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Cosmetology PSI Practice Exam 2

Total questions: 105

Worksheet time: 53mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Any product with a pH above 7, is considered:

a)

a) A base

b)

b) An alkaline

c)

c) Both A and B

d)

d) An acid

2.

Neutralizers, stabilizers, and fixatives, tend to fall where on the pH scale?

a)

a) At 7

b)

b) Above 7

c)

c) Below 7

d)

d) None of the above

3.

To temporarily and completely straighten kinky hair, you should do a:

a)

a) Soft press / Single Press

b)

b) Hard press / Double Press

c)

c) Soft perm

d)

d) Sodium hydroxide relaxer

4.

The most commonly used elevations in haircutting are:

a)

a) 0 degree and 45 degree

b)

b) 45 degree and 90 degree

c)

c) All of the above

d)

d) None of the above

5.

An angle below 90 degrees, is used primarily to:

a)

a) Decrease weight

b)

b) Build weight

c)

c) Decrease movement

d)

d) Increase movement

6.

Beveling is a hair cutting technique used to create:

a)

a) Fullness by cutting the ends at a slight taper

b)

b) A term for angle cutting

c)

c) Easily achieved with single notched shears

d)

d) Best achieved using double notched shears

7.

A “Blunt Cut”, is sometimes referred to as:

a)

a) One length

b)

b) Zero degree / elevation

c)

c) Solid form

d)

d) All of the above

8.

There are how many bones in the palm of your hand (metacarpus):

a)

a) Eight

b)

b) Five

c)

c) Fourteen

d)

d) Twenty Six

9.

A blunt cut is a good technique for use on:

a)

a) Thick hair

b)

b) Fine hair

c)

c) Curly hair

d)

d) Coarse hair

10.

Angles above 90 degrees are used to:

a)

a) Remove weight

b)

b) Add weight

c)

c) Build weight

d)

d) Both B and C

11.

A uniformed layered cut (same length throughout) is cut at what angle / degree:

a)

a) O

b)

b) 45

c)

c) 90

d)

d) 180

12.

How many bones aer found in the carpus / wrist?

a)

a) Five

b)

b) Twenty Six

c)

c) Fourteen

d)

d) Eight

13.

If your client wants a long-layered haircut, what angles / degrees would be appropriate to use: 

a)

a) 45 degrees

b)

b) 0 degrees

c)

c) 90 degrees

d)

d) 180 degrees

14.

Pidiculosis capitis is:

a)

a) Head lice

b)

b) Lice

c)

c) Ringworm

d)

d) The itch-mite

15.

Scabies is also referred to as a:

a)

a) Tinea

b)

b) Itch mite

c)

c) Lice

d)

d) None of the above

16.

Which angle / degree would create the longest possible layers in a client’s haircut?

a)

a) 45 degrees

b)

b) A combination of 45 and 90 degrees

c)

c) 90 degrees

d)

d) 180 degrees

17.

In haircutting, graduation means:

a)

a) Shorter exterior length, longer interior length

b)

b) Longer exterior length, shorter interior length

c)

c) 90 degrees at the nape, and a traveling guideline

d)

d) Longer perimeter, shorter exterior

18.

A haircut has 45 degree angle at crown and 180 angle at shoulders, this is an example of:

a)

a) Shorter exterior length, longer interior length

b)

b) Longer exterior length, shorter interior length

c)

c) 90 degrees at the nape, and a traveling guideline

d)

d) A type of haircut using a stationary guideline

19.

A guideline used mostly when you want to create a gradual increase in length or weight:

a)

a) Traveling

b)

b) Stationary

c)

c)Permanent

d)

d) Temporary

20.

A substance which dissolves another substance, with no change in its own composition:

a)

a) Solution

b)

b) Suspension

c)

c) Emulsion

d)

d) Solvent

21.

The term “solute” refers to:

a)

a) The dissolved substance

b)

b) The substance acting as the dissolver

c)

c) Either A or B

d)

d) None of the above

22.

