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WorksheetsAnatomy and physiology Derby's 9na edition
Total questions: 60
Worksheet time: 30mins
1. A sagittal MRI would visualize the body bisected into:
•A. Anterior and posterior portions
•B. Superior and inferior portions
•C. Right and left portions
•D. None of the above
2. Which cellular organelle synthesizes lipids and carbohydrates?
•A. Golgi complex
•B. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
•C. Lysosomes
•D. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
3.A solution that has a lower concentration of solutes than the cytosol inside the cell is said to be:
•A. Isotonic
•B. Hypertonic
•C. Hypotonic
•D. Stable
4. Which active transport process allows large molecules to leave the cell after being enclosed in membranous vesicles?
•A. Active transport pump
•B. Endocytosis
•C. Exocytosis
•D. Phagocytosis
5. Pyruvic acid is converted into acetyl coenzyme A (CoA) during which stage of cellular respiration?
•A. Glycolysis
•B. Citric acid cycle
•C. Electron transport
•D. Protein synthesis
6. A dental hygienist created a treatment plan and divided his patient´s oral cavity at the transverse plane. He plans to debride two quadrants per appointment (UR. Upper right: UL, upper left; LR, lower right; LL, lower left). Which quadrants will be treated at each scheduled appointment
•A. Appointment one: UR and LR: Appointment two: UL and LL.
•B. Appointment one: LR and LL: Appointment two: UR and UL.
•C. Appointment one: UR and LL: Appointment two: UL and LR
•D. Appointment one: all anterior teeth; appointment two: all posterior teeth
7. What type of enzyme fuctions to rearrange atoms within a molecule?
•A. Oxidation-readuction enzymes
•B. Mutases (isomearses)
•C. Hydrases
•D. Phosphorylating enzymes
8. Which membrane covers the outer surface of organs?
•A. Visceral serous membranes
•B. Mucous membranes
•C. Cutaneous membranes
•D. Parietal serous membranes
9. Which of the following is NOT a function of the integument?
•A. Regulation of body temperature
•B. Immunity
•C. Synthesis of vitamin D
•D. Storage of vitamin A
10. Which portion of a long bone contains the growth plate?
•A. Diaphysis
•B. Ediphysis
•C. Metaphysis
•D. Medullary cavity
11. Parathyroid hormone can result in increased blood calcium by stimulating these cells:
•A. Osteoblasts
•B. Osteocytes
•C. Osteoclasts
•D. Chondrocytes
12. Injury to which nerve has likely led to stacy´s symptoms of paresthesia and weakness in her thumb?
•A. Femoral nerve
•B. Median nerve
•C. Radial nerve
•D. Ulnar nerve
13. The carpometacarpal joint of the thumb can be categorized as which type of joint?
•A. Ball and socket
•B. Condyloid
•C. Gliding
•D. Saddle
14. Which long bone is located in the forearm, on the same side of the body as the thumb?
•A. Humerus
•B. Radius
•C. Scapula
•D. Ulna
15. One muscle that is affected in this case is called flexor policis longus, which directly performs the action of thumb flexion. For this function, this muscle is an example of what muscle action group?
•A. Antagonist
•B. Fixator
•C. Agonist
•D. Sunergist
16. Which neurotransmitter will stimulate contraction of skeletal muscle?
•A. Acetylcholine
•B. Gamma-aminobutaric acid (GABA)
•C. Dopamine
•D. Nitric oxide
17. All of the following may result from a disorder in calcium ion concentration EXCEPT:
•A. Faster transmission of nerve impulses
•B. Skeletal muscle weakness
•C. Abnormal bleeding
•D. Osteoporosis
18. Where do muscles that move the shoulder joint typicalle originate?
•A. In the foream
•B. In the palm
•C. On the trunk
•D. On the carpals
19. Binding of calcium to the regulatory domain of which protein induces a conformational change which causes the actives sites on action to be exposed?
•A. Tropomyosin
•B. Myosin
•C. Troponin
•D. Meromyosin
20. During which phase of muscle contraction is the sarcoplasmic reticulum trigged to release calcium?
•A. Latent phase
•B. Contraction phase
•C. Relaxation phase
•D. Tetanus
21. Which type of muscle contraction is an example of an isometric contraction?
•A. Biceps curl
•B. Pushing against a wall
•C. Sitting in a chair
•D. Walking sown tha stairs
22. ALL of the following characterize cadiarc muscle EXCEPT:
•A. T-tubules from dyads in the sarcoplasmic reticulum
•B. Contains parallel myofibrils
•C. Calcium binds to calmolin to stimulate contraction
•D. Operates as a continous, electrically coupled mass.
