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IT 2 - Exam 4 Goo Fungal

Total questions: 151

Worksheet time: 1hrs 29mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What are some cell wall components that are unique to fungi?

a)

Chitin

b)

B-16

c)

B1-3

d)

C-32

e)

AA36

2.

Where can true fungal pathogens cause disease

a)

Immunocompromised patients

b)

Healthy hosts

3.

What is the most common opportunistic infection?

a)

Candida albicans

b)

Cryptococcus neoformans

c)

Pneumocystic jirovecii

d)

Aspergillus fumigatus

e)

Mucor

4.

What is the most common opportunistic infection in HIV patients?

a)

Candida albicans

b)

Cryptococcus neoformans

c)

Pneumocystic jirovecii

d)

Aspergillus fumigatus

e)

Mucor

5.

What doesn't have chitin and we have to use bactrim to treat?

a)

Candida albicans

b)

Cryptococcus neoformans

c)

Pneumocystic jirovecii

d)

Aspergillus fumigatus

e)

Mucor

6.

What occurs in more prolonged immunocompromised?

a)

Candida albicans

b)

Cryptococcus neoformans

c)

Pneumocystic jirovecii

d)

Aspergillus fumigatus

e)

Mucor

7.

What is known as Zygomycetes?

a)

Candida albicans

b)

Cryptococcus neoformans

c)

Pneumocystic jirovecii

d)

Aspergillus fumigatus

e)

Mucor

8.

What are the different types of infections?

a)

Cutaneous

b)

Invasive

c)

Habitual

d)

Erraneous

9.

Which type of infection occurs in immunocompromised patients?

a)

Cutaneous

b)

Invasive

c)

Habitual

d)

Evasive

e)

Powerful

10.

For invasive infections which is associated with inoculated skin? Typically trauma?

a)

Subcutaneous

b)

Pulmonary

c)

Disseminated

11.

For invasive infections which is associated with inhalation of spores?

a)

Subcutaneous

b)

Pulmonary

c)

Disseminated

12.

For invasive infections which is associated with circulation affecting organs?

a)

Subcutaneous

b)

Pulmonary

c)

Disseminated

13.

How much of fungal infections is cause of nosocomial infections?

a)

10%

b)

90%

c)

20%

d)

50%

14.

How much of bacterial infections is cause of nosocomial infections?

a)

10%

b)

90%

c)

20%

d)

50%

15.

Which fungal pathogen is associated with leukemia, corticosteroids, TB, immunosuppression and IV drug use?

a)

Aspergillus

b)

Candida

c)

Cryptococcus

d)

Zygomycota

16.

Which fungal pathogen is associated with antibiotic therapy, catheters, diabetes, corticosteroids, immunosuppression with transplants and HIV?

a)

Aspergillus

b)

Candida

c)

Cryptococcus

d)

Zygomycota

17.

Which fungal pathogen is associated with diabetes, TB, cancer, corticosteroids, immunosuppresesion?

a)

Aspergillus

b)

Candida

c)

Cryptococcus

d)

Zygomycota

18.

Which fungal pathogen is associated with burns and physical trauma?

a)

Aspergillus

b)

Candida

c)

Cryptococcus

d)

Zygomycota

19.

Most fungal infections are non-communicable meaning....

a)

can spread person to person

b)

cannot be spread from person to person

20.

What are the main defenses from the body for infections?

a)

Skin barrier

b)

Respiratory Cilia

c)

Hair

d)

Vaccinations

e)

Prophylaxis

21.

True or false: Long lasting immunity in common in opportunistic infections.

a)

True

b)

False

22.

When a patient comes in with a fungal infection.. what could it be?

a)

Yeast

b)

Mold

c)

Dimorphic

d)

Hematogenous

e)

Teratogenic

23.

Candida, cryptococcus and pneumocystis are...

a)

Yeast

b)

Mold

c)

Dimorphic

d)

Hematogenous

e)

Teratogenic

24.

Aspergillus, mucor and dermatophytes is...

a)

Yeast

b)

Mold

c)

Dimorphic

d)

Hematogenous

e)

Teratogenic

25.

Cocciodiodoides, blastomyces, histoplasma and paracoccidioides is...

a)

Yeast

b)

Mold

c)

Dimorphic

d)

Hematogenous

e)

Teratogenic

26.

Is associated with pore formation?

a)

Polyenes

b)

Azoles, Allylamines

c)

Flucytosine

d)

Echinocandins

e)

Griseofulvin

27.