A “hand-knotted, or hand-made, or hand-tied” wig is also referred to as:

a)

a) Cap wig

b)

b) Chignon

c)

c) Toupee

d)

d) Capless wig

23.

A machine made wig is generally a:

a)

a) Cap wig

b)

b) Capless wig

c)

c) Toupee

d)

d) Chignon

24.

Consists of rows of hair wefts, sewn to strips of elastic:

a)

a) Cap wig

b)

b) Capless wig

c)

c) Chignon

d)

d) Toupee

25.

Consists of elasticized mesh fibers to which the hair is attached:

a)

a) Cap wig

b)

b) Capless wig

c)

c) Chignon

d)

d) Toupee

26.

In hair cutting, the area above the parietal / crest is referred to as the:

a)

a) Exterior

b)

b) Interior

c)

c) Top

d)

d) None of the above

27.

In hair cutting, the area below the parietal / crest is referred to as the:

a)

a) Exterior

b)

b) Interior

c)

c) Top

d)

d) None of the above

28.

This is the widest portion of the head, sometimes referred to as the “crest area”:

a)

a) Occipital

b)

b) Procerus

c)

c) Frontalis

d)

d) Parietal

29.

Common “oil & vinegar” salad dressing is an example of a / an:

a)

a) Solution

b)

b) Suspension

c)

c) Emulsion

d)

d) Colloid

30.

If liquids cannot be mixed, they are said to be:

a)

a) Miscible

b)

b) Oil and water

c)

c) Immiscible

d)

d) None of the above

31.

An example of immiscible liquids is:

a)

a) Coffee and cream

b)

b) Alcohol and water

c)

c) Oil and water

d)

d) Milk and juice

32.

The term “Surfactant” is short for:

a)

a) Surface wetting agent

b)

b) Surface active ingredient

c)

c) Surface active emulsifier

d)

d) Surface active agent

33.

The tissue / skin surrounding the nail on three sides:

a)

a) Nail wall

b)

b) Nail groove

c)

c) Eponychium

d)

d) Perionychium

34.

The area from the nail root to the free edge, contains no blood vessels / nerves:

a)

a) Nail plate

b)

b) Nail bed

c)

c) Nail body

d)

d) Both A and C

35.

Onychophagy refers to:

a)

a) Bitten nails

b)

b) Split nails

c)

c) Club nails

d)

d) Brittle nails

36.

The technical term for bitten nails is:

a)

a) Pterygium

b)

b) Leukoderma

c)

c) Onychia

d)

d) Onychophagy

37.

Improper trimming of the toe-nails, or very tight shoes, may result in this:

a)

a) Athlete’s foot

b)

b) Onychophagy

c)

c) Perionychium

d)

d) Onychocryptosis

38.

Onychocryptosis is a condition that may result from:

a)

a) Excessively tight shoes

b)

b) Mold found in public showers

c)

c) Damage to the onychophagy

d)

d) Plantar warts

39.

Ingrown toe-nails are referred to as:

a)

a) Onycholysis

b)

b) Onychophagy

c)

c) Onychatrophia

d)

d) Onychocryptosis

40.

Which agency approves the efficacy of products used for infection control?

a)

a) Food and Drug Administration

b)

b) Environmental Protection Agency

c)

c) Department of Health

d)

d) State Board of Cosmetology

41.

Which governmental agency mandates the use of a P.D. Test prior to using aniline tints:

a)

a) The Environmental Protection Agency

b)

b) The Dept of Health, Education, and Welfare

c)

c) The Food and Drug Administration

d)

d) The National Board of Cosmetology

42.

If lost, how long will it take to grow a new nail plate / nail body:

a)

a) 1 - 2 months

b)

b) 2 - 4 months

c)

c) 3 - 6 months

d)

d) Cannot be re-generated / re-grown

43.

The tissue beneath the free edge of the nail (distal edge) is known as:

a)

a) Eponychium

b)

b) Hyponychium

c)

c) Perionychium

d)

d) Pterygium

44.

