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Review of obstetric anesthesia block

Total questions: 30

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Regarding placental physiology, which one of the following drugs crosses the placenta in appreciable amounts?

a)

Atropine

b)

Glycopyrrolate

c)

Succinylcholine

d)

Vecuronium

e)

Heparin

2.

Well known gastrointestinal changes that occur during pregnancy include all of the following EXCEPT

a)

The combination of esophageal displacement into the thorax and progestin

result in a lowering of the lower esophageal sphincter tone

b)

A higher risk of gallbladder disease secondary to biliary stasis and an increased

secretion of bile

c)

Epidural anesthesia using local anesthetics only delays gastric emptying

d)

Gastric emptying of liquid and solid

materials is not altered during pregnancy

e)

Gastric emptying is slowed during labor

3.

Regarding placental transfer of d rugs, which one of the following favors increased maternal to fetal drug transfer?

a)

Molecular weight less than 1,000

Daltons

b)

Charged substance

c)

Lower portion of unionized drug in

maternal plasma

d)

Hydrophilic substance

e)

High bound drug fraction

4.

Well known endocrine changes that occur during pregnancy include all of the following EXCEP

a)

The thyroid gland enlarges during

pregnancy

b)

Free T3 and free T4 concentrations

remain unchanged

c)

Cortisol levels are increased during

pregnancy

d)

Estrogen induces an increase in thyroid-binding globulin which results in

a relative hyperthyroid state during

pregnancy

e)

pregnant patients are insulin resistant

primarily due to placental production of

lactogen

5.

The local anesthetic that attains the lowest fetal concentration relative to maternal concentration is

a)

lidocaine

b)

2-chloroprocaine

c)

bupivacaine

d)

ropivacaine

e)

mepivacaine

6.

Plasma cholinesterase concentrations during pregnancy are

a)

highest at term

b)

Increased

c)

Decreased to a degree not resulting in a

clinically significant prolongation of

succinylcholine

d)

unchanged from normal levels

e)

Decreased resulting in a clinically significant prolongation of amide type local

anesthetics

7.

During pregnancy, the disproportionate increase in plasma volume versus

erythrocyte volume accounts for

a)

Increase in the mean arterial pressure

b)

Increase in cardiac output

c)

Relative anemia of pregnancy

d)

Increase in stroke volume

8.

By the third trimester of pregnancy, cardiac output increases to nearly 50% due to which of these alterations?

a)

Increase in stroke volume and increase in heart rate

b)

Increase in stroke volume and decrease in heart rate

c)

Decrease in stroke volume and increase in heart rate

d)

Decrease in stroke volume and decrease in heart rate

9.

 

The largest increase in cardiac output is seen during this peripartum period:

a)

During induction of anesthesia

b)

Immediately after delivery

c)

At conception

d)

During the start of labor

10.

The correct respiratory physiologic change associated with pregnancy is

a)

Increase in arterial pH

b)

Increase in PaCO2

c)

Increase in HCO3

d)

Increase in tidal volume

11.

What is the P50 of fetal hemoglobin at term?

a)

12 mm Hg

b)

24 mm Hg

c)

18 mm Hg

d)

30 mm Hg

12.

Cardiac output increases dramatically during pregnancy and delivery . The

cardiac output returns to nonpregnant values by how long postpartum?

a)

12 hours

b)

2 weeks

c)

1 day

d)

6 months

13.

A 20-year-old G1 P0 female at 42 weeks of gestation presents to labor and delivery floor with rupture of membranes and onset of early labor. She appears uncomfortable and becomes extremely anxious with peripheral IV placement, and begins to hyperventilate. If allowed to continue hyperventilation, it will cause

a)

Increased placental perfusion

b)

Increased fetal arterial pH

c)

Decreased maternal arterial pH

d)

Decreased maternal uterine artery flow

14.

A 38- year-old obese patient is receiving subcutaneous low-molecular -weight

heparin (LMWH) for thromboprophylaxis. Her epidural for an elective cesarean delivery was placed 14 hours after the heparin was stopped. She developed Horner syndrome on the left side 30 minutes after placement of the epidural. On physical examination, a T4 anesthetic level is noted, but aside from the Horner syndrome no other findings are revealed. The most appropriate course of action at this time would be to

a)

Remove the epidural

b)

Obtain a computed tomographic scan

c)

Consult a neurosurgeon

d)

None of the above

15.

A 29- year -old gravida 1, para 0 woman at 8 weeks of gestation is to undergo

an emergency appendectomy under general anesthesia with isoflurane, N2O,

and oxygen. Which of the following is a proven untoward consequence of

general anesthesia in the unborn fetus ?

a)

Congenital heart disease

b)

Behavioral defects

c)

Cleft palate

d)

None of the above

16.