Is associated with inhibiting ergosterol biosynthesis?

a)

Polyenes

b)

Azoles, Allylamines

c)

Flucytosine

d)

Echinocandins

e)

Griseofulvin

28.

Is associated with inhibiting dTMP and protein synthesis?

a)

Polyenes

b)

Azoles, Allylamines

c)

Flucytosine

d)

Echinocandins

e)

Griseofulvin

29.

Is associated with cell well biosynthesis?

a)

Polyenes

b)

Azoles, Allylamines

c)

Flucytosine

d)

Echinocandins

e)

Griseofulvin

30.

Is associated with microtubules?

a)

Polyenes

b)

Azoles, Allylamines

c)

Flucytosine

d)

Echinocandins

e)

Griseofulvin

31.

Is associated with Na+/K+ ATPase?

a)

Polyenes

b)

Azoles, Allylamines

c)

Flucytosine

d)

Echinocandins

e)

Ciclopirox

32.

Amphotericin B and Nystatin are a part of which class?

a)

Polyenes

b)

Azoles, Allylamines

c)

Flucytosine

d)

Echinocandins

e)

Ciclopirox

33.

Fluconazole, Itraconazole, Voriconazole, Posaconazole and Isavuconazoium are a part of which class?

a)

Polyenes

b)

Azoles, Allylamines

c)

Flucytosine

d)

Echinocandins

e)

Ciclopirox

34.

Naftifine and terbinafine are a part of which class?

a)

Polyenes

b)

Allylamines

c)

Flucytosine

d)

Echinocandins

e)

Ciclopirox

35.

Synergistic add ons are a part of which class?

a)

Polyenes

b)

Allylamines

c)

Flucytosine

d)

Echinocandins

e)

Ciclopirox

36.

Caspofungin, Micafungin and Anidulafungin are a part of which class?

a)

Polyenes

b)

Allylamines

c)

Flucytosine

d)

Echinocandins

e)

Ciclopirox

37.

What is the MAIN steroid in fungal membranes?

a)

Ergosterol

b)

Desoxycholate

c)

Lebisterol

d)

Nystatin

38.

What is true about Ergosterol?

a)

Main steroid in fungal membrane

b)

Main steroid in bacterial membrane

c)

Not found in animals

d)

Found in animals

e)

Selective for fungi

39.

Which are a part of the polyenes class?

a)

Amphotericin B

b)

Nystatin

c)

Amoxicillin

d)

Bactrim

40.

Which lipid formulation of Amphotericin is used for power resuspension?

a)

c-AmB

b)

ABCD

c)

ABLC

d)

LAmB

41.

Which of these forms a colloid when resuspended?

a)

c-AmB

b)

ABCD

c)

ABLC

d)

LAmB

42.

When using an in-line filter for c-AmB Amphotericin how big should the line be in order to avoid having colloidal suspension from getting clogged?

a)

>1um

b)

>2um

c)

>3um

d)

>4um

43.

Resuspension of c-AmB is done using?

a)

Sterile water

b)

Normal saline

c)

Glucose water

44.

Which of these forms a COLLOID when suspended

a)

c-AmB (Conventional AmB)

b)

ABCD (AmB + Cholesteryl Sulfate)

c)

ABLC (Lipid complex, containing AmB + Phospholipids)

d)

LAmB: Liposomal containing AmB + Lipids

45.

Which of these forms a RIBBON when suspended

a)

c-AmB (Conventional AmB)

b)

ABCD (AmB + Cholesteryl Sulfate)

c)

ABLC (Lipid complex, containing AmB + Phospholipids)

d)

LAmB: Liposomal containing AmB + Lipids

46.

Which of these forms a VESICLES when suspended

a)

c-AmB (Conventional AmB)

b)

ABCD (AmB + Cholesteryl Sulfate)

c)

ABLC (Lipid complex, containing AmB + Phospholipids)

d)

LAmB: Liposomal containing AmB + Lipids

47.

What is true about Amphotericin B mechanism?

a)

K+ leaks OUT of cells

b)

Na+ leaks INTO cells

c)

Disrupts membrane

d)

Causes fungal cell death

e)

K+ leaks into cells

48.

What is the main administration route for Amphotericin B?

a)

IV

b)

Oral

c)

Subcutaneous

d)

Rectal

49.

What is true about Amphotericin B?

a)

Broad spectrum

b)

Shows concentration dependent antifungal effect

c)

Narrow therapeutic index

d)

Overdose can be fatal

e)

Has adverse effects

50.