23. A demylination disorder that primarily impacts peripheral nerves would target which cells?
•A. Schwann cell
•B. Oligodendrocyte
•C. Astrocytes
•D. Neuron
24. During the relative refractory period, what can trigger an action potential?
•A. An action potential is not possible during this period
•B. A supra threshold stimulus
•C. A continous stimulus
•D. A sub threshold stimulus
25. A subdural hematoma would occur between which two structures?
•A. Dura mater and arachnoid
•B. Dura mater and pia
•C. Arachnoid and pia
•D. Pia and the spinal cord
26. A lesion in the medulla would impact which cranial nerve?
•A. CN III
•B. CN IV
•C. CN VII
•D. CN XII
27. The area of the brain is responsible for coordinating and regulating skeletal muscle movement and equilibrium
•A. Diencephalon
•B. Cerebellum
•C. Pons
•D. Medulla
28. Lesions to the prevertebral ganglia would interfere with the function of which organ?
•A. Stomach
•B. Heart
•C. Lungs
•D. Eye
29. An upper respiratory infection can spread via the eustachian tube from the nasopharynx to which anatomical space?
•A. Middle ear
•B. Inner ear
•C. External ear
•D. Middle cranial fossa
30. Cranial nerve VII is injured during an inferior alveolar nerve block that penetrates too deeply into the paratid gland. What would you expect to see as a consequence of that?
•A. Loss of somatic sensation of the posterior tongue
•B. Difficulty maintaining balance when walking
•C. Loss of taste sensation of the anterior tongue
•D. Loss of movement of facial muscles
31. A patient with acute pancreatitis is likely to have problems with:
•A. Digestion of proteins
•B. Digestion of fats
•C. Digestion of carbohydrates
•D. All the above
32. All the following describe a esteroid hormone EXCEPT:
•A. Can pass easily through plasma membranes
•B. Synthesized from amino acids
•C. Response time to esteroid hormones is slow
•D. Must bind to a receptor
33. All the following organs are targeted by tropic hormones produced in the hypotalamus EXCEPT
•A. Ovaries
•B. Thyroid gland
•C. Pancreas
•D. Adrenal cortex
34. When palpating the thyroid gland on a patient, where would you expect to find the isthmus of the thyroid gland in a healthy individual?
•A. Between the hyoid bone and the thyroid cartilage
•B. Directly beneath the manubrium of the sternum
•C. Between the mandible and the hyoid bone
•D. Inferior to the cricoid cartilage
35. What is a major function of natural killer (NK) cells?
•A. Target virus-infected cells and tumor cells
•B. Phagocytize gram negative bacteria
•C. Secrete antibodies
•D. Help active B cells
36. What is the corresponding effect on pressure in the alveolar and interpleural spaces as the volume of the thoracic cavity increases during inspiration?
•A. Alveolar pressure and intrapleural pressure both decrease
•B. Alveolar pressure and intrapleural pressure both increase
•C. Alveolar pressure and intrapleural pressure both increase
•D. Alveolar pressure increases but intrapleural pressure decreases
37. Metabolic alkalosis typically results in respiratory acidosis. The compensatory mechanism is hypoventilation
•A. Both statements are TRUE
•B. Both statements are FALSE
•C. The first statement is TRUE: the second statement is FALSE
•D. The first statement is FALSE, the second statement is TRUE
38. In the human body, where are naturally occuring coticosteroids produced?
•A. Adrenal cortex
•B. Adreanal medulla
•C. Anterior Pituitary
•D. Posterior pituitary
39. Input from what structure stimulates the medullary inspiratory center to increase the lenght and depths of respiration?
•A. Medullary expiratory center
•B. Apneustic center
•C. Pneumotaxic center
•D. respiratory pressor reflex
40. Sharon is having a hard time expelling air from her lungs during expiration. Which term refers to the total amount of air left the airways after a normal, passive expiration?
•A. Vital capacity
•B. Total lung capacity
•C. Functional residual capacity
•D. Tidal volume
41. What is a direct physiological effect of an increase in partial pressure of carbon dioxide (Pco2) in the arterial blood?
