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Worksheets

Fundamental Quiz 7 - 8

Total questions: 259

Worksheet time: 2hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A nurse observes a patient rising from a chair slowly by pushing on the chair arms. Which type of tension and contraction did the nurse observe?

a)

Eccentric tension and isotonic contraction

b)

Eccentric tension and isometric contraction

c)

Concentric tension and isotonic contraction

d)

Concentric tension and isometric contraction

2.

A nurse notices that a patient has a structural curvature of the spine associated with vertebral rotation. Which condition will the nurse most likely find documented in the patient’s medical record?

a)

Scoliosis

b)

Arthritis

c)

Osteomalacia

d)

Osteogenesis

3.

A nurse is caring for a patient who is experiencing some symptoms related to arthritis. The nurse is teaching the patient about this process. Which information will the nurse include in the teaching session?

a)

This will affect synovial fluid.

b)

This will affect the body systemically.

c)

This involves mostly non–weight-bearing joints.

d)

This involves an increased risk for impaired weight bearing.

4.

The nurse providing care to a bedridden patient raises the height of the bed. What is the rationale for the nurse’s action?

a)

Narrows the nurse’s base of support.

b)

Allows the nurse to bring feet closer together.

c)

Prevents a shift in the nurse’s base of support.

d)

Shifts the nurse’s center of gravity farther away from the base of support.

5.

A nurse is following the no-lift policy when working to prevent personal injury from twisting. Which type of personal back injury is the nurse most likely trying to prevent?

a)

Thoracic

b)

Cervical

c)

Lumbar

d)

Sacral

6.

The nurse is caring for a patient in the emergency department with an injured shoulder. Which type of joint will the nurse assess?

a)

Fibrous

b)

Synovial

c)

Synergistic

d)

Cartilaginous

7.

The nurse is caring for a patient with inner ear problems. Which goal is the priority?

a)

Maintain balance.

b)

Maintain proprioception.

c)

Maintain muscle strength.

d)

Maintain body alignment.

8.

A nurse is teaching a health promotion class about isotonic exercises. Which types of exercises will the nurse give as examples?

a)

Swimming, jogging, and bicycling

b)

Tightening or tensing of muscles without moving body parts

c)

Quadriceps set exercises and contraction of the gluteal muscles

d)

Push-ups, hip lifting, pushing feet against a footboard on the bed

9.

An adolescent tells the nurse that a health professional said the fibrous tissue that connects bone and cartilage was strained in a sporting accident. On which structure will the nurse focus an assessment?

a)

Tendon

b)

Ligament

c)

Synergistic muscle

d)

Antagonistic muscle

10.

A nurse is developing an exercise plan for a middle-aged patient. In which order will the nurse instruct the patient to execute the plan, beginning with the first step?

1. Design the fitness program.

2. Assemble equipment.

3. Assess fitness level.

4. Monitor progress.

. Get started.

a)

5, 1, 3, 2, 4

b)

1, 2, 3, 5, 4

c)

2, 5, 3, 1, 4

d)

3, 1, 2, 5, 4

11.

The nurse gives instructions to a nursing assistive personnel (NAP) regarding exercise for a patient. Which action by the NAP indicates a correct understanding of the directions?

a)

Determines the patient’s ability to exercise.

b)

Teaches the patient how to do the exercises.

c)

Reports the patient got dizzy after exercising.

d)

Advises the patient to work through the pain.

12.

The nurse is starting an exercise program in a local community as a health promotion project. Which information will the nurse include in the teaching session?

a)

A cool-down period lasts about 5 to 10 minutes.

b)

The purpose of weight training is to bulk up muscles

c)

Resistance training is appropriate for warm-up and cool-down period

d)

Aerobic exercise should be done 3 to 5 times per week for about 20 minutes.

13.

The patient is eager to begin an exercise program with a 2-mile jog. The nurse instructs the patient to warm up. The patient does not want to waste time with a “warm-up.” Which information will the nurse share with the patient?

a)

The warm-up in this case can be done after the 2-mile jog.

b)

The warm-up prepares the body and decreases the potential for injury.

c)

The warm-up allows the body to readjust gradually to baseline functioning.

d)

The warm-up should be performed with high intensity to prepare for the coming

challenge.

14.

The nurse is caring for a patient who cannot bear weight but needs to be transferred from the bed to a chair. The nurse decides to use a transportable hydraulic lift. What action indicates the nurse is aware of appropriate hydraulic life use?

a)

Places a horseshoe-shaped base on the opposite side from the chair.

b)

Removes straps before lowering the patient to the chair.

c)

Hooks longer straps to the bottom of the sling.

d)

Attaches short straps to the bottom of the sling.

15.

The nurse is preparing to move a patient to a wheelchair. Which action indicates the nurse is following recommendations for safe patient handling?

a)

Mentally reviews the transfer steps before beginning.

b)

Uses own strength to transfer the patient.

c)

Focuses solely on body mechanics.

d)

Bases decisions on intuition.

16.

A nurse is working in a facility that follows a comprehensive safe patient-handling program. Which finding will alert the nurse to intervene?

a)

Mechanical lifts are in a locked closet.

b)

Algorithms for patient handling are available.

c)

Ergonomic assessment protocols are being followed.

d)

A no-lift policy is in place with adherence by all staff.

17.

The patient is brought to the emergency department with possible injury to the left shoulder. Which area will the nurse assess to best determine joint mobility?

a)

The patient’s gait

b)

The patient’s range of motion

c)

The patient’s ethnic influences

d)

The patient’s fine-motor coordination

18.

The nurse is evaluating care of a patient for crutches. Which finding indicates a successful outcome?

a)

The top of the crutch is three to four finger widths from the armpit.

b)

The elbows are slightly flexed at 30 to 35 degrees when the patient is standing.

c)

The tip of the crutch is 4 to 6 inches anterior to the front of the patient’s shoes.

d)

The position of the handgrips allows the axilla to support the patient’s body

weight.

19.

The patient reports being tired and weak and lacks energy. Upon assessment, the nurse finds that patient has gained weight, and blood pressure and pulse are elevated after climbing stairs. Which nursing diagnosis will the nurse add to the care plan?

a)

Fatigue

b)

Ineffective coping

c)

Activity intolerance

d)

Decreased cardiac output

20.

The patient weighs 450 lbs (204.5 kg) and reports shortness of breath with any exertion. The health care provider has recommended beginning an exercise program. The patient states that she can hardly get out of bed and just cannot do anything around the house. Which nursing diagnosis will the nurse add to the care plan?

a)

Activity intolerance related to excessive weight

b)

Impaired physical mobility related to bed rest

c)

Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements

d)

Impaired gas exchange related to shortness of breath

21.

A patient diagnosed with diabetes mellitus is starting an exercise program. Which types of exercises will the nurse suggest?

a)

Low intensity

b)

Low to moderate intensity

c)

Moderate to high intensity

d)

High intensity

22.

A patient is admitted after having experienced a stroke. The outcome of this disorder is uncertain, but the patient is unable to move the right arm and leg. The nurse starts passive range-of-motion (ROM) exercises. Which finding indicates successful goal achievement?

a)

Heart rate decreased.

b)

Contractures developed.

c)

Muscle strength improved.

d)

Joint mobility maintained.

23.

A nurse is assessing a patient with activity intolerance for possible orthostatic hypotension. Which finding will help confirm orthostatic hypotension?

a)

Blood pressure sitting 120/64; blood pressure 140/70 standing

b)

Blood pressure sitting 126/64; blood pressure 120/58 standing

c)

Blood pressure sitting 130/60; blood pressure 110/60 standing

d)

Blood pressure sitting 140/60; blood pressure 130/54 standing

24.

The nurse is teaching a patient how to use a cane. Which information will the nurse include in the teaching session?

a)

Place the cane at the top of the hip bone.

b)

Place the cane on the stronger side of the body.

c)

Place the cane in front of the body and then move the good leg.

d)

Place the cane 10 to 15 inches in front of the body when walking.

25.

A nurse is assisting the patient to perform isometric exercises. Which action will the nurse take?

a)

Encourage wearing tight shoes.

b)

Set the pace for the exercise session.

c)

Stop the exercise if pain is experienced.

d)

Force muscles or joints to go just beyond resistance.

26.

The nurse is developing a plan of care for a patient diagnosed with activity intolerance. Which strategy will the nurse use to provide the best chance of maintaining patient compliance?

a)

Performing 20 minutes of aerobic exercise 7 days a week with 10-minute warm-up

and cool-down periods

b)

Instructing the patient to use an exercise log to record day, time, duration, and

responses to exercise activity

c)

Stressing the harm of not exercising by getting the patient to take responsibility for

current health status

d)

Arranging for the patient to join a gym that takes self-pay rather than insurance

27.

The nurse is preparing to transfer an uncooperative patient who does not have upper body strength. Which piece of equipment will be best for the nurses to obtain?

a)

Drawsheet

b)

Full body sling

c)

Overhead trapeze

d)

Friction-reducing slide sheet

28.

The nurse is teaching a patient how to sit with crutches. In which order will the nurse present the instructions starting with the first step?

1. Place both crutches in one hand.

2. Grasp arm of chair with free hand.

3. Completely lower self into chair.

4. Transfer weight to crutches and unaffected leg.

a)

4, 1, 2, 3

b)

1, 4, 2, 3

c)

1, 2, 4, 3

d)

4, 2, 1, 3

29.

The nurse is caring for a group of patients. Which patient will the nurse see first?

a)

A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease doing stretching exercises

b)

A patient with diabetes mellitus carrying hard candy while doing exercises

c)

A patient with a heart attack doing isometric exercises

d)

A patient with hypertension doing Tai Chi exercises

30.

A nurse is preparing to move a patient who is able to assist. Which principles will the nurse

consider when planning for safe patient handling? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Face the direction of the movement.

b)

Use proper body mechanics.

c)

Use arms and legs.

d)

Keep the body’s center of gravity high.

31.

A nurse is assessing activity tolerance of a patient. Which areas will the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Skeletal abnormalities

b)

Emotional factors

c)

Pregnancy status

d)

Age

32.