What doesn't Amphotericin cover?

a)

Candida lusitanie

b)

Aspergillus terrus

c)

Fusarium

d)

Candida albicans

e)

Candida glabrata

51.

What are some Amphotericin B adverse effect

a)

Febrile response

b)

Renal toxicity

c)

Hypotension

d)

Anemia

e)

Hypokalemia

52.

A patient who is on Amphotericin B experiences fever, chills, nausea and headache should take _____ pre-administration to prevent fever

a)

Acetaminophen

b)

Diphenhydramine

c)

Hydrocortisone

d)

Meperidine

53.

A patient who is on Amphotericin B experiences rigors should take ______ to prevent

a)

Acetaminophen

b)

Diphenhydramine

c)

Hydrocortisone

d)

Meperidine

54.

_______ is a highly abused narcotic and is not really used as a pain reliever and seizures. It may interact with MAOIs, SSRIs and could cause serotonin syndrome.

a)

Meperidine (Demerol)

b)

Acetaminophen

c)

Diphenhydramine

d)

Hydrocortisone

55.

What some signs of renal toxicity?

a)

Hypokalemia

b)

Azotemia (high blood nitrogen, urea and creatinine)

c)

Hyperkalemia

d)

Hypomagnesia

e)

Tachycardia

56.

How can you reduce renal toxicity in patients taking Amphotericin?

a)

Sodium preload

b)

Glucose preload

c)

Taking Acetaminophen

d)

Taking Demerol

57.

Which nephrotoxic drugs should not be taken with Amphotericin B?

a)

Aminoglycosides

b)

Cyclosporines

c)

Gallium

d)

NSAIDs

e)

Loop diuretics

58.

What is true about Nystatin (Mycostatin)?

a)

Used topically

b)

Used vaginally

c)

Not absorbed orally

d)

Not used systemic infections due to high toxicity

e)

Not administered by injection

59.

What is used orally but not absorbed orally to treat conditions such as oral candidiasis?

a)

Nystatin

b)

Fluconazole

c)

Itraconazole

d)

Voriconazole

60.

True or false: Nystatin can be used for systemic treatment.

a)

False

b)

True

61.

True or false: Nystatin is purely used topically.

a)

True

b)

False

62.

How are the azole antifungals categorized?

a)

Triazoles

b)

Imidazoles

c)

Hepazoles

d)

Pisconazoles

e)

Triethylzoles

63.

What is true about Triazoles?

a)

they are used for systemic infections

b)

Should be used for fungal infections

c)

Have too many SE

64.

What mechanism does Azoles utilize?

a)

Sterol 14-demethylase

b)

Oxidine xanthase

c)

Trimethoprim

d)

CYP450

65.

What is true about sterol 14-demethylase enzyme?

a)

Inhibits biosynthesis of Ergosterol

b)

Causes fungal cell death

c)

Is only used topically

66.

True or false: Azole antifungals can be used in pregnancy.

a)

False

b)

True

c)

Can use but monitor

d)

NO can't use no exceptions Category D

67.

True or false: Voriconazole can be used in pregnancy.

a)

False

b)

True

c)

Can use but monitor

d)

NO can't use no exceptions Category D

68.

Which are systemic antifungals?

a)

Fluconazole

b)

Itraconazole

c)

Voriconazole

d)

Posconazole

e)

Tetraconazole

69.

Which species are not covered by Azoles?

a)

Candida glabrata

b)

Candida krusei

c)

Aspergillus fumigatus

d)

Aspergillus flavus

e)

Fasarium

70.

What are some side effects of azole antifungals?

a)

GI upset: cramps, nausea, vomiting

b)

Skin rash

c)

Increased liver function tests (LFTs)

d)

QT Prolongation (cardiac comorbidities)

e)

Steven's-Johnson Syndrome

71.

Which drug class is mainly attributed to P450 inhibition?

a)

Azole antifungal

b)

Polyenes

c)

Allylamines

d)

Echinocandins

72.

What should you do when considering putting a patient on -azole?

a)

Drug interaction check

b)

Not put patient on azole

73.

Which of the following antifungals has the most likely chance of interacting with patient medication?

a)

Amphotericin

b)

Azole

c)

Caspofungin

d)

Caftifine

74.

Which of the following antifungals has the most likely chance of interacting with patient medication or liver? Drugs such. Simvastatin, Rifampin and CYP systems such as St. John's Worts?

a)

Azoles

b)

Allylamines

c)

Flucytosine

d)

Echinocandins

75.

