which of the following is correct regarding C-II and C-IV drugs?

a)

C-II drugs have higher potential for abuse than a C-IV and are not permitted refills

b)

C-II drugs have lower potential for abuse than a C-IV and are not permitted refills

c)

C-IV drugs have higher potential for abuse than a C-II and are not permitted refills

d)

C-IV drugs have lower potential for abuse than a C-II and are not permitted refills

31.

Which of the following resources would be most appropriate for reporting adverse drug reactions after a medication has been approved for use in the community?

a)

ISMP

b)

FDA

c)

MedWatch

d)

DEA

32.

What auxiliary sticker would be most appropriate to place on a prescription bottle for Augmentin suspension?

a)

Avoid sun exposure

b)

Refrigerate

c)

Do not take with antacids

d)

May cause drowsiness

33.

Which of the following drugs can cause nephrotoxicity? Select all that apply.

a)

Bactrim

b)

Vancomycin

c)

Ancef

d)

Amikacin

34.

Which medications should have an auxiliary label to avoid sun exposure? Select all that apply.

a)

Bactrim

b)

Flagyl

c)

Doxycycline

d)

Ciprofloxacin

35.

You are working in a sterile compounding (IV room) and receive a label with the following prescription: Daptomycin 500 mg IV in 250 mL D5W. Select the best answer.

a)

Compound and fill the prescription as written

b)

Ask the pharmacist to have the solution changed to NS

c)

Ask the pharmacist to have the dose changed to 250 mg

d)

Ask the pharmacist to have the volume changed to 500 mL

36.

Choose the correct statement regarding metabolism and elimination.

a)

The kidneys and liver are primarily responsible for elimination

b)

The kidneys and liver are primarily responsible for metabolism

c)

The kidneys are primarily responsible for metabolism and the liver is primarily responsible for elimination

d)

The kidneys are primarily responsible for elimination and the liver is primarily responsible for metabolism

37.

Which of the following auxiliary labels should be included with a prescription for metronidazole?

a)

May cause tendon rupture

b)

Do not take with antacids

c)

Do not drink alcohol

d)

Refrigerate

38.

Which medications can be purchased over the counter? Select all that apply.

a)

acetaminophen

b)

diphenhydramine

c)

loratadine

d)

ibuprofen

39.

Drug A has a half life of 2 hours. If there is 100 mg available in the blood how many half lives will it take for there to be 12.5 mg left?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

40.

Which of the following can help increase patient compliance and medication adherence? Select all that apply.

a)

Less dosing frequency of medications

b)

Adding flavoring agents for pediatric patients

c)

Taking a brand name drug rather than a generic

d)

Providing counseling to patients on side effects

41.

Which side effects are associated with fluconazole?

a)

Nephrotoxicity and photosensitivity

b)

Hepatotoxicity and QTc prolongation

c)

Tendon rupture and diarrhea

d)

Bleeding and photosensitivity

42.

What is the purpose of a culture and sensitivity report?

a)

To identify which antibiotics will work against a particular organism

b)

To identify resistance patterns among different bacteria

c)

To identify the specific organism to help narrow antibiotic therapy

d)

All of these are correct

43.

Drug C has a half life of 12 hours. There is 25 mg available in the blood. How many milligrams will be left after 3 half lives?

a)

1.56 mg

b)

12.5 mg

c)

6.25 mg

d)

3.125 mg

44.

A patient comes to the pharmacy and asks how long a 500 mg dose of acetaminophen will last before having to take another dose. The pharmacist states it should last anywhere from 4 to 6 hours. Which term best describes the concept of how long the medication will last?

a)

Onset of action

b)

Duration of action

c)

Termination of action

d)

Therapeutic range

45.

Who is responsible for recalling controlled substances?

a)

DEA

b)

FDA

c)

USP

d)

ISMP

46.

Select the medication(s) that are H2 receptor antagonists. Select all that apply.

a)

famotidine

b)

cimetidine

c)

loratadine

d)

fexofenadine

47.

Which medications are considered antifungal agents? Select all that apply.

a)

Abelcet

b)

Vfend

c)

Cipro

d)

Azactam

48.

Which medication(s) should not be taken together with antacids? Select all that apply.

a)

ciprofloxacin

b)

minocycline

c)

vancomycin

d)

clarithromycin

49.

Drug A has a therapeutic range of 10 to 15 mcg/mL. A blood sample comes back with a value of 20 mcg/mL. Which answer best classifies this value?

a)

Therapeutic

b)

Subtherapeutic

c)

Supratherapeutic

d)

None of the above

50.

A patient with impaired kidney function would most likely have problems with:

a)

elimination

b)

distribution

c)

absorption

d)

metabolism

51.

A patient with impaired liver function would most likely have problems with:

a)

elimination

b)

metabolism

c)

distribution

d)

absorption

52.