A lumbar epidural is placed in a 24- year -old gravida 1, para 0 parturient with

myasthenia gravis (MG) for labor. Select the TRUE statement regarding neonatal MG.

a)

The newborn is almost always affected with myasthenia

b)

The newborn may require anticholinesterase therapy for up to 4

weeks

c)

The newborn is affected by maternal immunoglobulin M (IgM)

antibodies

d)

The newborn will need lifelong treatment

17.

General anesthesia is induced in a 35- y ear -old patient for elective cesarean

section. No part of the glottic apparatus is visible after two unsuccessful

attempts to intubate, but mask ventilation is adequate. The most appropriate

step at this point would be to

a)

Wake up the patient

b)

Continue mask ventilation and cricoid pressure

c)

Use a laryngeal mask airway

d)

Attempt a blind nasal intubation

18.

The MOST common side effect of intraspinal narcotics in the obstetric

population is

a)

Pruritus

b)

Respiratory depression

c)

Nausea and vomiting

d)

Urinary retention

19.

A 110-kg , gravida 1, para 0 woman has a blood pressure of 180/95

during an office visit at the 16th week of gestation and 175/90 1 week later .

She has some ankle but no facial edema, and no protein detected in her urine.

Her serum creatinine is 1.2. These findings would be classified as

a)

Preeclampsia

b)

Chronic hypertension with superimposed preeclampsia

c)

Chronic hypertension

d)

Gestational hypertension

20.

Cesarean delivery is associated with a blood loss of about

a)

250 ml

b)

500 ml

c)

750 ml

d)

1000 ml

21.

Anesthetic considerations for open fetal surgery include all of the following

EXCEPT

a)

Uterine relaxation is essential

b)

Vecuronium at the ED95

dose of 0.04 mg/kg should be administered IM or IV by the obstetrician or surgeon if fetal

muscle relaxation is needed

c)

Normal fetal oxygen saturation is 50% to 70%

d)

Maternal hypotension (mean blood pressure < 65 mmHg) can be

treated with phenylephrine or ephedrine

22.

Aortocaval compression starts to become significant in a normal pregnancy at

how many weeks EGA?

a)

10 weeks

b)

15 weeks

c)

20 weeks

d)

25 weeks

23.

Which agent is the MOST useful for raising the gastric pH just before

induction of general anesthesia for emergency cesarean section?

a)

Ranitidine

b)

Metoclopramide

c)

Sodium citrate

d)

Magnesium hydroxide and aluminum hydroxide

24.

Agents that are useful for decreasing the incidence of shivering during

cesarean section under regional anesthesia or for treating shivering include all

of the following EXCEPT

a)

Administration of intrathecal local anesthetic with fentanyl

and/or morphine

b)

Administration of epidural local anesthetic solutions with

epinephrine

c)

Intravenous magnesium sulfate

d)

Intravenous meperidine

25.

True statements regarding inclusion of intrathecal morphine, fentanyl, or

sufentanil in obstetric anesthesia practice include each of the following

EXCEPT

a)

The chief site of action is the substantia gelatinosa of the dorsal horn of the spinal column

b)

Pain relief is adequate for the second stage of labor

c)

Lipophilic narcotics are associated with less respiratory

depression than nonlipophilic narcotics

d)

There is no motor and no sympathetic blockade

26.

A 20-year-old G1 P0 female at 42 weeks of gestation presents to labor and delivery floor with rupture of membranes and onset of early labor. She appears uncomfortable and becomes extremely anxious with peripheral IV placement, and begins to hyperventilate. If allowed to continue hyperventilation, it will cause

a)

Increased placental perfusion

b)

Increased fetal arterial pH

c)

Decreased maternal arterial pH

d)

Decreased maternal uterine artery flow

27.

Which of the following is TRUE regarding obstetric hemorrhage?

a)

Antepartum hemorrhage is associated only with abruptio placentae.

b)

The risk of placenta accreta in women with previa increases by 8% with each additional cesarean section.

c)

Delivery of a placenta previa pregnancy carries a <1% risk of maternal mortality.

d)

Postpartum hemorrhage is typically defined as blood loss greater than 2,000 mL following vaginal or cesarean section.

28.

Four hours postdelivery, and after the epidural is removed, the patient now requires emergent anesthesia for surgical removal of retained placental products. The appropriate anesthetic management includes all of the following, except

a)

General endotracheal inhaled anesthetic

b)

Antibiotic administration

c)

Sodium citrate

d)

Total intravenous anesthesia

29.

Postdural puncture headache (PDPH) occurs more frequently

a)

In elderly (>50 year old)

vs.

young patients

b)

With a cutting-point

vs.

pencil-point spinal needles

c)

In underweight

vs.

overweight patients

d)

With larger

vs.

smaller-gauge spinal needles

30.

Which condition BEST describes the third-trimester maternal condition with

the following signs and symptoms: new-onset vaginal bleeding that stops, no

pain, no fetal distress ?

a)

Placental abruption

b)

Uterine rupture

c)

Placenta previa

d)

Vasa previa