What are the pros of Fluconazole?

a)

Good CNS penetration for Cryptococcus meningitis

b)

Good oral bioavailability

c)

Does NOT require stomach pH

d)

Coverage against Zygometes

e)

Covers C.krusei

76.

What are the cons of Fluconazole?

a)

Not metabolized, excreted in the urine unchanged

b)

May cause long QT

c)

P450 inhibitor

d)

CNS effects

e)

Negative inotropic effect

77.

What does fluconazole cover?

a)

1st line for Candida

b)

Have some resistance to Candida glabrata and Candida krusei

c)

Does not cover Aspergillus

d)

Does not cover zygomycetes

e)

Does not cover blastomyces or histoplasma

78.

Which has broader spectrum?

a)

Itraconazole

b)

Fluconazole

79.

What are the cons of Itraconazole?

a)

Requires fatty acid stomach pH so you need to eat with a fatty meal

b)

Can't take with antacids or PPI

c)

Poor CNS penetration

d)

Has negative inotropic effect

e)

May cause long QT

80.

What is the spectrum of Itraconazole?

a)

Some resistance in C.glabrata

b)

Does not cover C.krusei

c)

Gains coverage against Aspergillus and Fusarium but some resistance

d)

DOES not cover mucor

e)

Used outpatient because it is taken orally

81.

What is the main CON of Voriconazole?

a)

CNS effects suchs as hallucinations and visual changes

b)

Poor CNS penetration

c)

Negative inotropic effect

d)

Must take with fatty meal

82.

What are the cons of Posaconazole?

a)

Requires acid stomach pH so must eat with fatty meals

b)

CNS effects such as hallucinations and visual changes

c)

Is NOT metabolized

d)

Poor CNS penetration

e)

Has negative inotropic effect

83.

Which meds do you need to take with high fat meals?

a)

Itraconazole

b)

Posaconazole

c)

Voriconazole

d)

Fluconazole

84.

Which meds do you need to take on an empty stomach?

a)

Itraconazole

b)

Posaconazole

c)

Voriconazole

d)

Fluconazole

85.

Which meds do you need to take with or without meds?

a)

Itraconazole

b)

Posaconazole

c)

Voriconazole

d)

Fluconazole

e)

Isavuconazonium

86.

Which meds do you take with food?

a)

Itraconazole

b)

Posaconazole

c)

Voriconazole

d)

Isavuconazonium

87.

Which medication has the MOST drug interactions?

a)

Voriconazole

b)

Fluconazole

c)

Itraconazole

d)

Posaconazole

88.

Which drug is NOT metabolized?

a)

Fluconazole

b)

Isavuconazonium

c)

Itraconazole

d)

Posaconazole

89.

Which drug has the shortest half-life of 6 hrs?

a)

Fluconazole

b)

Isavuconazonium

c)

Itraconazole

d)

Posaconazole

e)

Voriconazole

90.

Which medications need acid pH?

a)

Itraconazole

b)

Posaconazole

c)

Fluconazole

d)

Isavuconazonium

e)

Voriconazole

91.

What can you take to make stomach contents acidic?

a)

Coke

b)

Coffee

c)

Tea

d)

Apple juice

92.

Allylamines inhibit ergosterol by using

a)

Squalene epoxidase

b)

Xanthine oxidase

c)

CYP2D6

d)

CYP3D2

93.

Flucytosine inhibits _______ which leads to cell death.

a)

Thymidylate synthase

b)

CYP2D6

c)

Glucan synthase

94.

Which drug class has fewer interactions with azoles and do not interact with 450's and is active against azole resistant Candida?

a)

Echinocandins

b)

Griseofulvin

c)

Antifungal

95.

True or false: Echinocandins have great bioavailability.

a)

False

b)

True

96.

True or false: Most Candida (c.glabrata and c.krusei) are susceptible to Echinocandins.

a)

True

b)

False

97.

Griseofulvin may cause..

a)

Allergic response

b)

Headache/nausea

c)

Photosensitivity

d)

Disulfiram effects

e)

Fever

98.

Which agent would be useful against Malassezia spp. (ie Tinea versicolor)?

a)

Ciclopirox

b)

Tolnaftate

c)

Amphotericin

d)

Fluconazole

99.

Which drugs are used topically?

a)

Griziophobin

b)

Tonifate

c)

Nystatin

d)

Micafugin

100.

What does fluconazole mainly cover?

a)

Candida

b)

Aspergillus

c)

Histoplasma

d)

Zygomycetes

101.

