Wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

IT2 - Exam 4: Opportunistic Infections

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is true about opportunistic infections?

a)

Do not usually appear in healthy individuals

b)

Not normally pathogenic but are pathogenic in those with impaired immune system

c)

Those with CD4 <400 are at risk

2.

Those who are immunocompromised are:

a)

CD4 <200 cells/mm3

b)

Use of systemic steroids for >14 days

c)

Asplenia

d)

Those on immunosuppressants (ie TNF-alpha inhibitors)

e)

Those on chemotherapy

3.

What are the steps generally taken to manage opportunistic infections?

a)

Prevent exposure

b)

Vaccinate

c)

Appropriate primary and secondary prophylaxis

d)

Early detection and treatment

4.

What is the route of transmission for Varicella Zoster?

a)

Direct contact

b)

Airborne

c)

Undercooked meat

d)

Soil spores

e)

Inhalation or ingestion of contaminated soil

5.

What is the route of transmission for Pneumocystis Jirovecci Pneumonia?

a)

Direct contact

b)

Airborne

c)

Undercooked meat

d)

Soil spores

e)

Inhalation or ingestion of contaminated soil

6.

What is the route of transmission for Toxoplasma gondii Encephalitis?

a)

Direct contact

b)

Airborne

c)

Undercooked meat

d)

Soil spores

e)

Inhalation or ingestion of contaminated soil

7.

What is the route of transmission for Mycobacterium Avium Complex?

a)

Direct contact

b)

Airborne

c)

Undercooked meat

d)

Soil spores

e)

Inhalation or ingestion of contaminated soil or water

8.

What is the route of transmission for Cytomegalovirus?

a)

Direct contact

b)

Airborne

c)

Undercooked meat

d)

Soil spores

e)

Inhalation or ingestion of contaminated soil or water

9.

What is the route of transmission for Oralpharyngeal/esophageal?

a)

Mouth, throat, digestive tract

b)

Airborne

c)

Undercooked meat

d)

Soil spores

e)

Inhalation or ingestion of contaminated soil or water

10.

What is the route of transmission for Cryptococcal Meningitis?

a)

Mouth, throat, digestive tract

b)

Airborne

c)

Undercooked meat

d)

Soil spores

e)

Inhalation or ingestion of contaminated soil or water

11.

What are some presentation/signs of Varicella Zoster?

a)

Chickenpox/Shingles

b)

Progressive dyspnea

c)

Fever

d)

Nonproductive cough

e)

Hypoxia

12.

What are some presentation/signs of Pneumocystis Jirovecii Pneumonia?

a)

Worsening Chest Discomfort

b)

Progressive dyspnea

c)

Fever

d)

Nonproductive cough

e)

Hypoxia

13.

What are some presentation/signs of Toxoplasma gondii encephalitis?

a)

Altered Mental status

b)

Seizures

c)

Confusion/motor weakness

d)

Nonproductive cough

e)

Hypoxia

14.

What are some presentation/signs of Mycobacterium Avium Complex?

a)

Chronic cough

b)

Fatigue

c)

Dyspnea

d)

Asymptomatic (healthy patients)

e)

Hypoxia

15.

What are some presentation/signs of Mycobacterium Avium Complex?

a)

Chronic cough

b)

Fatigue

c)

Dyspnea

d)

Asymptomatic (healthy patients)

e)

Hypoxia

16.

What are some presentation/signs of Cytomegalovirus?

a)

Fever

b)

Fatigue

c)

Sore throat

d)

Swollen glands

e)

Altered mental status

17.

What are some presentation/signs of Candidiasis?

a)

Watch patches on inner cheeks, tongue, roof of mouth and throat

b)

Redness and soreness

c)

Cracking at corners of mouth

d)

Swollen glands

e)

Dyspnea

18.

What are some presentation/signs of Cryptoccal Meningitis?

a)

Altered mental status

b)

Neckpain

c)

Fever

d)

Nausea/vomiting/Headache

e)

Sensitivity to light

19.