A nurse is working in a facility that uses no-lift policies. Which benefits will the nurse observe in the facility? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Reduced number of work-related injuries

b)

Improved health of nurses

c)

Increased musculoskeletal accidents

d)

Reduced safety of patients

33.

A nurse writes the following outcomes for a patient who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease to improve activity level: Diastolic blood pressure will remain below 70 mm Hg with systolic below 130 mm Hg. Resting heart rate will range between 65 and 75. The last goal is that the patient will exercise 3 times a week. Which evaluative findings indicate successful goal achievement? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Resting heart rate 70

b)

Blood pressure 126/64

c)

Reports doing resistive training 1 time and aerobics 2 times this week

d)

Blood pressure 140/90

34.

A 55-year-old patient is preparing to start an exercise program. The health care provider wants 60% of maximum target heart rate. Calculate the heart rate that the nurse will add to the care plan as the target heart rate. Record answer as a whole number. _________ maximum heart rate

a)

89

b)

99

c)

109

d)

209

35.

A nurse is preparing to provide hygiene care. Which principle should the nurse consider when planning hygiene care?

a)

Hygiene care is always routine and expected.

b)

No two individuals perform hygiene in the same manner.

c)

It is important to standardize a patient’s hygienic practices.

d)

During hygiene care do not take the time to learn about patient needs.

36.

A patient’s hygiene schedule of bathing and brushing teeth is largely influenced by family customs. For which age group is the nurse most likely providing care?

a)

Adolescent

b)

Preschooler

c)

Older adult

d)

Adult

37.

The patient has been diagnosed with diabetes. When admitted, the patient is unkempt and is in need of a bath and foot care. When questioned about hygiene habits, the nurse learns the patient takes a bath once a week and a sponge bath every other day. To provide ultimate care for this patient, which principle should the nurse keep in mind?

a)

Patients who appear unkempt place little importance on hygiene practices.

b)

Personal preferences determine hygiene practices and are unchangeable.

c)

The patient’s illness may require teaching of new hygiene practices.

d)

All cultures value cleanliness with the same degree of importance.

38.

The nurse is caring for a patient who refuses to bathe in the morning. When asked why, the patient says “I always bathe in the evening.” Which action by the nurse is best?

a)

Defer the bath until evening and pass on the information to the next shift.

b)

Tell the patient that daily morning baths are the “normal” routine.

c)

Explain the importance of maintaining morning hygiene practices.

d)

Cancel hygiene for the day and attempt again in the morning.

39.

A nurse is completing an assessment of the patient. Which principle is a priority?

a)

Foot care will always be important.

b)

Daily bathing will always be important.

c)

Hygiene needs will always be important.

d)

Critical thinking will always be important.

40.

When providing hygiene for an older-adult patient, the nurse closely assesses the skin. What is the rationale for the nurse’s action?

a)

Outer skin layer becomes more resilient

b)

Less frequent bathing may be required.

c)

Skin becomes less subject to bruising

d)

Sweat glands become more active.

41.

The nurse is bathing a patient and notices movement in the patient’s hair. Which action will the nurse take?

a)

Use gloves to inspect the hair.

b)

Apply a lindane-based shampoo immediately.

c)

Shave the hair off of the patient’s head

d)

Ignore the movement and continue.

42.

The patient has been brought to the emergency department following a motor vehicle accident. The patient is unresponsive. The driver’s license states that glasses are needed to operate a motor vehicle, but no glasses were brought in with the patient. Which action should the nurse take next?

a)

Stand to the side of the patient’s eye and observe the cornea.

b)

Conclude that the glasses were lost during the accident.

c)

Notify the ambulance personnel for missing glasses.

d)

Ask the patient where the glasses are.

43.

A nurse is assessing a patient’s skin. Which patient is most at risk for impaired skin integrity?

a)

A patient who is afebrile

b)

A patient who is diaphoretic

c)

A patient with strong pedal pulses

d)

A patient with adequate skin turgor

44.

The nurse caring for a patient who is immobile frequently checks for impaired skin integrity. What is the rationale for the nurse’s action?

a)

Inadequate blood flow leads to decreased tissue ischemia.

b)

Patients with limited caloric intake develop thicker skin.

c)

Pressure reduces circulation to affected tissue.

d)

Verbalization of skin care needs is decreased.

45.

The nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with diabetes mellitus and circulatory insufficiency, who is also experiencing peripheral neuropathy and urinary incontinence. On which areas does the nurse focus care?

a)

Decreased pain sensation and increased risk of skin impairment

b)

Decreased caloric intake and accelerated wound healing

c)

High risk for skin infection and low saliva pH level

d)

High risk for impaired venous return and dementia

46.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has undergone surgery for a broken leg and has a cast in place. What should the nurse do to prevent skin impairment?

a)

Assess surfaces exposed to the edges of the cast for pressure areas.

b)

Keep the patient’s blood pressure low to prevent overperfusion of tissue.

c)

Do not allow turning in bed because that may lead to re-dislocation of the leg.

d)

Restrict the patient’s dietary intake to reduce the number of times on the bedpan.

47.

Which action by the nurse will be the most important for preventing skin impairment in a mobile patient with local nerve damage?

a)

Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.

b)

Limit caloric and protein intake.

c)

Turn the patient every 2 hours.

d)

Assess for pain during a bath.

48.

After performing foot care, the nurse checks the medical record and discovers that the patient has a disorder on the sole of the foot caused by a virus. Which condition did the nurse most likely observe?

a)

Corns

b)

A callus

c)

Plantar warts

d)

Athlete’s foot

49.

The nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with diabetes who is reporting severe foot pain due to corns. The patient has been using oval corn pads to self-treat the corns. Which information will the nurse share with the patient?

a)

Corn pads are an adequate treatment and should be continued.

b)

The patient should avoid soaking the feet before using a pumice stone.

c)

The current self-treatment is likely impeding with circulation to the toes.

d)

Tighter shoes would help to compress the corns and make them smaller.

50.

The patient diagnosed with athlete’s foot (tinea pedis) states that he is relieved because it is only athlete’s foot, and it can be treated easily. Which information about this condition should the nurse consider when formulating a response to the patient?

a)

It is contagious with frequent recurrences.

b)

It is most helpful to air-dry feet after bathing

c)

It is treated with salicylic acid.

d)

It is caused by lice.

51.

When assessing a patient’s feet, the nurse notices that the toenails are thick and separated from the nail bed. What does the nurse most likely suspect is the cause of this condition?

a)

Fungi

b)

Friction

c)

Nail polish

d)

Nail polish remover

52.

The nurse is providing education about the importance of proper foot care to a patient diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. Which primary goal is the nurse trying to achieve?

a)

Prevention of plantar warts

b)

Prevention of foot fungus

c)

Prevention of neuropathy

d)

Prevention of amputation

53.

The nurse is providing oral care to an unconscious patient and notes that the patient has extremely bad breath. Which term will the nurse use when reporting to the oncoming shift?

a)

Cheilitis

b)

Halitosis

c)

Glossitis

d)

Dental caries

54.

The nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with diabetes. Which task will the nurse assign to the nursing assistive personnel?

a)

Providing nail care

b)

Teaching foot care

c)

Making the patient’s bed

d)

Determining aspiration risk

55.

The patient is being treated for cancer with weekly radiation therapy to the head and intravenous chemotherapy treatments. Which assessment is the priority?

a)

Feet

b)

Nail beds

c)

Perineum

d)

Oral cavity

56.

The nurse is providing oral care to an unconscious patient. Which action should the nurse take to protect the patient from injury?

a)

Moisten the mouth using lemon-glycerin sponges.

b)

Hold the patient’s mouth open with gloved fingers.

c)

Use foam swabs to help remove plaque.

d)

uction the oral cavity.

57.

The nurse is teaching the patient about flossing and oral hygiene. Which instruction will the nurse include in the teaching session?

a)

Using waxed floss prevents bleeding

b)

Flossing removes plaque and tartar from the teeth

c)

Performing flossing at least 3 times a day is beneficial

d)

Applying toothpaste to the teeth before flossing is harmful

58.

The nurse is teaching the parents of a child who has head lice (pediculosis capitis). Which information will the nurse include in the teaching session?

a)

Treatment is use of regular shampoo.

b)

Products containing lindane are most effective.

c)

Head lice may spread to furniture and other people.

d)

Manual removal is not a realistic option as treatment.

59.

A patient has scaling of the scalp. Which term will the nurse use to report this finding to the oncoming staff?

a)

Dandruff

b)

Alopecia

c)

Pediculosis

d)

Xerostomia

60.

A nurse is providing a bath. In which order will the nurse clean the body, beginning with the first area?

1. Face

2. Eyes

3. Perineum

4. Arm and chest

5. Hands and nails

6. Back and buttocks

7. Abdomen and legs

a)

1, 2, 5, 4, 7, 6, 3

b)

2, 1, 4, 5, 7, 3, 6

c)

2, 1, 5, 4, 6, 7, 3

d)

1, 2, 4, 5, 3, 7, 6

61.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has multiple ticks on lower legs and body. What should the nurse do to rid the patient of ticks?

a)

Use blunt tweezers and pull upward with steady pressure.

b)

Burn the ticks with a match or small lighter.

c)

Allow the ticks to drop off by themselves.

d)

Apply miconazole and cover with plastic.

62.

The nurse is providing oral care to a patient. In which order will the nurse clean the oral cavity, starting with the first area?

1. Roof of mouth, gums, and inside cheek

2. Chewing and inner tooth surfaces

3. Outer tooth surfaces

4. Tongue

a)

4, 1, 3, 2

b)

3, 2, 4, 1

c)

2, 3, 1, 4

d)

1, 4, 2, 3

63.

The nurse is caring for an older-adult patient diagnosed with Alzheimer’s disease who is ambulatory but requires total assistance with activities of daily living (ADLs). The nurse notices that the patient is edentulous. Which area should the nurse assess?

a)

Assess oral cavity.

b)

Assess room for drafts.

c)

Assess ankles for edema.

d)

Assess for reduced sensations.