If a client has onychatrophia, which of the following would be inadvisable:

a)

a) An oil manicure

b)

b) A paraffin wax manicure

c)

c) Use of a metal pusher/file

d)

d) Performing any nail service

45.

The Latin, medical, and technical term for nails is:

a)

a) Onyx

b)

b) Pterygium

c)

c) Onychia

d)

d) Onychatrophia

46.

If a toe nail is lost / removed, approximately how long will it take to grow back?

a)

a) 1 - 2 months

b)

b) 3 - 6 months

c)

c) 8 months

d)

d) 9 - 12 months

47.

The nail root and nail matrix are located in this cup like structure:

a)

a) Nail root

b)

b) Nail mantle

c)

b) Nail matrix

d)

d) Nail pterygium

48.

If the technician causes bleeding during a manicure / pedicure, they should use:

a)

a) Hydrogen peroxide

b)

b) Styptic powder

c)

c) Styptic pencil

d)

d) Alcohol

49.

Once destroyed, which part of the nail will not grow again?

a)

a) Matrix or root

b)

b) Nail bed

c)

c) Nail wall

d)

d) Nail groove

50.

In an artificial nail service, the purpose of the “primer” is to:

a)

a) Promote faster drying

b)

b) Destroy bacteria and mold

c)

c) Promote better bonding

d)

d) Seal the natural nail

51.

In an artificial nail service, the purpose of the “primer” is to:

a)

a) Promote faster drying

b)

b) Destroy bacteria and mold

c)

c) Increase adhesion

d)

d) Seal the natural nail

52.

In an artificial nail service, the purpose of the “primer” is to:

a)

a) Promote faster drying

b)

b) Promote bonding and increase adhesion

c)

c) Increase adhesion

d)

d) Promote bonding

53.

In an artificial nail service, the function of the dehydrator is to:

a)

Fill ridges

b)

Decrease adhesion

c)

Remove oil & moisture

d)

Prevent chipping

54.

What is the correct method for removing artificial nails?

a)

a) Immerse in non-acetone, gently pull/lift off

b)

b) Immerse in acetone, then gently pull or lift off

c)

c) Clip to desired length then file / buff

d)

d) Buff or file to the real nail then use non-acetone to remove any residue

55.

This bacterial infection is responsible for pneumonia:

a)

a) Cocci

b)

b) Spirilla

c)

c) Bacilli

d)

d) Diplococci

56.

If your client has AIDS and is requesting a service, are you allowed to perform it?

a)

a) No

b)

b) Yes, with a doctor’s authorization

c)

c) Yes

d)

d) Depends upon your states laws

57.

Pediculosis capitis is:

a)

a) Head lice

b)

b) Lice

c)

c) Ringworm

d)

d) The itch-mite

58.

The bodies ability to fight off infection and disease is referred to as:

a)

a) Immunity

b)

b) Auto-immune system

c)

c) Integumentary system

d)

d) Antibodies

59.

Very dense hair will provide the best results in a permanent wave if wrapped with:

a)

a) Small rods with large blockings

b)

b) Larger rods with small blockings

c)

c) Small rods with a milder solution

d)

d) Small rods with small blockings

60.

Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS) works by breaking down the bodies:

a)

a) Pulmonary system

b)

b) Vascular system

c)

c) Immune system

d)

d) Circulatory system

61.

The study that deals with the functions of the body is:

a)

a) Biology

b)

b) Dermatology

c)

c) Physiology

d)

d) Anatomy

62.

When giving a manicure, how does the technician file the natural nails?

a)

a) Center to corner

b)

b) Corner to center

c)

c) Corner to corner

d)

d) Personal preference

63.

From weakest to strongest, which answer best describes decontamination:

a)

a) Sterilization, disinfection, sanitation

b)

b) Sanitation, disinfection, sterilization

c)

c) Disinfection, sanitation, sterilization

d)

d) Disinfection, sanitization, sterilization

64.

