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Resource Program Speech Therapy Occupational Therapy

Total questions: 101

Worksheet time: 53mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What does an OT do in a school setting?

a)

Develop fine motor skills, activities of daily living and attention.

b)

Minimize barriers to learning

c)

Enable participation in school

d)

All of the above

2.

What tools can assist a student with pencil grasp?

a)

Have the teacher assistant help.

b)

Have the teacher do it.

c)

Have the OT do it

d)

Use a variety of pencil grasps.

3.

At what age is hand dominance estabilished?

a)

10

b)

7

c)

2

d)

9

4.

What are some strategies to increase pencil control?

a)

dot-to-dot activities

b)

Student traces over highlighted path

c)

Finger painting

d)

All of them

5.

What is the best position for the thumb when using scissors?

a)

Thumb Facing Up

b)

Thumb Facing Down

6.

OTs work in the following settings...

a)

Return to Work Programs

b)

Schools

c)

Mental Health

d)

all of these

7.

A therapy often used with children who have Autism Spectrum Disorder is called

a)

Biomechanical Therapy

b)

Motor Learning

c)

Cognitive Retraining

d)

Sensory Integration

8.

In OT, things you do every day are called

a)

Daily Routine

b)

Activities of Daily Living

c)

Rituals

d)

Daily Living Tasks

9.

How much do you fully understand the responsibilities and roles of an OT in a school setting?

a)

I only understand a little

b)

I feel comfortable in what I understand, but could learn more.

c)

I fully understand OTs and their profession

d)

I don't understand their roles

10.

What is an example of something an OT might recommend to improve a student's attention in a classroom setting?

4 lines
11.

What would be something an OT would recommend for a student struggling with proper grasp on a pencil?

4 lines
12.

An example of an adaptive equipment to assist a student in self-feeding

a)

a napkin

b)

a curved spoon or fork

c)

a spork

13.

Do you know where the therapy room is located in your school?

a)

Yes, it's the 'fun' room.

b)

No, I need to learn

14.

How do you translate "disorder"?

a)

ograniczenie

b)

zaburzenie

c)

upośledzenie

d)

zwyrodnienie

15.

How do you translate "injury"?

a)

uraz

b)

wypadek

c)

upadek

d)

stłuczenie

16.

How do you translate "swap"?

a)

zamieniać

b)

porzucić

c)

zniekształcać

d)

ucinać

17.

Is it true that speech therapy only affects children?

a)

Maybe

b)

Yes

c)

No

d)

I don't know

18.

What do speech therapists do?

a)

body injuries

b)

immune system

c)

writing poems

d)

speech and communication

19.

What factors influence speech damage in adults?

a)

age

b)

condition

c)

illness

d)

mood

20.

What disorders are treated by speech therapists?

a)

articulation, fluency, language, hearing

b)

receptive, communication, articulation, fluency

c)

expressive, hearing, language

d)

artiuclation, expressive, hearts

21.

How do you translate into English "odpowiednio, prawidłowo"?

a)

correct

b)

properly

c)

perfectly

d)

great

22.

How do you translate into English "zniekształcać"?

a)

change

b)

drop

c)

swap

d)

distort

23.

How do you translate into English "dokładny, precyzyjny"?

a)

properly

b)

exactly

c)

accurate

d)

perfectly

24.

How do you translate "merges"?

a)

przyłączyć

b)

łączyć

c)

rozdzielać

d)

rozłączyć

25.

What characterizes child of autism?

a)

no speech

b)

body trauma

c)

avoiding contact with others

d)

stress

26.

What's the best way to deal with speech disorders?

a)

consult a speech therapist

b)

sleep well

c)

change your diet

d)

practice yoga

27.

How do you translate "conveying"?

a)

odbieranie

b)

wyrażanie

c)

dawanie

d)

mówienie

28.

Is it true that injuries do not affect speech?

a)

Maybe

b)

Yes, it's true

c)

No, it's not true

d)

I don't know

29.

Is it true that speech therapy only affects children?

a)

Maybe

b)

Yes

c)

No

d)

I don't know

30.

What do speech therapists do?

a)

body injuries

b)

immune system

c)

writing poems

d)

speech and communication

31.

What factors influence speech damage in adults?

a)

age

b)

condition

c)

illness

d)

mood

32.