64.

A self-sufficient bedridden patient is unable to reach all body parts. Which type of bath will the nurse assign to the nursing assistive personnel?

a)

Bag bath

b)

Sponge bath

c)

Partial bed bath

d)

Complete bed bath

65.

The nurse is preparing to provide a complete bed bath to an unconscious patient. The nurse decides to use a bag bath. In which order will the nurse clean the body, starting with the first area?

1. Neck, shoulders, and chest

2. Abdomen and groin/perineum

3. Legs, feet, and web spaces

4. Back of neck, back, and then buttocks

5. Both arms, both hands, web spaces, and axilla

a)

5, 1, 2, 3, 4

b)

1, 5, 2, 3, 4

c)

1, 5, 2, 4, 3

d)

5, 1, 2, 4, 3

66.

The female nurse is caring for a male patient who is uncircumcised but not ambulatory and has full function of all extremities. The nurse is providing the patient with a partial bed bath. How should perineal care be performed for this patient?

a)

Should be postponed because it may cause embarrassment.

b)

Should be unnecessary because the patient is uncircumcised.

c)

should be done by the patient.

d)

Should be done by the nurse.

67.

A nursing assistive personnel (AP) is providing AM care to patients. Which action by the NAP will require the nurse to intervene?

a)

Not offering a backrub to a patient with fractured ribs

b)

Not offering to wash the hair of a patient with neck trauma

c)

Turning off the television while giving a backrub to the patient

d)

Turning patient’s head with neck injury to side when giving oral care

68.

A nurse is providing AM care to patients. Which action will the nurse take?

a)

Soaks feet of patient with peripheral vascular disease.

b)

Applies CHG solution to wash perineum of patient with a stroke.

c)

Cleanses eye from outer canthus to inner canthus of patient with diabetes.

d)

Uses long, firm stroke to wash legs of patient with blood-clotting disorder.

69.

The nurse is providing a complete bed bath to a patient using a commercial bath cleansing pack (bag bath). What should the nurse do?

a)

Rinse the skin thoroughly.

b)

Allow the skin to air-dry.

c)

Avoid using a bath towel.

d)

Dry the skin with a towel.

70.

A nurse is providing perineal care to a female patient. Which washing technique will the nurse use?

a)

Cleansing from back to front

b)

Washing using a circular motion

c)

Cleansing from pubic area to rectum

d)

Cleansing upward from rectum to pubic area

71.

Which instruction will the nurse provide to the nursing assistive personnel when providing foot care for a patient with diabetes?

a)

Do not place slippers on the patient’s feet.

b)

Trim the patient’s toenails daily.

c)

Report sores on the patient’s toes.

d)

Check the brachial artery.

72.

The debilitated patient is resisting attempts by the nurse to provide oral hygiene. Which action will the nurse take next?

a)

Insert an oral airway.

b)

Place the patient in a flat, supine position.

c)

Use undiluted hydrogen peroxide as a cleaner.

d)

Quickly proceed while not talking to the patient.

73.

A nurse is providing oral care education to a patient with stomatitis. Which instructions will the nurse provide?

a)

Avoid commercial mouthwashes.

b)

Avoid normal saline rinses.

c)

Brush with a hard toothbrush.

d)

Brush with an alcohol-based toothpaste.

74.

The nurse is teaching a patient about contact lens care. Which instructions will the nurse include in the teaching session?

a)

Use tap water to clean soft lenses.

b)

Wash and rinse lens storage case daily.

c)

Reuse storage solution for no longer than a week.

d)

Keep the lenses is a cool dry place when not being used.

75.

The patient reports to the nurse about a perceived decrease in hearing. When the nurse examines the patient’s ear, a large amount of cerumen buildup at the entrance to the ear canal is observed. Which action will the nurse take next?

a)

Teach the patient how to use cotton-tipped applicators.

b)

Tell the patient to use a bobby pin to extract earwax.

c)

Apply gentle, downward retraction of the ear canal.

d)

Instill hot water into the ear canal to melt the wax.

76.

The patient is being fitted with a hearing aid. In teaching the patient how to care for the hearing aid, which instructions will the nurse provide?

a)

Change the battery every day or as needed.

b)

Adjust the volume for a talking distance of 1 yard.

c)

Wear the hearing aid 24 hours per day except when sleeping.

d)

Wear the hearing aid 24 hours per day except when sleeping.

77.

The patient is reporting an inability to clear nasal passages. Which action will the nurse take?

a)

Use gentle suction to prevent tissue damage.

b)

Instruct patient to blow nose forcefully to clear the passage.

c)

Place a dry washcloth under the nose to absorb secretions.

d)

Insert a cotton-tipped applicator to the back of the nose.

78.

A patient uses an in-the-canal hearing aid. Which assessment is a priority?

a)

Eyeglass usage

b)

Cerumen buildup

c)

Type of physical exercise

d)

Excessive moisture problems

79.

The nurse is caring for a patient with cognitive impairments. Which actions will the nurse take during AM care? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Administer ordered analgesic 1 hour before bath time.

b)

Increase the frequency of skin assessment.

c)

Reduce triggers in the environment.

d)

Be as quick as possible.

80.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has peripheral neuropathy. Which clinical manifestations does the nurse expect to find upon assessment? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Abnormal gait

b)

Foot deformities

c)

Muscle wasting of lower extremities

d)

Absent or decreased pedal pulses

81.

A nurse is providing hygiene care to a bariatric patient using chlorhexidine gluconate (CHG) wipes. Which actions will the nurse take? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Do not rinse.

b)

Clean under breasts.

c)

Inform that the skin will feel sticky.

d)

Use two wipes for each area of the body.

82.

Which patients will the nurse determine are in most need of regular perineal care? (Select all that apply.)

a)

A patient with rectal and genital surgical dressings

b)

A patient with urinary and fecal incontinence

c)

A patient who has an indwelling catheter

d)

A bariatric patient

83.

The patient must stay in bed for a bed change. Which actions will the nurse implement? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Advise patient will feel a lump when rolling over

b)

Turn clean pillowcase inside out over the hand holding it

c)

Make a modified mitered corner with sheet, blanket, and spread.

d)

Apply sterile gloves.

84.

A nurse is teaching staff about the conduction of the heart. In which order will the nurse present the conduction cycle, starting with the first structure?

1. Bundle of His

2. Purkinje network

3. Intraatrial pathways

4. Sinoatrial (SA) node

5. Atrioventricular (AV) node

a)

5, 4, 3, 2, 1

b)

4, 3, 5, 1, 2

c)

4, 5, 3, 1, 2

d)

5, 3, 4, 2, 1

85.

A nurse is teaching the patient with mitral valve problems about the valves in the heart. Starting on the right side of the heart, describe the sequence of the blood flow through these valves.

1. Mitral

2. Aortic

3. Tricuspid

4. Pulmonic

a)

1, 3, 2, 4

b)

4, 3, 2, 1

c)

3, 4, 1, 2

d)

2, 4, 1, 3

86.

A nurse explains the function of the alveoli to a patient with respiratory problems. Which information about the alveoli’s function will the nurse share with the patient?

a)

Carries out gas exchange.

b)

Regulates tidal volume.

c)

Produces hemoglobin.

d)

Stores oxygen.

87.

A nurse auscultates heart sounds. When the nurse hears S2, which valves is the nurse hearing close?

a)

Aortic and mitral

b)

Mitral and tricuspid

c)

Aortic and pulmonic

d)

Mitral and pulmonic

88.

The nurse is teaching about the process of exchanging gases through the alveolar capillary membrane. Which term will the nurse use to describe this process?

a)

Ventilation

b)

Surfactant

c)

Perfusion

d)

Diffusion

89.

A nurse is caring for a patient who was in a motor vehicle accident that resulted in cervical trauma to C4. Which assessment is the priority?

a)

Pulse

b)

Respirations

c)

Temperature

d)

Blood pressure

90.

The patient is breathing normally. Which process does the nurse consider is working properly when the patient inspires?

a)

Stimulation of chemical receptors in the aorta

b)

Reduction of arterial oxygen saturation levels

c)

Requirement of elastic recoil lung properties

d)

Enhancement of accessory muscle usage

91.

The home health nurse recommends that a patient with respiratory problems install a carbon monoxide detector in the home. What is the rationale for the nurse’s action?

a)

Carbon monoxide detectors are required by law in the home.

b)

Carbon monoxide tightly binds to hemoglobin, causing hypoxia.

c)

Carbon monoxide signals the cerebral cortex to cease ventilations.

d)

Carbon monoxide combines with oxygen in the body and produces a deadly toxin.

92.

While performing an assessment, the nurse hears crackles in the patient’s lung fields. The nurse also learns that the patient is sleeping on three pillows to help with the difficulty breathing during the night. Which condition will the nurse most likely observe written in the patient’s medical record?

a)

Atrial fibrillation

b)

Myocardial ischemia

c)

Left-sided heart failure

d)

Right-sided heart failure

93.

A patient has experienced a myocardial infarction. On which primary blood vessel will the nurse focus care to reduce ischemia?

a)

Superior vena cava

b)

Pulmonary artery

c)

Coronary artery

d)

Carotid artery

94.

A nurse is teaching a health class about the heart. Which information from the class members indicates teaching by the nurse is successful for the flow of blood through the heart, starting in the right atrium?

a)

Right ventricle, left ventricle, left atrium

b)

Left atrium, right ventricle, left ventricle

c)

Right ventricle, left atrium, left ventricle

d)

Left atrium, left ventricle, right ventricle

95.

The nurse suspects the patient has increased cardiac afterload. Which piece of equipment should the nurse obtain to determine the presence of this condition?

a)

Pulse oximeter

b)

Oxygen cannula

c)

Blood pressure cuff

d)

Yankauer suction tip catheter

96.

Myocardial contractility  myocardial blood flowA patient has been diagnosed with heart failure and cardiac output is decreased. Which formula can the nurse use to calculate cardiac output?

a)

Myocardial contractility x myocardial blood flow

b)

Ventricular filling time/diastolic filling time

c)

stroke volume x heart rate

d)

Preload/afterload

97.