A patient is presenting with chickenpox what treatment should patient be put on and for how long?

a)

Valacyclovir 1 gm PO TID

b)

7-10 days

c)

3-6 months

d)

Bactrim PO daily

20.

What is the primary prophylaxis for Varicella Zoster?

a)

Vaccination

b)

Varzig 96 hours after exposure

c)

Acyclovir 800 mg PO 5x/day for 5-7 days

21.

A patient is presenting with progressive dyspnea, fever, non-productive cough, chest discomfort and hypoxia. What is the primary prophylaxis of choice?

a)

Bactrim

b)

Acyclovir

c)

Vaccination

d)

None

22.

How do you diagnose a patient that you suspect having a Pneumocystis Jirovecii Pneumonia infection?

a)

Chest radiograph

b)

Lesion in MRI CT scan

c)

Lateral flow assay

d)

Sputum culture from lungs

23.

What would you see in a chest radiograph in a person suspected of penumocystis jirovecii pneumonia?

a)

Diffuse interstitialinfiltrates

b)

Ground glass appearance

c)

Gray and hazy

24.

What is the alternative prophylaxis treatment for Pneumoncysitis Jirovecii Pneumonia?

a)

Dapsone 100mg PO QD

b)

Valganciclovir 900 mg PO BID

c)

Fluconazole 200mg PO QD for 1 year

d)

Clarithromycin 500 mg PO BID

e)

Azithromycin 600 mg PO QD

25.

When can a patient discontinue prophylaxis?

a)

CD4 count >200 cells/mm3

b)

3 or more months on antiretroviral therapy (ART)

c)

CD4 count >100 cells/mm3

d)

2 or more months on antiretroviral therapy (ART)

26.

A patient consumed uncooked meat and is experiencing altered mental status what is the 1st line treatment we can use to treat patient?

a)

Pyrimethamine 200 mg PO x1 dose then 50mg-75mg PO daily + Leucoverin + Sulfadiazine

b)

Clarithromycin 500 mg PO BID

c)

Valganciclovir 900 mg PO BID

d)

None

27.

How do you diagnose Toxoplasma gondii encephalitis?

a)

IgG antibodies

b)

Lesions in MRI CT scan

c)

Sputum culture from lungs

d)

Chest Xray

e)

Lateral flow assay

28.

A patient who accidentally consumed cat litter could be at risk for?

a)

Toxoplasma gondii encephalitis

b)

Mycobacterium Avium Complex

c)

Cytomegalovirus

d)

Candidiasis

29.

A patient who accidentally consumed uncooked meat could be at risk for?

a)

Toxoplasma gondii encephalitis

b)

Mycobacterium Avium Complex

c)

Cytomegalovirus

d)

Candidiasis

30.

Which opportunistic infection uses macrolides such as Azithromycin or Clarithromycin as primary prophylaxis treatments?

a)

Mycobacterium Avium Complex

b)

Cytomegalovirus

c)

Crytococcal Meningitis

d)

Candidiasis

e)

Pneumocystis Jirovecii Pneumonia

31.

How can you diagnose patient suspicious of having Mycobacterium Avium Complex?

a)

Chest Xray

b)

CT scan

c)

Sputum culture from lungs

d)

Blood tests

e)

Lateral flow assay

32.

Macrolides are preferred treatments for which opportunistic infection?

a)

Mycobacterium Avium Complex

b)

Toxoplasma gondii encephalitis

c)

Candidiasis

d)

Cryptococcal Meningitis

33.

A patient is presenting with fatigue, fever, sore throat and swollen glands what could they possibly have?

a)

Cytomegalovirus

b)

Toxoplasma gondii encephalitis

c)

Candidiasis

d)

Cryptococcal meningitis

34.

What is the primary prophylaxis for Cytomgalovirus?

a)

None

b)

Macrolides

c)

Bactrim

d)

Rifubutin

35.

What is the treatment for patient with cytomegalovirus?

a)

None

b)

Valganciclovir

c)

Clarithromycin

d)

Bactrim

e)

Pyrimethamine

36.

How can you identify someone with opportunistic infection?

a)

HIV

b)

Chemotherapy

c)

Immunosuppression

37.