The highest level of decontamination is:

a)

a) Sanitation

b)

b) Disinfection

c)

c) Sterilization

d)

d) Hygiene

65.

A comedone extractor would be used to:

a)

a) Remove milia

b)

b) Remove blackheads

c)

c) Remove verrucas

d)

d) Remove warts

66.

The level of decontamination required for salons and spas is:

a)

a) Sterilization

b)

b) Sanitation

c)

c) Hygiene

d)

d) Disinfection

67.

Scabies is also known as:

a)

a) Lice

b)

b) Ringworm

c)

c) The itch-mite

d)

d) Athletes Foot

68.

Which of the following is not a manner to remove implements from a disinfectant tray?

a)

a) Tongs

b)

b) Basket

c)

c) Gloves

d)

d) Bare hands

69.

A process applying the decolorizer directly onto STYLED hair to produce a subtle effect:

a)

a) Highlighting

b)

b) Lowlighting

c)

c) Dimensional coloring

d)

d) Balayage

70.

An ultraviolet sanitizer provides an effective means of:

a)

a) Disinfecting implements

b)

b) Storing of dirty implements

c)

c) Sterilizing implements

d)

d) Storing disinfected implements

71.

In a double process color application, the lightener is followed by the application of a:

a)

a) Lift and deposit aniline derivative tint

b)

b) Temporary color

c)

c) Deposit only color

d)

d) Pre softener

72.

Derma is a term referring to:

a)

a) Hair

b)

b) Skin

c)

c) Nails

d)

d) None of the above

73.

A viral infection that attacks the liver:

a)

a) Dermatitis

b)

b) Hepatitis

c)

c) Meningitis

d)

d) Onygitis

74.

Black heads are referred to as:

a)

a) Milia

b)

b) Comedones

c)

c) Verruca

d)

d) Warts

75.

The pH of a permanent wave neutralizer is:

a)

a) Acid, pH between 3.0 – 5.0

b)

b) Acid, pH between 7.5 – 8.5

c)

c) Alkaline, pH between 8.2 – 9.6

d)

d) Acid, pH between 4.5 – 5.5

76.

Hair with its cuticle turned so that it all faces the same direction is known as:

a)

a) Remy hair

b)

b) Non-remy hair

c)

c) Turned hair

d)

d) Fallen hair

77.

The term “Fallen Hair”, refers to:

a)

a) Non-Remy hair

b)

b) Remy hair

c)

c) Hair that has fallen out in making the wig

d)

d) Synthetic hair

78.

Lanolin, a common ingredient in beauty products, is made from:

a)

a) Sheep’s wool

b)

b) Lambs wool

c)

c) Collagen

d)

d) A rooster’s comb

79.

If the rubber band used to securely close the perm rod is to close to the scalp, or if the perm rod is would excessively tightly, what could occur?

a)

a) Hair will be kinked

b)

b) Hair will break

c)

c) Curl will be weak

d)

d) Hair will be curlier than anticipated

80.

Client’s perm looked fine when she leaves salon. Days later, client returns with considerable breakage (about 1/2 inch to 2 inches from scalp). The likely cause is:

a)

a) Client did not wait 72 hours to wash hair

b)

b) Perm rods were wrapped to tightly

c)

c) Rubber band is twisted or, to close to scalp

d)

d) Both B and C

81.

Tinea is also known as:

a)

a) Ringworm

b)

b) The itch-mite

c)

c) Dandruff

d)

d) Onychophagy

82.

When mixed according to manufacturer’s directions, Quats will kill:

a)

a) Milia Rubra

b)

b) Vitiligo

c)

c) Tinea

d)

d) Bacteria

83.

The study that deals with the structures of the body is:

a)

a) Biology

b)

b) Dermatology

c)

c) Physiology

d)

d) Anatomy

84.

A substance is a basic unit of / a:

a)

a) Energy

b)

b) Molecule

c)

c) Conduction

d)

d) Matter

85.