A patient’s heart rate increased from 94 to 164 beats/min. What will the nurse expect as a result?

a)

Increase in diastolic filling time

b)

Decrease in hemoglobin level

c)

Decrease in cardiac output

d)

Increase in stroke volume

98.

Which determination is the nurse trying to achieve by monitoring a patient’s cardiac output?

a)

Peripheral extremity circulation

b)

Oxygenation requirements

c)

Presence of cardiac dysrhythmias

d)

Ventilation status

99.

A nurse is caring for a group of patients. Which patient should the nurse see first?

a)

a patient with hypercapnia wearing oxygen mask

b)

A patient with a chest tube ambulating with the chest tube unclamped

c)

A patient with thick secretions being tracheal suctioned first and then orally

d)

A patient with a new tracheostomy and tracheostomy obturator at bedside

100.

A patient has inadequate stroke volume related to decreased preload. Which treatment does the nurse prepare to administer?

a)

Diuretics

b)

Vasodilators

c)

Chest physiotherapy

d)

Intravenous (IV) fluids

101.

A nurse is preparing to suction a patient. The pulse is 65 and pulse oximetry is 94%. Which finding will cause the nurse to stop suctioning?

a)

Pulse 75

b)

Pulse 80

c)

Oxygen saturation 91%

d)

Oxygen saturation 88%

102.

The patient is experiencing right-sided heart failure. Which finding will the nurse expect when performing an assessment?

a)

Peripheral edema

b)

Basilar crackles

c)

Chest pain

d)

Cyanosis

103.

A nurse is reviewing the electrocardiogram (ECG) results. Which portion of the conduction system does the nurse consider when evaluating the P wave?

a)

SA node

b)

AV node

c)

Bundle of His

d)

Purkinje fibers

104.

A nurse teaches a patient about atelectasis. Which statement by the patient indicates an understanding of atelectasis?

a)

“Atelectasis affects only those with chronic conditions such as emphysema.”

b)

“It is important to do breathing exercises every hour to prevent atelectasis.”

c)

“If I develop atelectasis, I will need a chest tube to drain excess fluid.”

d)

“Hyperventilation will open up my alveoli, preventing atelectasis.”

105.

The nurse is caring for a patient with respiratory problems. Which assessment finding indicates a late sign of hypoxia?

a)

Elevated blood pressure

b)

Increased pulse rate

c)

Restlessness

d)

Cyanosis

106.

A nurse is caring for a 5-year-old patient whose temperature is 101.2° F. The nurse expects this patient to hyperventilate. Which factor does the nurse remember when planning care for this type of hyperventilation?

a)

Anxiety over illness

b)

Decreased drive to breathe

c)

Increased metabolic demands

d)

Infection destroying lung tissues

107.

A nurse is preparing a patient for nasotracheal suctioning. In which order will the nurse perform the steps, beginning with the first step? 1. Insert catheter. 2. Apply suction and remove.

3. Have patient deep breathe.

4. Encourage patient to cough.

5. Attach catheter to suction system.

6. Rinse catheter and connecting tubing

a)

1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6

b)

4, 5, 1, 2, 3, 6

c)

5, 3, 1, 2, 4, 6

d)

3, 1, 2, 5, 4, 6

108.

A patient is experiencing carbon dioxide retention from lung problems. Which type of diet will the nurse most likely suggest for this patient?

a)

Moderate-carbohydrate

b)

Low-caffeine

c)

High-caffeine

d)

High-carbohydrate

109.

A nurse caring for a patient prescribed warfarin discovers that the patient is taking garlic to help with hypertension. Which condition will the nurse assess for in this patient?

a)

Increased cholesterol level

b)

Distended jugular vein

c)

Bleeding

d)

Angina

110.

Upon auscultation of the patient’s chest, the nurse hears a whooshing sound at the fifth intercostal space. What does this finding indicate to the nurse?

a)

The beginning of the systolic phase

b)

Regurgitation of the mitral valve

c)

The opening of the aortic valve

d)

Presence of orthopnea

111.

A nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is receiving 2 L/min of oxygen. Which oxygen delivery device is most appropriate for the nurse to administer the oxygen?

a)

Nasal cannula

b)

Simple face mask

c)

Non-rebreather mask

d)

Partial non-rebreather mask

112.

The nurse plans to closely monitor the oxygen status of an older-adult patient undergoing anesthesia because of which age-related change?

a)

Thinner heart valves cause lipid accumulation and fibrosis.

b)

Diminished respiratory muscle strength may cause poor chest expansion

c)

Alterations in mental status prevent patients’ awareness of ineffective breathing.

d)

An increased number of pacemaker cells make proper anesthesia induction more

difficult.

113.

The nurse determines that an older-adult patient is at risk for infection due to decreased immunity. Which plan of care best addresses the prevention of infection for the patient?

a)

Inform the patient of the importance of finishing the entire dose of antibiotics.

b)

Encourage the patient to stay up-to-date on all vaccinations.

c)

Schedule patient to get annual tuberculosis skin testing.

d)

Create an exercise routine to run 45 minutes every day.

114.

The nurse is caring for a patient experiencing fluid volume overload. Which physiological effect does the nurse most likely expect?

a)

Increased preload

b)

Increased heart rate

c)

Decreased afterload

d)

Decreased tissue perfusion

115.

A nurse is caring for a patient prescribed continuous cardiac monitoring for heart dysrhythmias. Which rhythm will cause the nurse to intervene immediately?

a)

Ventricular tachycardia

b)

Atrial fibrillation

c)

Sinus rhythm

d)

Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia

116.

The patient is experiencing angina pectoris. Which assessment finding does the nurse expect when conducting a history and physical examination?

a)

Experiences chest pain after eating a heavy meal.

b)

Experiences adequate oxygen saturation during exercise.

c)

Experiences crushing chest pain for more than 20 minutes.

d)

Experiences tingling in the left arm that lasts throughout the morning.

117.

StressWhich risk factor for cardiopulmonary disease should the nurse describe as modifiable?

a)

Stress

b)

Allergies

c)

Family history

d)

Gender

118.

The nurse is creating a plan of care for an obese patient who is experiencing fatigue related to ineffective breathing. Which intervention best addresses a short-term goal the patient could achieve?

a)

Sleeping on two to three pillows at night

b)

Sensibly reducing daily calorie intake

c)

Running 30 minutes every morning

d)

Stopping smoking immediately

119.

A patient experiencing left-sided hemiparesis has developed bronchitis and has a heart rate of 105 beats/min, blood pressure of 156/90 mm Hg, and respiration rate of 30 breaths/min. Which nursing diagnosis is a priority?

a)

Risk for skin breakdown

b)

Impaired gas exchange

c)

Activity intolerance

d)

Risk for infection

120.

Which nursing intervention is most effective in preventing hospital-acquired pneumonia in an older-adult patient?

a)

Discontinue the humidification delivery device to keep excess fluid from lungs.

b)

Monitor oxygen saturation, and frequently auscultate lung bases.

c)

Assist the patient to cough, turn, and deep breathe every 2 hours.

d)

Decrease fluid intake to 300 mL a shift.

121.

The nurse is assessing a patient diagnosed with emphysema. Which assessment finding requires further follow-up with the health care provider?

a)

Increased anterior-posterior diameter of the chest

b)

Accessory muscle used for breathing

c)

Clubbing of the fingers

d)

Hemoptysis

122.

A patient diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) asks the nurse why clubbing occurs. Which response by the nurse is most therapeutic?

a)

“Your disease doesn’t send enough oxygen to your fingers.”

b)

“Your disease affects both your lungs and your heart, and not enough blood is

being pumped.”

c)

“Your disease will be helped if you pursed-lip breathe.”

d)

“Your disease often makes patients lose mental status.”

123.

A patient experiencing a pneumothorax has a chest tube inserted and is placed on low constant suction. Which finding requires immediate action by the nurse?

a)

The patient reports pain at the chest tube insertion site that increases with

movement.

b)

Fifty milliliters of blood gushes into the drainage device after the patient coughs.

c)

No bubbling is present in the suction control chamber of the drainage device.

d)

Yellow purulent discharge is seen leaking out from around the dressing site.

124.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has had a tracheostomy tube inserted. Which nursing intervention is most effective in promoting effective airway clearance?

a)

Suctioning respiratory secretions several times every hour

b)

Administering humidified oxygen through a tracheostomy collar

c)

Instilling normal saline into the tracheostomy to thin secretions before suctioning

d)

Deflating the tracheostomy cuff before allowing the patient to cough up secretions

ANS: B

125.

The nurse is educating a student nurse on caring for a patient with a chest tube. Which statement from the student nurse indicates successful learning?

a)

“I should clamp the chest tube when giving the patient a bed bath.”

b)

“I should report if I see continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber.”

c)

“I should strip the drains on the chest tube every hour to promote drainage.”

d)

“I should notify the health care provider first, if the chest tube becomes dislodged.”

126.

Which coughing technique will the nurse use to help a patient clear central airways?

a)

Huffv

b)

Quad

c)

Cascade

d)

Incentive spirometry

127.

The nurse is suctioning a patient with a tracheostomy tube. Which action will the nurse take?

a)

Set suction regulator at 150 to 200 mm Hg.

b)

Limit the length of suctioning to 10 seconds.

c)

Apply suction while gently rotating and inserting the catheter.

d)

Liberally lubricate the end of the suction catheter with a water-soluble solution.

128.

The nurse is caring for a patient who is prescribed oxygen via a nasal cannula. Which task can the nurse delegate to the nursing assistive personnel?

a)

Applying the nasal cannula

b)

Adjusting the oxygen flow

c)

Assessing lung sounds

d)

Setting up the oxygen

129.

The nurse is using a closed suction device. Which patient will be most appropriate for this suctioning method?

a)

A 5 year old with excessive drooling from epiglottitis

b)

A 5 year old with an asthma attack following severe allergies

c)

A 24 year old with a right pneumothorax following a motor vehicle accident

d)

A 24 year old with acute respiratory distress syndrome requiring mechanical

ventilation

130.