What disorders are treated by speech therapists?

a)

articulation, fluency, language, hearing

b)

receptive, communication, articulation, fluency

c)

expressive, hearing, language

d)

artiuclation, expressive, hearts

33.

What's the best way to deal with speech disorders?

a)

consult a speech therapist

b)

sleep well

c)

change your diet

d)

practice yoga

34.

Is it true that injuries do not affect speech?

a)

Maybe

b)

Yes, it's true

c)

No, it's not true

d)

I don't know

35.

Communication is the process of conveying information through

a)

Writing

b)

Tone and Intonation

c)

Facial Expressions

d)

Spoken Words

e)

All of the above

36.

What amount of communication is conveyed through body language?

a)

55%

b)

90%

c)

38%

d)

78%

37.

Speech Language Pathologists assess, diagnose, treat and help to prevent communication and _______________

a)

Mental Disorders

b)

Brain Disorders

c)

Hearing Disorders

d)

Swallowing Disorders

38.

Which is the most important skill to have to interact effectively with a variety of people

a)

Social Skills and Manners

b)

Good language skills

c)

Social competence

d)

Good Listening skills

39.

Which populations are at risk for swallowing difficulties (Click all that apply)

a)

Premature babies

b)

Elderly with or without neurogenic disorders

c)

Cancer patients

d)

Children with develpmental disabilities

40.
Is this high or low pitch?
a)
high
b)
low
41.

Stuttering is also referred to as?

a)

Slurring

b)

Stammering

c)

Spitting

d)

Slipping

42.

Solution used for IV fluid replacement fall into 2 categories

(i) Crytalloids

(ii) Colloids

a)

True

b)

False

43.

Crystalloids are solution with small molecules that flow easily from the bloodstream into the tissues. Examples: isotonic, hypotonic & hypertonic

a)

True

b)

False

44.

Choose which one is group under isotonic solution. Answer can be more than one!


Hint: Those that have an osmolality of 275 to 295 mOsm/L.

a)

Normal Saline

b)

Dextrose 5%

c)

Dextrose 10%

d)

Dextrose 5%/ Nacl 0.9%

45.

Hypertonic Solution. Choose which one is under them ! Answer can be more than 1.


Hint: Those that have greater osmolality than 295 mOsm/L.

a)

Dextrose 5% in 0.9% NaCl

b)

Dextrose 10%

c)

Ringer's Lactate

d)

Dextrose 5%

46.

Colloids also called as plasma expander. Example of colloids:

Answer can be more than 1.


Hint: When patient is on colloids infusion, they needs to be close monitoring.

a)

Albumins (5%, 25%)

b)

Gelafundine

c)

3% NaCl

d)

Mannitol 20%

47.

Doctor ordered: IV Dextrose 5% 500ml over 4 hours, using standard giving set (Drop factor: 20drop/ml).


How many drops per min should you deliver?

a)

200 drops/min

b)

250 drops/min

c)

300 drops/min

d)

350 drops/min

48.

Doctor order : IV Dextrose Saline 500ml over 6 hours, using burrette (chamber) set. Drop factor: 60 drops/mls.


How many drops/min should you deliver?

a)

300 drops/min

b)

330 drops/min

c)

290 drops/min

d)

280 drops/min

49.

Doctor order: IV Mannitol 20% 200mls stat, to run over 3 hours.


How much of mls/hr will you set in the infusion pump ?

a)

67 mls/hr

b)

60 mls/hr

c)

70 mls/hr

d)

65mls/hr

50.

Doctor order : 1 pint of IVD 3% NacL to be infuse over 12 hours. How many mls/hr will be deliver to the patient?


How much of mls/hr will you set in the infusion pump.

a)

41 mls/hr

b)

42 mls/hr

c)

40 mls/hr

d)

43 mls/hr

51.

Doctor order : IV Dextrose 50% 40mls stat to give in infusion pump over 10 mins, for one of your patient who sudden developed of hypoglycemia.


How much of delivery rate will you set in the infusion pump ?

a)

14 mls/hr

b)

140 mls/hr

c)

240 mls/hr

d)

340 mls/hr

52.

What are actions called that we control?

a)

voluntary actions

b)

involuntary actions

c)

biofeedback action

d)

mindfulness actions

53.

What are actions called that we don't control?

a)

voluntary actions

b)

involuntary actions

c)

biofeedback action

d)

mindfulness actions

54.

What kind of breathing is a biofeedback technique?

a)

deep breathing

b)

exhale breathing

c)

shallow breathing

d)

light breathing

55.