At what level of CD4 count would make a patient high risk?

a)

<400

b)

<500

c)

<600

d)

<700

38.

Valacyclovir 1g PO TID is the preferred regimen for which opportunistic infection?

a)

Varicella zoster

b)

Toxoplasmosis Gondii Encephalitis

c)

Cytomegalovirus

d)

MAC

39.

Macrolides are the preferred regimen for which opportunistic infection?

a)

Varicella Zoster

b)

Pneumocystis Jirovecii Pneumonia

c)

Toxoplasmosis Gondii Encephalitis

d)

Cytomegalovirus

e)

Mycobacterium Avium Complex (MAC)

40.

Valganiciclovir/Ganciclovir are the preferred regimen for which opportunistic infection?

a)

Varicella Zoster

b)

Pneumocystis Jirovecii Pneumonia

c)

Toxoplasmosis Gondii Encephalitis

d)

Cytomegalovirus

e)

Mycobacterium Avium Complex (MAC)

41.

Pyrimethamine + Leucovorin + Sulfadiazine are the preferred regimen for which opportunistic infection?

a)

Varicella Zoster

b)

Pneumocystis Jirovecii Pneumonia

c)

Toxoplasmosis Gondii Encephalitis

d)

Cytomegalovirus

e)

Mycobacterium Avium Complex (MAC)

42.

Bactrim is the preferred regimen for which opportunistic infection?

a)

Varicella Zoster

b)

Pneumocystis Jirovecii Pneumonia

c)

Toxoplasmosis Gondii Encephalitis

d)

Cytomegalovirus

e)

Mycobacterium Avium Complex (MAC)

43.

Fluconazole is the preferred regimen for which opportunistic infection?

a)

Candidiasis (thrush)

b)

Pneumocystis Jirovecii Pneumonia

c)

Toxoplasmosis Gondii Encephalitis

d)

Cytomegalovirus

e)

Mycobacterium Avium Complex (MAC)

44.

Amphotericin B is the preferred regimen for which opportunistic infection?

a)

Candidiasis (thrush)

b)

Cryptococcal Meningitis

c)

Toxoplasmosis Gondii Encephalitis

d)

Cytomegalovirus

e)

Mycobacterium Avium Complex (MAC)

45.

Rifabutin, Amikacin, Streptomicin, Moxiflocain and Levofloxacin are secondary regimens for which opportunistic infection?

a)

Varicella Zoster

b)

Pneumocystis Jirovecii Pneumonia

c)

Toxoplasmosis Gondii Encephalitis

d)

Cytomegalovirus

e)

Mycobacterium Avium Complex (MAC)

46.

Foscarnet and Cidofovir are secondary regimens for which opportunistic infection?

a)

Varicella Zoster

b)

Pneumocystis Jirovecii Pneumonia

c)

Toxoplasmosis Gondii Encephalitis

d)

Cytomegalovirus

e)

Mycobacterium Avium Complex (MAC)

47.

Itraconazole and Posaconazole are secondary regimens for which opportunistic infection?

a)

Candidiasis (thrush)

b)

Pneumocystis Jirovecii Pneumonia

c)

Toxoplasmosis Gondii Encephalitis

d)

Cytomegalovirus

e)

Mycobacterium Avium Complex (MAC)

48.

Dapsone is the secondary regimens for which opportunistic infection?

a)

Candidiasis (thrush)

b)

Pneumocystis Jirovecii Pneumonia

c)

Toxoplasmosis Gondii Encephalitis

d)

Cytomegalovirus

e)

Mycobacterium Avium Complex (MAC)

49.

Which are the fungal opportunistic infections

a)

Candidiasis

b)

Cryptococcal Meningitis

c)

Cytomegalovirus

d)

MAC

e)

Toxoplasma gondii encephalitis

50.

Which are the viral opportunistic infections

a)

Pneumocystis Gondii encephalitis

b)

Varicella Zoster

c)

Cytomegalovirus

d)

MAC

e)

Toxoplasma gondii encephalitis