While the nurse is changing the ties on a tracheostomy collar, the patient coughs, dislodging the tracheostomy tube. Which action will the nurse take first?

a)

Press the emergency response button.

b)

Insert a spare tracheostomy with the obturator.

c)

Manually occlude the tracheostomy with sterile gauze.

d)

Place a face mask delivering 100% oxygen over the nose and mouth.

131.

A nurse is following the How-to Guide to prevent ventilator-associated pneumonia. Which strategies is the nurse using? ( select all that apply )

a)

Daily oral care with chlorhexidine

b)

Delirium monitoring

c)

Daily “sedation vacations”

d)

Heart failure prophylaxis

132.

A nurse is teaching a community health promotion class and discusses the flu vaccine. Which information will the nurse include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.)

a)

It is given yearly.

b)

It is given in a series of four doses.

c)

It is safe for adults with acute febrile illnesses.

d)

The vaccines are recommended for all people 6 months and older.

133.

A nurse is caring for a patient being treated for sleep apnea. Which types of ventilator support should the nurse be prepared to administer for this patient? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Bilevel positive airway pressure (BiPAP)

b)

Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)

c)

Assist-control (AC)

d)

Synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV)

134.

A patient is experiencing dehydration. While planning care, the nurse considers that the majority of the patient’s total water volume exists in with compartment?

a)

Intracellular

b)

Extracellular

c)

Intravascular

d)

Transcellular

135.

The nurse is teaching about the process of passively moving water from an area of lower particle concentration to an area of higher particle concentration. Which process is the nurse describing?

a)

Osmosis

b)

Filtration

c)

Diffusion

d)

Active transport

136.

The nurse observes edema in a patient who is experiencing venous congestion as a result of right heart failure. Which type of pressure facilitated the formation of the patient’s edema?

a)

Osmotic

b)

Oncotic

c)

Hydrostatic

d)

Concentration

137.

The nurse administers an intravenous (IV) hypertonic solution to a patient expects the fluid shift to occur in what direction?

a)

From intracellular to extracellular

b)

From extracellular to intracellular

c)

From intravascular to intracellular

d)

From intravascular to interstitial

138.

A nurse is preparing to start peripheral intravenous (IV) therapy. In which order will the nurse perform the steps starting with the first one?

1. Clean site.

2. Select vein.

3. Apply tourniquet.

4. Release tourniquet.

5. Reapply tourniquet.

6. Advance and secure.

7. Insert vascular access device.

a)

1, 3, 2, 7, 5, 4, 6

b)

1, 3, 2, 5, 7, 6, 4

c)

3, 2, 1, 5, 7, 6, 4

d)

3, 2, 4, 1, 5, 7, 6

139.

The nurse is laboratory blood results will expect to observe which cation in the most abundance?

a)

Sodium

b)

Chloride

c)

Potassium

d)

Magnesium

140.

The nurse receives the patient’s most recent blood work results. Which laboratory value is of greatest concern?

a)

Sodium of 145 mEq/L

b)

Calcium of 15.5 mg/dL

c)

Potassium of 3.5 mEq/L

d)

Chloride of 100 mEq/L

141.

The nurse observes that the patient’s calcium is elevated. When checking the phosphate level, what does the nurse expect to see?

a)

An increase

b)

A decrease

c)

Equal to calcium

d)

No change in phosphate

142.

Four patients arrive at the emergency department at the same time. Which patient will the nurse see first?

a)

An infant with temperature of 102.2° F and diarrhea for 3 days

b)

A teenager with a sprained ankle and excessive edema

c)

A middle-aged adult with abdominal pain who is moaning and holding her stomach

d)

An older adult with nausea and vomiting for 3 days with blood pressure 112/60

143.

The patient has an intravenous (IV) line and the nurse needs to remove the gown. In which order will the nurse perform the steps, starting with the first one?

1. Remove the sleeve of the gown from the arm without the IV.

2. Remove the sleeve of the gown from the arm with the IV.

3. Remove the IV solution container from its stand.

4. Pass the IV bag and tubing through the sleeve.

a)

1, 2, 3, 4

b)

2, 3, 4, 1

c)

3, 4, 1, 2

d)

4, 1, 2, 3

144.

A 2-year-old child has ingested a quantity of a medication that causes respiratory depression. For which acid-base imbalance will the nurse most closely monitor this child?

a)

Respiratory alkalosis

b)

Respiratory acidosis

c)

Metabolic acidosis

d)

Metabolic alkalosis

145.

A patient is admitted for a bowel obstruction and has had a nasogastric tube set to low intermittent suction for the past 3 days. Which arterial blood gas values will the nurse expect to observe?

a)

Respiratory alkalosis

b)

Metabolic alkalosis

c)

Metabolic acidosis

d)

Respiratory acidosis

146.

Which blood gas result will the nurse expect to observe in a patient with respiratory alkalosis?

a)

pH 7.60, PaCO2 40 mm Hg, HCO3 – 30 mEq/L

b)

pH 7.53, PaCO2 30 mm Hg, HCO3 – 24 mEq/L

c)

pH 7.35, PaCO2 35 mm Hg, HCO3 – 26 mEq/L

d)

pH 7.25, PaCO2 48 mm Hg, HCO3 – 23 mEq/L

147.

A nurse is caring for a patient whose electrocardiogram (ECG) presents with changes characteristic of hypokalemia. Which assessment finding will the nurse expect?

a)

Dry mucous membranes

b)

Abdominal distention

c)

Distended neck veins

d)

Flushed skin

148.

In which patient will the nurse expect to see a positive Chvostek’s sign?

a)

A 7-year-old child admitted for severe burns

b)

A 24-year-old adult admitted for chronic alcohol abuse

c)

A 50-year-old patient admitted for an acute exacerbation of hyperparathyroidism

d)

A 75-year-old patient admitted for a broken hip related to osteoporosis

149.

A patient is experiencing respiratory acidosis. Which organ system is responsible for compensation in this patient?

a)

Renal

b)

Endocrine

c)

Respiratory

d)

Gastrointestinal

150.

A nurse is caring for a patient prescribed peripheral intravenous (IV) therapy. Which task will the nurse assign to the nursing assistive personnel?

a)

Recording intake and output

b)

Regulating intravenous flow rate

c)

Regulating intravenous flow rate

d)

Changing a peripheral intravenous dressing

151.

The nurse is caring for a diabetic patient in renal failure who is in metabolic acidosis. Which laboratory findings are consistent with metabolic acidosis?

a)

pH 7.3, PaCO2 36 mm Hg, HCO3 – 19 mEq/L

b)

pH 7.5, PaCO2 35 mm Hg, HCO3 – 35 mEq/L

c)

pH 7.32, PaCO2 47 mm Hg, HCO3 – 23 mEq/L

d)

pH 7.35, PaCO2 40 mm Hg, HCO3 – 25 mEq/L

152.

The nurse is assessing a patient and notes crackles in the lung bases and neck vein distention. Which action will the nurse take first?

a)

Offer calcium-rich foods

b)

Administer diuretic.

c)

Raise head of bed.

d)

Increase fluids.

153.

A patient receiving chemotherapy has gained 5 pounds in 2 days. Which assessment question by the nurse is most appropriate?

a)

“Are you following any weight loss program?”

b)

“How many calories a day do you consume?”

c)

“Do you have dry mouth or feel thirsty?”

d)

“How many times a day do you urinate?”

154.

The health care provider has ordered a hypotonic intravenous (IV) solution to be administered. Which IV bag will the nurse prepare?

a)

0.45% sodium chloride (1/2 NS)

b)

0.9% sodium chloride (NS)

c)

Lactated Ringer’s (LR)

d)

Dextrose 5% in Lactated Ringer’s (D5LR)

155.

The health care provider asks the nurse to monitor the fluid volume status of a heart failure patient and a patient at risk for clinical dehydration. Which is the most effective nursing intervention for monitoring both of these patients?

a)

Assess the patients for edema in extremities

b)

Ask the patients to record their intake and output.

c)

Weigh the patients every morning before breakfast

d)

Measure the patients’ blood pressures every 4 hours.

156.

A nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with cancer who presents with anorexia, blood pressure 100/60, and elevated white blood cell count. Which primary purpose for starting total parenteral nutrition (TPN) will the nurse add to the care plan?

a)

Stimulate the patient’s appetite to eat

b)

Deliver antibiotics to fight off infection

c)

Replace fluid, electrolytes, and nutrients.

d)

Provide medication to raise blood pressure.

157.

A patient presents to the emergency department with reports of vomiting and diarrhea for the past 48 hours. The health care provider orders isotonic intravenous (IV) therapy. Which IV will the nurse prepare?

a)

0.225% sodium chloride (1/4 NS)

b)

0.45% sodium chloride (1/2 NS)

c)

0.9% sodium chloride (NS)

d)

3% sodium chloride (3% NaCl)

158.

A nurse administering a diuretic to a patient is teaching about foods to increase in the diet. Which food choices by the patient will best indicate successful teaching?

a)

Milk and cheese

b)

Potatoes and fresh fruit

c)

Canned soups and vegetables

d)

Whole grains and dark green leafy vegetables

159.

The nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of the intravenous fluid therapy in a patient with hypernatremia. Which finding indicates goal achievement?

a)

Urine output increases to 150 mL/hr.

b)

Systolic and diastolic blood pressure decreases.

c)

Serum sodium concentration returns to normal.

d)

Large amounts of emesis and diarrhea decrease.

160.

The nurse is calculating intake and output on a patient. The patient drinks 150 mL of orange juice at breakfast, voids 125 mL after breakfast, vomits 250 mL of greenish fluid, sucks on 60 mL of ice chips, and for lunch consumes 75 mL of chicken broth. Which totals for intake and output will the nurse document in the patient’s medical record?

a)

Intake 255; output 375

b)

Intake 285; output 375

c)

Intake 505; output 125

d)

Intake 535; output 125

161.