What is the biofeedback technique that evokes your senses?

a)

guided imagery

b)

progressive muscle relaxation

c)

deep breathing

d)

mindfulness meditation

56.

What kind of meditation is a type of biofeedback therapy?

a)

mindfullness

b)

quiet

c)

musical

d)

shared

57.

What controls our voluntary movement?

a)

our brain

b)

our nervous system

c)

our mouth

d)

our hands

58.

What controls our involuntary movement?

a)

our brain

b)

our nervous system

c)

our mouth

d)

our hands

59.

What is not a possible involuntary effect on your body?

a)

talking

b)

change in skin temperature

c)

raised blood pressure

d)

increased heart rate

60.

What is the type of therapy we read about in the article?

a)

biofeedback

b)

biography

c)

nervous system

d)

mindfullness

61.

How many biofeedback techniques did the article provide?

a)

4

b)

5

c)

3

d)

6

62.
Allocating time on the processor to individual processes is known as...
a)
CPU Scheduling
b)
CPU Timing
c)
CPU Clocking
d)
CPU Sorting
63.
A process is a...
a)
program in execution
b)
program on the hard drive
c)
high level program
d)
low level program 
64.

What scheduling algorithm assigns the CPU

to the process with the highest priority?

a)

FIFO

b)

SJF non preemptive

c)

SJF preemptive

d)

priority

65.

Which Scheduling algorithm allocates the

CPU first to the process that requests CPU first?

a)

First Come First serve scheduling

b)

shortest job scheduling

c)

priority scheduling

d)

none of the mentioned

66.

The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and waiting to execute are kept on a list called:

a)

job queue

b)

ready queue

c)

execution queue

d)

process queue

67.

CPU scheduling is the basis of ___________

a)

multiprocessor systems

b)

multiprogramming operating systems

c)

larger memory sized systems

d)

none of the mentioned

68.

Scheduling is done so as to ____________

a)

increase CPU utilization

b)

decrease CPU utilization

c)

keep the CPU more idle

d)

none of the mentioned

69.

Which algorithm is defined in Time quantum?

a)

shortest job scheduling algorithm

b)

round robin scheduling algorithm

c)

priority scheduling algorithm

d)

multilevel queue scheduling algorithm

70.

Once the CPU has been allocated to a process, the process keeps the CPU until it releases the CPU either by terminating or by switching to the waiting state.

a)

Nonpreemptive Scheduling

b)

Preemptive Scheduling

c)

Nonpreemptive & Preemptive Scheduling

d)

None of the above

71.

In this, the process that comes first will be executed first and next process starts only after the previous gets fully executed.

a)

First-come, first-serve

b)

Shortest-job-first scheduling

c)

Round-robin scheduling

d)

Priority scheduling

72.

This is scheduling policy that selects for execution the waiting process with the smallest execution time.

a)

First-come, first-serve

b)

Shortest-job first scheduling

c)

Round-robin scheduling

d)

Priority scheduling

73.

It is a CPU Scheduling algorithm where each process is assigned a fixed time slot in a cyclic way.

a)

First-come, first-serve

b)

Shortest-job-first scheduling

c)

Round-robin scheduling

d)

Priority scheduling

74.

What scheduling algorithm does Windows, Mac OS X, Linux, and UNIX are using?

a)

Nonpreemptive scheduling

b)

Preemptive scheduling

c)

First-come,first-serve scheduling

d)

Round robin scheduling

75.

What kind of chart is being used to illustrate scheduling?

a)

Gantt Chart

b)

Line Chart

c)

Doughnut Chart

76.

In multilevel feedback scheduling algorithm:

a)

a process can move to a different classified ready queue

b)

classification of ready queue is permanent

c)

processes are not classified into groups

d)

none of the mentioned

77.

A process is selected from the ______ queue by the ________ scheduler, to be executed.

a)

blocked, short term

b)

wait, long term

c)

ready, short term

d)

ready, long term

78.

Process are classified into different groups in

a)

shortest job scheduling algorithm

b)

round robin scheduling algorithm

c)

priority scheduling algorithm

d)

multilevel queue scheduling algorithm

79.

Assuming the above process being scheduled with the SJF scheduling algorithm:

a)

The waiting time for process D is 3 ms.

b)

The waiting time for process D is 0 ms.

c)

The waiting time for process D is 16 ms.

d)

The waiting time for process D is 9 ms.