What species of Candida does Fluconazole NOT cover?

a)

C.krusei

b)

C.glabrata

c)

C.tropicalis

d)

C.albicans

102.

What coverage do you gain with Itraconazole?

a)

Blastomyces

b)

Histoplasma

c)

Candida

d)

Aspergillus

e)

Cryptococcus

103.

How should a patient take Itraconazole?

a)

With fatty meal

b)

On empty stomach

104.

What is a side effect that itraconazole has?

a)

Negative inotrope

b)

Visual disturbances

c)

Insomnia

d)

Uncontrolled bleeding

105.

What coverage do you gain with Voriconazole?

a)

Aspergillus

b)

Candida

c)

Histoplasma

d)

Blastomyces

106.

What is a special side effect that Voriconazole has?

a)

Visual disturbances

b)

Hallucinations

c)

Fever

d)

Rash

e)

Disulfiram like effects

107.

How should Posaconazole be taken?

a)

On an empty stomach

b)

With fatty meal

108.

How should Voriconazole be taken?

a)

On an empty stomach

b)

With fatty meal

109.

When should you start empiric therapy for Candida?

a)

Critically ill patients with risk factors for candida infection

b)

No other known cause of fever

c)

Neutropenic patient w/ persistant unexplained fever despite 4-7 days of broad spectrum antibiotics

d)

Those that are immunosuppressed

110.

Which can occur in health individuals? (geographic location gives you a clue on the pathogen)

a)

Histoplasma

b)

Blastomyces

c)

Coccidiomycosis

d)

Paracoccidiodies

e)

Aspergillus

111.

Which can occur in nosocomial infections (can occur in patients with short-term immunocompromised ie broad spectrum antibioics)?

a)

Histoplasma

b)

Blastomyces

c)

Coccidiomycosis

d)

Candida

e)

Aspergillus

112.

Which can occur in patients with severe/prolonged immunodeficiency (ie genetic disorders, HIV, transplants)

a)

Histoplasma

b)

Aspergillus

c)

Zygomycetes (mucor)

d)

Cryptococcus

e)

Pneumocystis

113.

A patient on broad spectrum antibiotics can develop what type of infection?

a)

Candida

b)

Histoplasma

c)

Blastomyces

d)

Paracoccidioides

114.

Only after patient has failed candida therapy should you suspect this pathogen..

a)

Aspergillus

b)

Histoplasma

c)

Blastomyces

d)

Paracoccidioides

115.

When you are empirically treating a non-neutropenic patient the primary target is..

a)

Candida

b)

Aspergillus

c)

Blastomyces

d)

Histoplasma

116.

What is the first line when treating Candida?

a)

Fluconazole

b)

Bactrim

c)

Azithromycin

d)

Nystatin

e)

Amphotericin B

117.

When empically treating a febrile neutropenic patient we should cover for both Candida and Aspergillus thus treatment of choice should be..

a)

Amphotericin B

b)

Voriconazole

c)

Fluconazole

d)

Nystatin

e)

Bactrim

118.

True or false: Candida is the MOST common cause of invasive fungal infection.

a)

True

b)

False

119.

True or false: Candida is a normal part of skin flora, female genital tract and GI tract and the population is decreased by broad spectrum antibiotics

a)

False

b)

True

120.

True or false: Candida is a normal part of skin flora, female genital tract and GI tract and the population is increased by broad spectrum antibiotics

a)

False

b)

True

121.

_______ if the 4th most common cause of nosocomial blood stream infections.

a)

Candida

b)

Blastomyces

c)

Aspergillus

d)

Toxoplasma

122.

Which is azole resistant and is becoming a problem?

a)

C.krusei

b)

C.glabrata

c)

C.albicans

d)

C.lusitaniae

123.

Which is resistant to Amb?

a)

C.krusei

b)

C.glabrata

c)

C.albicans

d)

C.lusitaniae

124.

What is the initial therapy 1st line therapy for Candidiasis?

a)

Fluconazole

b)

Amphotericin B

c)

Voriconazole

125.

If a patient has moderate-severe disease and had recent use of azole therapy what can you use?

a)

Fluconazole

b)

Amphotericin B

c)

Voriconazole

d)

Echinocandins

126.

If a patient already tried using Fluconazole and Echinocandins what would be the alternative to treat for Candidiasis?

a)

Fluconazole

b)

Amphotericin B

c)

Voriconazole

d)

Echinocandins

127.

Which aspergillus species is the most common?

a)

Aspergillus fumigatus

b)

Aspergillus terreus

c)

Aspergillus hemophitus

d)

Aspergillus lumigatus

128.