Which assessment finding should cause a nurse to further assess for extracellular fluid volume deficit?

a)

Moist mucous membranes

b)

Postural hypotension

c)

Supple skin turgor

d)

Pitting edema

162.

A patient is to receive 1000 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride intravenously at a rate of 125 mL/hr. The nurse is using microdrip gravity drip tubing. Which rate will the nurse calculate for the minute flow rate (drops/min)?

a)

12 drops/min

b)

24 drops/min

c)

. 125 drops/min

d)

150 drops/min

163.

A nurse begins infusing a 250-mL bag of IV fluid at 1845 on Monday and programs the pump to infuse at 50 mL/hr. At what time should the infusion be completed?

a)

2300 Monday

b)

2345 Monday

c)

0015 Tuesday

d)

0045 Tuesday

164.

A nurse caring for a diabetic patient with a bowel obstruction has orders to ensure that the volume of intake matches the output. In the past 4 hours, the patient received dextrose 5% with 0.9% sodium chloride through a 22-gauge catheter infusing at 150 mL/hr and has eaten 200 mL of ice chips. The patient also has an NG suction tube set to low continuous suction that had 300-mL output. The patient has voided 400 mL of urine. After reporting these values to the health care provider, which order does the nurse anticipate?

a)

Add a potassium supplement to replace loss from output.

b)

Decrease the rate of intravenous fluids to 100 mL/hr

c)

Administer a diuretic to prevent fluid volume excess

d)

Discontinue the nasogastric suctioning.

165.

A nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving peripheral intravenous (IV) therapy. When the nurse is flushing the patient’s peripheral IV, the patient reports pain. Upon assessment, the nurse notices a red streak that is warm to the touch. What is the nurse’s initial action?

a)

Record a phlebitis grade of 4.

b)

Assign an infiltration grade.

c)

Apply moist compress.

d)

Discontinue the IV

166.

A nurse is assisting the health care provider in inserting a central line. Which action indicates the nurse is following the recommended bundle protocol to reduce central line-associated bloodstream infections (CLABSI)?

a)

Preps skin with povidone-iodine solution.

b)

Suggests the femoral vein for insertion site

c)

Applies double gloving without hand hygiene

d)

Uses chlorhexidine skin antisepsis prior to insertion.

167.

The nurse is caring for a group of patients. Which patient will the nurse see first?

a)

A patient with D5W hanging with the blood

b)

A patient with type A blood receiving type O blood

c)

A patient with intravenous potassium chloride that is diluted

d)

A patient with a right mastectomy and an intravenous site in the left arm

168.

A nurse is administering a blood transfusion. Which assessment finding will the nurse report immediately?

a)

Blood pressure 110/60

b)

Temperature 101.3° F

c)

Poor skin turgor and pallor

d)

Heart rate of 100 beats/min

169.

A nurse has just received a bag of packed red blood cells (RBCs) for a patient. What is the longest time the nurse can let the blood infuse?

a)

30 minutes

b)

. 2 hours

c)

4 hours

d)

6 hours

170.

A patient has an acute intravascular hemolytic reaction to a blood transfusion. After discontinuing the blood transfusion, which is the nurse’s next action?

a)

Discontinue the IV catheter.

b)

Return the blood to the blood bank

c)

Run normal saline through the existing tubing

d)

Start normal saline at TKO rate using new tubing.

171.

A nurse assessing a patient who is receiving a blood transfusion finds that the patient is anxiously fidgeting in bed. The patient is afebrile but dyspneic. The nurse auscultates crackles in both lung bases and sees jugular vein distention. On which transfusion complication will the nurse focus interventions?

a)

Fluid volume excess

b)

Hemolytic reaction

c)

Anaphylactic shock

d)

. Septicemia

172.

A nurse preparing to start a blood transfusion will use which type of tubing?

a)

Two-way valves to allow the patient’s blood to mix and warm the blood transfusing

b)

An injection port to mix additional electrolytes into the blood

c)

One with a filter to ensure that clots do not enter the patient

d)

An air vent to let bubbles into the blood

173.

The nurse is caring for a patient with hyperkalemia. Which body system assessment is the priority?

a)

Gastrointestinal

b)

Neurological

c)

Respiratory

d)

Cardiac

174.

Which assessment finding will the nurse expect for a patient with the following laboratory values: sodium 145 mEq/L, potassium 4.5 mEq/L, calcium 4.5 mg/dL?

a)

Weak quadriceps muscles

b)

Decreased deep tendon reflexes

c)

Light-headedness when standing up

d)

Tingling of extremities with possible tetany

175.

While the nurse is taking a patient history, the nurse discovers the patient has a type of diabetes that results from a head injury and does not require insulin. Which dietary change should the nurse share with the patient?

a)

Reduce the quantity of carbohydrates ingested to lower blood sugar

b)

Include a serving of dairy in each meal to elevate calcium levels

c)

Drink plenty of fluids throughout the day to stay hydrated

d)

Avoid foods high in acid to avoid metabolic acidosis

176.

A nurse is selecting a site to insert an intravenous (IV) catheter on an adult. Which actions will the nurse take? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Check for contraindications to the extremity

b)

Choose a vein with minimal curvature.

c)

Avoid areas of flexion.

d)

Choose the patient’s dominant arm.

177.

Which assessments will alert the nurse that a patient’s IV has infiltrated? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Edema of the extremity near the insertion site

b)

Skin discolored or pale in appearance

c)

Skin cool to the touch

d)

Pain and warmth at the insertion site

178.

A nurse is discontinuing a patient’s peripheral IV access. Which actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Stop the infusion before removing the IV catheter.

b)

Keep the catheter parallel to the skin while removing it

c)

Apply pressure to the site for 2 to 3 minutes after removal

d)

Use scissors to remove the IV site dressing and tape

179.

A patient has 250 mL of a jejunostomy feeding with 30 mL of water before and after feeding and 200 mL of urine. Thirty minutes later the patient has 100 mL of diarrhea. At 1300 the patient receives 150 mL of blood and voids another 200 mL. Calculate the patient’s intake. Record your answer as a whole number. _____ mL

a)

460

b)

560

c)

660

d)

760

180.

A patient has recently had surgery. Which action is best for the nurse to take to assess this patient’s pain?

a)

Assess the patient’s body language

b)

Ask the patient to rate the level of pain.

c)

Observe the cardiac monitor for increased heart rate

d)

Have the patient describe the effect of pain on the ability to cope.

181.

A nurse is caring for a patient who recently had abdominal surgery and is experiencing severe pain. The patient’s blood pressure is 110/60 mm Hg, and heart rate is 60 beats/min. Additionally, the patient does not appear to be in any physical distress. Which response by the nurse is most therapeutic?

a)

“Your vitals do not show that you are having pain; can you describe your pain?”

b)

“OK, I will go get you some narcotic pain relievers immediately.”

c)

“What would you like to try to alleviate your pain?”

d)

“You do not look like you are in pain.”

182.

A nurse teaches the patient about the gate control theory. Which statement made by a patient reflects a correct understanding about the relationship between the gate control theory of pain and the use of meditation to relieve pain?

a)

“Meditation controls pain by blocking pain impulses from coming through the gate.”

b)

“Meditation alters the chemical composition of pain neuroregulators, which closes the gate.”

c)

“Meditation will help me sleep through the pain because it opens the gate.”

d)

“Meditation stops the occurrence of pain stimuli.”

183.

A nurse is planning care for an older-adult patient who is experiencing pain. Which statement made by the nurse indicates the supervising nurse needs to follow up?

a)

“As adults age, their ability to perceive pain decreases.”

b)

“Older patients may have low serum albumin in their blood, causing toxic effects of analgesic drugs.”

c)

“Patients who have dementia probably experience pain, and their pain is not always well controlled.”

d)

“It is safe to administer opioids to older adults as long as you start with small doses and frequently assess the patient’s response to the medication.”

184.

The nurse is caring for two patients; both are having a hysterectomy. The first patient is having the hysterectomy after a complicated birth. The second patient has uterine cancer. What will most likely influence the experience of pain for these two patients?

a)

Meaning of pain

b)

Neurological factors

c)

Competency of the surgeon

d)

Postoperative support personnel

185.

The nurse is preparing pain medications. To which patient does the nurse anticipate administering an opioid fentanyl patch?

a)

A 15-year-old adolescent with a fractured femur

b)

A 30-year-old adult with cellulitis

c)

A 50-year-old patient with prostate cancer

d)

An 80-year-old patient with a broken hip

186.

A patient is receiving opioid medication through an epidural infusion. Which action will the nurse take to protect the patient’s safety?

a)

Restrict fluid intake.

b)

Label the tubing that leads to the epidural catheter.

c)

Apply a gauze dressing to the epidural catheter insertion site

d)

Ask the nursing assistive personnel to check on the patient at least once every 2 hours

187.

A woman is in labor and refuses to receive any sort of anesthesia medication. Which alternative treatment is best for this patient?

a)

Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS)

b)

Herbal supplements with analgesic effects

c)

Pudendal block (regional anesthesia)

d)

Relaxation and guided imagery

188.

A nurse is teaching a patient about patient-controlled analgesia (PCA). Which statement made by the patient indicates to the nurse that teaching is effective?

a)

“I will only need to be on this pain medication.”

b)

“I feel less anxiety about the possibility of overdosing.”

c)

“I can receive the pain medication as frequently as I need to.”

d)

“I need the nurse to notify me when it is time for another dose.”

189.

A nurse is caring for a patient who is experiencing pain following abdominal surgery. Which information is important for the nurse to share with the patient when providing patient education about effective pain management?

a)

“To prevent overdose, you need to wait to ask for pain medication until you begin to experience pain.”

b)

“You should take your medication after you walk to make sure you do not fall while you are walking.”

c)

“We should work together to create a schedule to provide regular dosing of medication.”

d)

“When you experience severe pain, you will need to take oral pain medications.”

190.