A. Breathing rate increases (becomes slower
•B. Heart rate increases (becomes slower)
•C. Arterial chemoreceptors are inhibited
•D. Arterial baroreceptors increase firing
42. Which term refers to gas exchange between blood and the aveoli?
•A. Alveolar ventilation
•B. External respiration
•C. Internal respiration
•D. Perfusion
43. Which of the following BEST describes this patient´s blood pressure?
•A. Blood pressure rate is considered prehypertensive, and she should be encouraged to see a physician
•B. Blood pressure rate is considered high, and she should be encouraged to see a physician
•c-. Blood pressure rate is considered too high, and she should not receive dental treatment until seen by a physician
•D. Blood pressure is within normal limits
44. If the aortic semilunar does not open properly, there is a decreate in the volume of blood that is ejected through the aorta. This has the most immediate consecuences for which heart chamber?
•A. Right atrium
•B. Right ventricle
•C. Left atrium
•D. Left ventricle
45. When listening to the patient´s heart with a stethoscope what does the second heart sound indicate?
•A. Opening of AV valves
•B. Closure of AV valves
•C. Opening of semilunar valves
•D. Closure of semilunar valves
46. The use of an anticogulant would lead to which of the following:
•A. Increased aggregation of platelets
B. Increased vitamin K synthesis
•C. Decreased fibrin formation
•D. Dcreased red blood cell formation
47. Decreased blood volume leaving the aorta leads to reduced blood pressure in the vessels of the head and neck. Decreased blood pressure increases baroreceptor firing.
A. Both statements are TRUE
•B. Both statements are FALSE
•C. The first statement is TRUE; the second statement is FALSE
•D. The first statement is FALSE; the second statement is TRUE
48. What specific prostaglands regulates platelet aggregation?
•A. Protaglandin A (PGA)
•B. Psotaglandin D (PGD)
•C. Protaglandin E (PGE)
•D. protaglandin F (PGF)
49. Which of immunoglobulin is the predominant antibody in external secretions of the mucous membranes?
•A. IgM
•B. IgG
•C. IgA
•D. IgE
50. Which is involved in maintaining posture?
•A. Muscular system
•B. Nervous system
•C. Respiratory system
•D. All the above are involved in maintaining posture
51. What receptor iniciates the sensation of pain?
•A. Meissner´s corpuscles
•B. Nociceptors
•C. Ruffini´s corpuscles
•D. Krause´s end bulbs
52. A herniated disc in the cervical region may affect innervation to muscles of the upper limb. A herniated disc in the region of the L1-L2 part of the spinal cord may affect the femoral nerve.
•A. Both statement are TRUE
•B. Both statements are FALSE
•C. The first statement is TRUE, the second statement os FALSE
•D. The first statement is FALSE, the second statement is TRUE
53. Which vertebrae have opening in their transverse processes for passage of the vertebral artery?
•A. Cervical vertebrae
•B. Throracic vertebrae
•C. Lumbar vertebrae
•D. Sacral vertebrae
54. Which reflex are involves involuntary contraction of skeletal muscle?
•A. Autonomic reflex
•B. Withdrawal reflex
•C. Somatic reflex
•D. Stretch reflex
55. What would the expected prothrombin time (PT) look like for a patient with poor liver function?
•A. Lower than normal
•B. Normal
•C. Higher than normal
•D. It would not be posiible to obtein PT
56. Which of the follwing will stimulate secretion of gastric juice in the stomach?
•A. Cholecystokinin
B. Presence of food in the duodenum
•C. Secretin
•D. Gastrin
57. Which of the following will result in increased urine production?
•A. ADH (antidiuretic hormone)
•B. Aldosterone
•C. ANP (atrial natriuretic peptide)
D. All of the above result in increasedurine production.
58. Glucose reabsorption occurs in which part of the nephron?
•A. Proximal convoluted tubule
•B. Loop of Henle
•C. Distal convoluted tubule
•D. Collecting ducts
59. Which structure is a reservoir for sperm and site of sperm maturation?
•A. Testis
•B. Epididymis
•C. Vas deferens
•D. Prostate gland
60. Hepatocytes in the liver are responsible for metabolism of drugs. The hepatic portal circulation bypasses the liver and brings blood directly to the inferior vena cava.
A. Both statements are TRUE
•B. Both statements are FALSE
•C. The first statement is TRUE; the second statement is FALSE
•D. The first statement is FALSE; the second statement id TRUE.