Which aspergillus species is resistant to AmB?

a)

Aspergillus fumigatus

b)

Aspergillus terreus

c)

Aspergillus hemophitus

d)

Aspergillus lumigatus

129.

True or false: Early initiation of antifungal therapy in patients with strongly suspected invasive aspergillosis is warranted while diagnostic evaluation is conducted.

a)

True

b)

False

130.

True or false: without adequate therapy invasive pulmonary aspergillosis will always progress to fatal pneumonia.

a)

True

b)

False

131.

What is the primary treatment for someone with invasive pulmonary aspergillus?

a)

Voriconazole

b)

Fluconazole

c)

Bactrim

d)

Azithromycin

132.

True or false: Combination therapy is recommended for patients with invasive pulmonary aspergillosis.

a)

False

b)

True

133.

What is the primary treatment for someone with Aspergillus in the CNS?

a)

Voriconazole

b)

Fluconazole

c)

Bactrim

d)

Amphotericin B

134.

What are you looking for in patients with Aspergillus of CNS?

a)

Prolonged neutropenia

b)

Advanced HIV infection

c)

Inherited immunodeficiency

d)

Allogenic hematopoietic stem cell transplantation

e)

Recently on azole

135.

In a patient that has prolonged neutropenia what pathogen would you suspect?

a)

Aspergillus

b)

Candida

c)

Toxoplasma

d)

Blasomyces

e)

Histoplasma

136.

In a patient that has advanced HIV what pathogen would you suspect?

a)

Aspergillus

b)

Candida

c)

Toxoplasma

d)

Blasomyces

e)

Histoplasma

137.

In a patient that has inherited immunodeficiency what pathogen would you suspect?

a)

Aspergillus

b)

Candida

c)

Toxoplasma

d)

Blasomyces

e)

Histoplasma

138.

In a patient that has allogenic hematopoietic stem cell transplantation what pathogen would you suspect?

a)

Aspergillus

b)

Candida

c)

Toxoplasma

d)

Blasomyces

e)

Histoplasma

139.

Cryptococcosis is an opportunistic pathogen worldwide, it usually occurs in the lungs where else can the disease disseminate to?

a)

CNS

b)

Genitals

c)

Kidney

d)

Liver

e)

Blood

140.

How is cryptococcus transmitted?

a)

Bird poop

b)

Cat litter

c)

Uncooked meat

d)

Soil

141.

Which pathogen is common in Midwestern soil and when spores are inhaled can cause flu-like symptoms?

a)

Blastomycosis

b)

Toxoplasma

c)

Aspergillus

d)

Candida

142.

In a patient that you suspect may have a Blastomyces infection. What would be the treatment of choice for a mild-moderate infection?

a)

Itraconazole

b)

Fluconazole

c)

Bactrim

d)

None

143.

What is the duration of therapy for Blastomyces?

a)

7 days

b)

10 days

c)

6-12 months

d)

3-5 months

144.

Which bacteria is spread through bird and bat excretement?

a)

Histoplasmosis

b)

Blastomyces

c)

Toxoplasma

d)

Aspergillus

e)

Candida

145.

Which infection mostly occurs in US along the Ohio and Mississippi river valley?

a)

Histoplasmosis

b)

Blastomyces

c)

Toxoplasma

d)

Aspergillus

e)

Candida

146.

Which bacteria is common in the SW soil and also known as Valley Fever?

a)

Cocciodomycosis

b)

Blastomyces

c)

Aspergillus

d)

Candida

147.

how long does treatment last for coccidiodomycosis?

a)

3-6 months

b)

3-6 weeks

c)

7-10 days

d)

1 year

148.

Thrush is caused by which pathogen?

a)

C.albicans

b)

C.terreaneu

c)

C.fuminagus

d)

Aspergillus

149.

What are the therapies for Thrush (Oropharyngeal/esophageal candidiasis)?

a)

Clotrimazole 10mg Troche

b)

Nystatin 100,000 units/mL suspension

c)

Miconazole 100mg

d)

Fluconazole 150mg

150.

What is true about Vulvov

a)

It is very common occurs in 75% of females

b)

Do not recommend an OTC product

c)

Does not occur often

d)

Recommend douching

e)

OTC products are first line

151.

For a patient with Onychomycosis what is true?

a)

Extremely hard to treat

b)

Easy to treat

c)

Takes 48 weeks to treat

d)

Takes 7-10 days to treat

e)

Ciclopirox 8% nail lacquer can be applied