An atom or molecule that carries an electrical charge:

a)

a) Cathode

b)

b) Anode

c)

c) Anion

d)

d) Ion

86.

An insulator is also known as:

a)

a) A conductor

b)

b) A non-conductor

c)

c) Either of the above

d)

d) None of the above

87.

The rays involved in sun tanning are:

a)

a) Infra red rays

b)

b) Ultra violet rays

c)

c) Tanning rays

d)

d) UVC rays

88.

Carpal refers to:

a)

a) The 14 knuckles of the hands

b)

b) The 14 knuckles of the feet

c)

c) The 28 knuckles of the hands & feet

d)

d) The 8 bones of the wrist

89.

When using a hot iron, curling the hair from the scalp towards the ends is referred to as:

a)

a) Piggyback

b)

b) Croquignole

c)

c) Halo

d)

d) None of the above

90.

The drawback/s of using phenols as disinfectants in the salon are:

a)

a) It is caustic

b)

b) It can burn your skin

c)

c) It will dry out and ruin plastic implements

d)

d) All of the above

91.

How many bones are found in the typical, adult, human body:

a)

a) 203

b)

b) 206

c)

c) 211

d)

d) None of the above

92.

Because a relaxer may leave the client’s head sensitive, you should rinse the hair with:

a)

a) Cold water

b)

b) Cool water

c)

c) Warm water

d)

d) Hot water

93.

______ is the highest form of decontamination:

a)

a) Sanitation

b)

b) Disinfection

c)

c) Decontamination

d)

d) Sterilization

94.

When applying false eyelash adhesive, it is advisable to do which of the following:

a)

a) Give a Patch Test and wait 24 hours

b)

b) Give a P.D. Test and wait 24 hours

c)

c) Give a Predisposition Test and wait 24 hrs

d)

d) All of the above

95.

Inflammation at the base of the nail or the cuticle is known as:

a)

a) Perionychium

b)

b) Paronychia

c)

c) Onychophagy

d)

d) Onychia

96.

An acid rinse can be used to do which of the following:

a)

a) Open the cuticle and add volume

b)

b) Close the cuticle and add shine

c)

c) Close the cuticle to add volume

d)

d) It will have a different effect on different hair

97.

Very dense hair will provide the best results in a permanent wave if wrapped with:

a)

a) Small rods with large blockings

b)

b) Larger rods with small blockings

c)

c) Small rods with a milder solution

d)

d) Small rods with small blockings

98.

Clients with _____________ pose special problems for the salon, especially if they are nipped during a manicure or pedicure:

a)

a) High blood pressure

b)

b) Pace makers

c)

c) Diabetes

d)

d) High cholesterol

99.

Paraffin is:

a)

a) Clay

b)

b) Mud

c)

c) Wax

d)

d) None of the above

100.

In a make-up application, which of the following products will tend to produce a more matte (non-shiny) finish:

a)

a) Water based liquid foundation

b)

b) Oil free liquid foundation

c)

c) Powder foundations

d)

d) All of the above

101.

Thinking back on your knowledge of anatomy, which type of gland is the sebaceous gland?

a)

a. nervous

b)

b. endocrine

c)

c. lymphatic

d)

d. exocrine

102.

What is the name of the bone that forms Jackie’s forehead?

a)

lacrimal

b)

frontal

c)

parietal

d)

zygomatic

103.

Which type of tissue binds and supports other body tissue? 

a)

nerve tissue

b)

muscle tissue

c)

connective tissue 

d)

epithelial tissue 

104.

What are the seven bones in the ankle area collectively called? 

a)

the metatarsals 

b)

the carpus 

c)

the tarsals

d)

the metacarpus 

105.

The glandlike structures in the immune system that filter bacteria, viruses, and cancer cells are called ______________.

a)

epithelial tissue 

b)

lymph nodes 

c)

cytoplasm

d)

adipose tissue