80.

What is the average waiting time for all of these processes with the SJF scheduling algorithm?

a)

10.25 ms

b)

7 ms

c)

7.75 ms

d)

10 ms

81.

Which of the following scheduling algorithms gives minimum average waiting time?

a)

FCFS

b)

SJF

c)

Round Robin

d)

Priority

82.

Training can be defined as ________

a)

Organizational activities which aims to improve employee's current performance.

b)

Activities designed to decrease employee's motivation.

c)

Activities designed to help individual employee's grow.

d)

Organizational activities which aims to decrease the hotel's revenue.

83.

Development can be defined as ______________.

a)

Organizational activities which aims to improve current performance.

b)

Learning activities designed to help individual employee grow but which are not confined to a particular job.

c)

Designed to help group employees to deliver lower standard of service.

d)

Designed to decrease employee's job satisfaction.

84.

Which employees need training?

a)

Employees who received good compliments from guests.

b)

New employees, individuals who are transferred and promoted.

c)

Employees who perform their job satisfactorily.

d)

Employees who perform up selling.

85.

Terminal behavior in setting training objectives can be viewed as ___________________.

a)

The training objectives are not achievable.

b)

Employees are not fully participate in the training.

c)

Trainer must be able to clearly specify what trainee should be able to accomplish upon completion of training.

d)

Ignore any employees' performance problem.

86.

What is the benefit of training program?

a)

Training decreases employees' satisfaction.

b)

Training increases employees' productivity.

c)

Training decreases employees' motivation.

d)

Training increases employees' poor work-life balance.

87.

What are the goals of training program?

a)

Training program is designed either to change attitudes and ignore employees' skills and knowledge.

b)

Training program is designed either to ignore employee attitudes, ignore skills and impart knowledge.

c)

Training program is designed either to maintain the employee attitudes, develop skills and maintain the current knowledge.

d)

Training program is designed either to change attitudes, develop skills or impart knowledge.

88.

What are the training principles?

a)

The learner (employee) is not willing to learn.

b)

Learning must be fun and faster in teams.

c)

No feedback or knowledge of results from the trainer.

d)

Training are conducted in a stressful ways.

89.

_____ is learning activities designed to help individual employee to grow but which are not confined to a particular job

a)

Training

b)

Education

c)

Development

d)

Skills

90.

The first step in organizing a training program is

a)

Set learning objectives

b)

Identify training needs

c)

Design the program

d)

Evaluate the program

91.

The aim of the person analysis is to _____

a)

describe the desired outcome of the training

b)

determine the exact content of the training

c)

identify the employee who needs training

d)

set objectives for the employees who is being trained

92.

The following are benefits of training EXCEPT

a)

Increases employee's productivity

b)

Keep employees knowledge and skills up-to-date

c)

Help attract and retain talented employees

d)

Decreases employees' job satisfaction

93.

The following statements are TRUE about training EXCEPT

a)

Training are needed when hiring new employees

b)

Training is needed for newly promoted employees

c)

Training is needed when the law requires it

d)

Training can be used as a disciplinary action tool

94.

On-the-job training is suitable when ____

a)

the nature of work is dangerous

b)

work environment is noisy and distracting

c)

cross-training employees within the department

d)

expensive technology needs sensitive handling

95.

Training programs must be evaluate to ____

a)

ensure employees will not quit from the company

b)

ensure trainers are happy

c)

justify the financial investment in the training

d)

enhance the training facilities of the company

96.

Cost and benefits analysis is used to measure _____

a)

reaction to training

b)

training impact on organization

c)

how much employees have changed due to training

d)

the knowledge gained by trainees

97.

Training and development has _________ phases.

a)

4

b)

5

c)

6

d)

7

98.

The formal process of familiarizing new employees with the organization, their jobs, and their work units is called as ________.

a)

orientation

b)

onboarding

c)

cross-training

d)

team training

99.

The evaluation of the training program can be done through ________.

a)

behavioral change

b)

employer's reaction

c)

technological change

d)

customer preference

100.

_________ are used when it is either impractical or unwise to train employees on the actual equipment used on the job.

a)

job rotation

b)

e-learning

c)

simulations

d)

role-playing

101.

A training methods that give a chance for the trainee to act like a real worker in the created environment is called as _____.

a)

coaching

b)

role-playing

c)

behavior modelling

d)

blended learning