A nurse is caring for a patient who recently had spinal surgery. The nurse knows that patients usually experience acute pain following this type of surgery. The patient refuses to get up and walk and is not moving around in the bed. However, the patient is stoic and denies experiencing pain at this time. What most likely explains this patient’s behavior?

a)

The surgery successfully cured the patient’s pain

b)

The patient’s culture is possibly influencing the patient’s experience of pain

c)

The primary health care provider did not prescribe the correct amount of medication

d)

The nurse is allowing personal beliefs about pain to influence pain management at this time.

191.

A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a patient with a fractured humerus. The patient is going home with a prescription for hydrocodone. Which important patient education should the nurse provide?

a)

“You need to drink plenty of fluids and eat a diet high in fiber.”

b)

“Narcotics can be addictive, so do not take them unless you are in severe pain.”

c)

“Be sure to eat a meal high in fat before taking the medication, to avoid a stomach ulcer.”

d)

“As your pain severity lessens, you will begin to give yourself once-daily intramuscular injections.”

192.

A patient arrives at the emergency department experiencing a headache and rates the pain as 7 on a 0 to 10 pain scale. Which nonpharmacological intervention does the nurse implement for this patient while awaiting orders for pain medication from the health care provider?

a)

Reassures the patient that the provider will come to the emergency department soon

b)

Softly plays music that the patient finds relaxing.

c)

Frequently reassesses the patient’s pain scores.

d)

Teaches the patient how to do yoga

193.

A patient diagnosed with type 2 diabetes 26 years ago is beginning to experience peripheral neuropathy in the feet and lower leg. The nurse is providing education to the patient to prevent injury to the feet by wearing shoes or slippers when walking. Which statement made by the nurse best explains the rationale for this instruction?

a)

“Wearing shoes blocks pain perception and helps you adapt to pain, which ends up protecting your feet.”

b)

“Shoes provide nonpharmacological pain relief to people with diabetes and peripheral neuropathy.”

c)

“The neurological gates open when wearing shoes, which protects your feet.”

d)

“If you step on something without shoes, you might not feel it; this could possibly cause injury to your foot.”

194.

A nurse is assessing a patient who began experiencing severe pain 3 days ago. When the nurse asks the patient to describe the pain, the patient states, “The pain feels like it is in my stomach. It is a burning pain, and it spreads out in a circle around the spot where it hurts the most.” Which type of pain does the nurse document the patient is having at this time?

a)

Superficial pain

b)

Idiopathic pain

c)

Chronic pain

d)

Visceral pain

195.

A patient injured in a motor vehicle crash 2 days ago is experiencing pain and is receiving patient-controlled analgesia (PCA). Which assessment finding indicates effective pain management with the PCA?

a)

The patient is sleeping and is difficult to arouse.

b)

The patient rates pain at a level of 2 on a 0 to 10 scale

c)

The patient has sufficient medication left in the PCA syringe.

d)

The patient presses the control button to deliver pain medication.

196.

The nurse is caring for a patient and is focusing on modifiable factors that contribute to pain. Which areas does the nurse focus on with this patient?

a)

Age and gender

b)

Anxiety and fear

c)

Culture and ethnicity

d)

Previous pain experiences and cognitive abilities

197.

The nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of guided imagery for pain management as used for a patient who has second- and third-degree burns and needs extensive dressing changes. Which finding best indicates the effectiveness of guided imagery?

a)

The patient’s facial expressions are stoic during the procedure

b)

The patient rates pain during the dressing change as a 6 on a scale of 0 to 10.

c)

The patient’s need for analgesic medication decreases during the dressing changes

d)

The patient asks for pain medication during the dressing changes only once throughout the procedure.

198.

A nurse is providing medication education to a patient who just started been prescribed ibuprofen. Which information will the nurse include in the teaching session?

a)

Ibuprofen helps to depress the central nervous system to decrease pain perception

b)

Ibuprofen reduces anxiety, which will help you cope with your pain.

c)

Ibuprofen binds with opiate receptors to reduce your pain

d)

Ibuprofen inhibits the development of inflammation.

199.

The nurse has brought a patient the scheduled pain medication. The patient asks the nurse to wait to give pain medication until the time for the dressing change, which is 2 hours away. Which response by the nurse is most therapeutic?

a)

“This medication will still be providing you relief at the time of your dressing change.”

b)

“OK, swallow this pain pill, and I will return in a minute to change your dressing.”

c)

“Would you like medication to be given for dressing changes in addition to your regularly scheduled medication?”

d)

“Your medication is scheduled for this time, and I can’t adjust the time for you. I’m sorry, but you must take your pill right now.”

200.

A nurse receives an order from a health care provider to administer hydrocodone and acetaminophen to a patient who is experiencing 8/10 postsurgical pain. The order is to give 2 tablets every 6 hours by mouth as needed for pain. What is the nurse’s next best action?

a)

Give the medication to the patient immediately because the patient is experiencing severe pain.

b)

Ask the health care provider for a nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug (NSAID) order

c)

Ask the health care provider to verify the dosage and frequency of the medication

d)

Give the medication in addition to playing soothing music for the patient.

201.

The nurse is caring for a 4-year-old child who is demonstrating signs of pain. Which technique will the nurse use to best assess pain in this child?

a)

Use the FACES scale

b)

Check to see what previous nurses have charted.

c)

Ask the parents if they think their child is in pain

d)

Have the child rate the level of pain on a 0 to 10 pain scale

202.

A nurse is caring for a group of patients. Which patient will the nurse see first to best manage patient needs?

a)

A patient who received morphine and has a pulse of 62 beats/min, respirations 10 breaths/min, and blood pressure 110/60 mm Hg.

b)

A patient lying very still in bed who reports no pain but is pale with warm, dry skin

c)

A patient with severe pain who is nauseated and feels like he or she is about to vomit

d)

A patient writhing and moaning from abdominal pain after abdominal surgery

203.

A nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with chronic pain. Which statement by the nurse indicates an understanding of pain management?

a)

“This patient says the pain is a 5 but is not acting like it. I am not going to give any pain medication.”

b)

“I need to reassess the patient’s pain 1 hour after administering oral pain medication.”

c)

“It wasn’t time for the patient’s medication, so when it was requested, I gave a placebo.”

d)

“The patient is sleeping, so I pushed the PCA button.”

204.

The nurse is assessing how a patient’s pain is affecting mobility. Which assessment question is most appropriate?

a)

. “Have you considered working with a physical therapist?”

b)

“What activities, if any, has your pain prevented you from doing?”

c)

“Would you please rate your pain on a scale from 0 to 10 for me?”

d)

“When does your pain medication typically take effect on your pain?

205.

The nurse is teaching a student nurse about pain assessment scales. Which statement by the student indicates effective teaching?

a)

“You cannot use a pain scale to compare the pain of my patient with the pain of your patient.”

b)

“When patients say they don’t need pain medication, they aren’t in pain.”

c)

“A patient’s behavior is more reliable than the patient’s report of pain.”

d)

“Pain assessment scales determine the quality of a patient’s pain.”

206.

The nurse is administering pain medication for several patients. Which patient does the nurse administer medication to first?

a)

The patient who needs to be premedicated before walking.

b)

The patient who has a PCA running that needs the syringe replaced.

c)

The patient who needs to take a scheduled dose of maintenance pain medication

d)

The patient who is experiencing 8/10 pain and has an immediate order for pain medication

207.

The nurse is assessing a patient for opioid tolerance. Which finding supports the nurse’s assessment?

a)

The patient needed a substantial dose of naloxone

b)

The patient needs increasingly higher doses of opioid to control pain

c)

The patient no longer experiences sedation from the usual dose of opioid.

d)

The patient asks for pain medication close to the time it is due around the clock

208.

A nurse is caring for a patient with rheumatoid arthritis who is now going to be taking 2 acetaminophen tablets every 6 hours to control pain. Which part of the patient’s social history is the nurse most concerned about?

a)

Patient drinks 1 to 2 glasses of wine every night.

b)

Patient smokes 2 packs of cigarettes a day.

c)

Patient occasionally uses marijuana.

d)

Patient takes antianxiety medications.

209.

The nurse is caring for a patient who suddenly experiences chest pain. What is the nurse’s first priority?

a)

Call the rapid response team

b)

Start an intravenous (IV) line.

c)

Administer pain-relief medications.

d)

Ask the patient to rate and describe the pain

210.

The nurse is caring for a group of patients. Which task may the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?

a)

Administer a back massage to a patient with pain.

b)

Assessment of pain for a patient reporting abdominal pain.

c)

Administer patient-controlled analgesia for a postoperative patient

d)

Administer patient-controlled analgesia for a postoperative patient

211.

A nurse is caring for a patient with chronic pain from arthritis. Which action is best for the nurse to take?

a)

Give pain medications around the clock

b)

Administer pain medication before any activity

c)

Give pain medication after the pain is a 7/10 on the pain scale

d)

Administer pain medication only when nonpharmacological measures have failed.

212.

A nurse is caring for a patient who fell on the ice and has connective tissue damage in the wrist and hand. The patient describes the pain as throbbing. Which type of pain does the nurse document in this patient’s medical record?

a)

Visceral pain

b)

Somatic pain

c)

Centrally generated pain

d)

Peripherally generated pain

213.

The nurse is caring for an infant in the intensive care unit. Which information should the nurse consider when planning care for this patient?

a)

Infants cannot be assessed for pain.

b)

Infants respond behaviorally and physiologically to painful stimuli

c)

Infants cannot tolerate analgesics owing to an underdeveloped metabolism

d)

Infants have a decreased sensitivity to pain when compared with older children.

214.

The nurse is administering ibuprofen to an older patient. Which assessment data causes the nurse to hold the medication? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Patient states allergy to aspirin

b)

Patient reports past medical history of gastric ulcer

c)

Patient experiences respiratory depression after administration of an opioid medication.

d)

Patient reports last bowel movement was 4 days ago.

215.

A nurse is teaching about the energy needed at rest to maintain life-sustaining activities for a specific period of time. What form of energy is the nurse discussing?

a)

Resting energy expenditure (REE)

b)

Basal metabolic rate (BMR)

c)

Nutrient density

d)

Nutrients

216.