A patient comes to the pharmacy requesting a refill for the medications listed below in the answer choices. The patient can have all of the medications refilled except:

a)

Augmentin

b)

OxyContin

c)

Flagyl

d)

Valium

53.

Which medication has a black box warning for potential carcinogenicity?

a)

Flagyl

b)

Cipro

c)

Zyvox

d)

Cubicin

54.

Which medications can prolong the QTc interval? Select all that apply.

a)

Erythromycin

b)

Z-pac

c)

Tetracycline

d)

Diflucan

55.

In general, which of the following definitions best describes bioavailability?

a)

The amount of drug that reaches systemic circulation

b)

The amount of drug that is eliminated from the body

c)

The amount of drug that is metabolized and broken down

d)

The amount of drug that is distributed to the site of action

56.

Select all of the following routes of administration that can be taken orally. Select all that apply.

a)

A tablet

b)

A transdermal patch

c)

An intramuscular injection

d)

A capsule

57.

Which of the following organizations is responsible for regulating the sale and distribution of controlled substances?

a)

DEA

b)

ISMP

c)

MedWatch

d)

FDA

58.

Which route of administration will bypass the first pass metabolism effect?

a)

IV

b)

IM

c)

PO

d)

SL

59.

Which organization provides best practice recommendations regarding medication safety?

a)

FDA

b)

ISMP

c)

DEA

d)

MedWatch

60.

What is the brand name for cephalexin?

a)

Keflex

b)

Merrem

c)

Valtrex

d)

Rocephin

61.

Which medication is an H1 receptor antagonist which can be purchased over the counter?

a)

Pepcid

b)

Tagament

c)

Allegra

d)

Zyvox

62.

Vaccines help to promote active immunity through ______ production. FIll in the blank with the correct choice below.

a)

Allergen

b)

Antigen

c)

Antibody

d)

Anaphylaxis

63.

You receive a prescription with the following sig: Diflucan 400 mg in 250 mL of NS IV daily. What route of administration does this label indicate?

a)

Intravenously

b)

Subcutaneously

c)

By mouth

d)

Transdermal

64.

Which antibiotic is a macrolide that is typically used to treat pneumonia?

a)

Azithromycin

b)

Avycaz

c)

Vancomycin

d)

Zyvox

65.

Morphine is classified as a C-II and Tylenol #3 is classified as a C-III controlled substance. Which of the following is true? Select all that apply.

a)

Morphine can be refilled only twice within 6 months.

b)

Tylenol #3 can be refilled up to 5 times within 6 months and up to a 120 day supply.

c)

Morphine has a higher potential for abuse than Tylenol #3.

d)

Tylenol #3 a higher potential for abuse than Morphine.

66.

Which of the following tasks can be performed by a pharmacy technician? Select all that apply.

a)

Counsel patients on their medications

b)

Compound IV medications

c)

Purchase controlled substances

d)

Refill and stock medications in the pharmacy

67.

What is MedWatch?

a)

A reporting system for monitoring of safety and efficacy of drugs that have been released into the market.

b)

A database that is used by the DEA to monitor the sale of controlled substances.

c)

A monitoring services used by pharmacies to track prescriptions that have been refilled.

d)

A form that is used to purchase controlled substances.

68.

Which term best describes the labeling information to inform the patient and provider of known medical risks when taking a certain medication?

a)

Black box warning

b)

Controlled substance category

c)

MedWatch

d)

Brand name

69.

Select the H2 receptor antagonist(s) from the list below. Select all that apply.

a)

Benadryl

b)

Tagamet

c)

Allegra

d)

Pepcid

70.

Which of the following are symptoms of an allergic reaction? Select all that apply.

a)

Nausea and vomiting

b)

Hives

c)

Rash

d)

Pruritus

71.

A patient's pain is normally well controlled after taking 1 tablet of Norco every 12 hours as prescribed. They noticed that overtime they need to take 1 tablet every 8 hours to achieve the same amount of pain relief. Which term best describes the situation above?

a)

Addiction

b)

Tolerance

c)

Drug abuse

d)

Drug dependence

72.

Which phase of pharmacokinetics involves the process of moving drugs from the blood into other body fluids and tissues and ultimately to its sites of action?

a)

Absorption

b)

Distribution

c)

Elimination

d)

Metabolism

73.

Which of the following would likely affect the absorption of medications? Select all that apply.

a)

Drug or food interactions

b)

IV route of administration

c)

Low solubility

d)

First pass metabolism

74.

What is the generic name for Norco?

a)

Hydrocodone with acetaminophen

b)

Hydrocodone with ibuprofen

c)

Oxycodone with acetaminophen

d)

Oxycodone with aspirin

75.

Which medication can be used to treat N/V?

a)

metronidazole

b)

metoclopramide

c)

voriconazole

d)

doxycycline