In general, when a patient’s energy requirements are completely met by kilocalorie (kcal) intake in food, which assessment finding will the nurse observe?

a)

Weight increases.

b)

Weight decreases.

c)

Weight does not change

d)

Weight fluctuates daily.

217.

A nurse is asked how many kcal/g are provided by fats. How should the nurse answer?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

6

d)

9

218.

A nurse is teaching a patient about proteins that must be obtained through the diet since they cannot be synthesized in the body. Which term used by the patient indicates teaching is successful?

a)

Amino acids

b)

Triglycerides

c)

Dispensable amino acids

d)

Indispensable amino acids

219.

A nurse is caring for a patient with a postsurgical wound. When planning care, which goal will be the priority?

a)

Reduce dependent nitrogen balance.

b)

Maintain negative nitrogen balance

c)

Promote positive nitrogen balance

d)

Facilitate neutral nitrogen balance

220.

In providing diet education for a patient on a low-fat diet, which information is important for the nurse to share?

a)

Polyunsaturated fats should be less than 7% of the total calories.

b)

Trans fat should be less than 7% of the total calories

c)

Unsaturated fats are found mostly in animal sources.

d)

Saturated fats are found mostly in animal sources.

221.

A patient has a decreased gag reflex, left-sided weakness, and drooling. Which action will the nurse take when feeding this patient?

a)

Position in semi-Fowler’s.

b)

Flex head with chin down.

c)

Place food on left side

d)

Offer fruit juice.

222.

The patient who has been diagnosed with cardiovascular disease and placed on a low-fat diet, asks the nurse, “How much fat should I have? I guess the less fat, the better.” Which information will the nurse include in the teaching session?

a)

Cholesterol intake needs to be less than 300 mg/day.

b)

Fats have no significance in health and the incidence of disease

c)

All fats come from external sources, so this can be easily controlled

d)

Deficiencies occur when fat intake falls below 10% of daily nutrition.

223.

The nurse is describing the ChooseMyPlate program to a patient. Which statement from the patient indicates successful learning?

a)

“I can use this to make healthy lifestyle food choices.”

b)

“I can use this to count specific calories of food.”

c)

“I can use this for my baby girl.”

d)

“I can use this when I am sick.”

224.

The nurse is teaching a health class about the ChooseMyPlate program. Which guidelines will the nurse include in the teaching session?

a)

Balancing sodium and potassium

b)

Decreasing water consumption

c)

Increasing portion size

d)

Balancing calories

225.

The nurse is providing nutrition education to a Korean patient using the five food groups. In doing so, what should be the focus of the teaching?

a)

Discouraging the patient’s ethnic food choices

b)

Changing the patient’s diet to a more conventional American diet

c)

Including racial and ethnic practices with food preferences of the patient

d)

Comparing the patient’s ethnic preferences with American dietary choices

226.

A nurse is teaching a nutrition class about the different daily values. When teaching about the referenced daily intakes (RDIs), which information should the nurse include?

a)

Have values for protein, vitamins, and minerals.

b)

Are based on percentages of fat, cholesterol, and fiber

c)

Have replaced recommended daily allowances (RDAs)

d)

Are used to develop diets for chronic illnesses requiring 1800 cal/day.

227.

The nurse is planning care for a group of stable patients. Which task will the nurse assign to the nursing assistive personnel?

a)

Measuring capillary blood glucose level

b)

Measuring nasoenteric tube for insertion

c)

Measuring pH in gastrointestinal aspirate

d)

Measuring the patient’s risk for aspiration

228.

In teaching mothers-to-be about infant nutrition, which instruction should the nurse provide?

a)

Supplement breast milk with corn syrup

b)

Give cow’s milk during the first year of life

c)

Add honey to infant formulas for increased energy

d)

Provide breast milk or formula for the first 4 to 6 months.

229.

When planning care for an adolescent who plays sports, which modification should the nurse include in the care plan?

a)

Increasing carbohydrates to 55% to 60% of total intake

b)

Providing vitamin and mineral supplements

c)

Decreasing protein intake to 0.75 g/kg/day

d)

Decreasing protein intake to 0.75 g/kg/day

230.

In providing prenatal care to a pregnant patient, what does the nurse teach the expectant mother?

a)

Calcium intake is especially important in the first trimester

b)

. Protein intake needs to decrease to preserve kidney function

c)

Folic acid is needed to help prevent birth defects and anemia

d)

Extra vitamins and minerals should be taken as much as possible

231.

The patient is an 80-year-old male who is visiting the clinic today for a routine physical examination. The patient’s skin turgor is fair, but the patient reports fatigue and weakness. The skin is warm and dry, pulse rate is 116 beats/min, and urinary sodium level is slightly elevated. Which instruction should the nurse provide?

a)

Drink more water to prevent further dehydration

b)

Drink more calorie-dense fluids to increase caloric intake

c)

Drink more milk and dairy products to decrease the risk of osteoporosis.

d)

Drink more grapefruit juice to enhance vitamin C intake and medication absorption.

232.

The nurse is assessing a patient for nutritional status. Which action will the nurse take?

a)

Forego the assessment in the presence of chronic disease

b)

Use the Mini Nutritional Assessment for pediatric patients.

c)

Choose a single objective tool that fits the patient’s condition

d)

Combine multiple objective measures with subjective measures.

233.

The patient has a calculated body mass index (BMI) of 34. How will the nurse classify this finding?

a)

Normal weight

b)

Underweight

c)

Overweight

d)

Obese

234.

Which patient diagnosis increases the risk for developing neurogenic dysphagia?

a)

Benign peptic stricture

b)

Muscular dystrophy

c)

Myasthenia gravis

d)

Stroke

235.

The patient has been diagnosed with Helicobacter pylori. The nurse should encourage which action initially?

a)

Avoidance of wheat and oats.

b)

Milkshakes as a nutritious snack

c)

Completion of antibiotic therapy

d)

Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs

236.

Which assessment finding is consistent with the diagnosis of malnutrition?

a)

Moist lips

b)

Pink conjunctivae

c)

Spoon-shaped nails

d)

Not easily plucked hair

237.

A nurse is preparing to administer an enteral feeding. In which order will the nurse implement the steps, starting with the first one?

1. Elevate head of bed to at least 30 degrees.

2. Check for gastric residual volume.

3. Flush tubing with 30 mL of water.

4. Verify tube placement.

5. Initiate feeding

a)

4, 2, 1, 5, 3

b)

2, 4, 1, 3, 5

c)

1, 4, 2, 3, 5

d)

2, 1, 4, 5, 3

238.

The patient is admitted with facial trauma, including a broken nose, and has a history of esophageal reflux and of aspiration pneumonia. With which tube will the nurse most likely administer the feeding?

a)

Nasogastric tube

b)

Jejunostomy tube

c)

Nasointestinal tube

d)

Percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube

239.

The nurse is preparing to insert a nasogastric tube. To determine the length of the tube needed to be inserted, how should the nurse measure the tube?

a)

From the tip of the nose to the earlobe

b)

From the tip of the earlobe to the xiphoid process

c)

From the tip of the earlobe to the nose to the xiphoid process

d)

From the tip of the nose to the earlobe to the xiphoid process

240.

Before giving the patient an intermittent gastric tube feeding, what should the nurse do?

a)

Make sure that the tube is secured to the gown with a safety pin

b)

Inject air into the stomach via the tube and auscultate

c)

Have the tube feeding at room temperature

d)

Check to make sure pH is at least 5.

241.

A small-bore feeding tube is placed. Which technique will the nurse use to best verify tube placement?

a)

X-ray

b)

pH testing

c)

Auscultation

d)

Aspiration of contents

242.

The nurse is concerned about pulmonary aspiration when providing care to the patient with an intermittent tube feeding. Which action is the priority?

a)

Observe the color of gastric contents.

b)

Verify tube placement before feeding

c)

Add blue food coloring to the enteral formula

d)

Run the formula over 12 hours to decrease overload.

243.

The patient is to receive multiple medications via the nasogastric tube. The nurse is concerned that the tube may become clogged. Which action is best for the nurse to take?

a)

Instill nonliquid medications without diluting.

b)

Irrigate the tube with 60 mL of water after all medications are given

c)

Mix all medications together to decrease the number of administrations.

d)

Check with the pharmacy for availability of the liquid forms of medications

244.

The patient has just started on enteral feedings, and is now reporting abdominal cramping. Which action will the nurse take next?

a)

Slow the rate of tube feeding.

b)

Instill cold formula to “numb” the stomach

c)

Change the tube feeding to a high-fat formula

d)

Consult with the health care provider about prokinetic medication

245.

The patient has just been started on an enteral feeding and has developed diarrhea after being on the feeding for 2 hours. What does the nurse suspect is the most likely cause of the diarrhea?

a)

Antibiotic therapy

b)

Clostridium difficile

c)

Formula intolerance

d)

Bacterial contamination

246.

A patient develops a foodborne disease from Escherichia coli. When taking a health history, which food item will the nurse most likely find the patient ingested?

a)

Improperly home-canned food

b)

Undercooked ground beef

c)

Soft cheese

d)

Custard

247.

The nurse is caring for a patient receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which action will the nurse take?

a)

Run lipids for no longer than 24 hours

b)

Take down a running bag of TPN after 36 hours.

c)

Clean injection port with alcohol 5 seconds before and after use

d)

Wear a sterile mask when changing the central venous catheter dressing.

248.

The patient is having at least 75% of nutritional needs met by enteral feeding, so the health care provider has ordered the parenteral nutrition (PN) to be discontinued. However, the nurse notices that the PN infusion has fallen behind. What should the nurse do?

a)

Increase the rate to get the volume caught up before discontinuing.

b)

Stop the infusion as ordered.

c)

Taper infusion gradually

d)

. Hang 5% dextrose.

249.

The patient is on parenteral nutrition is lethargic while reporting thirst and headache and has had increased urination. Which problem does the nurse prepare to address?

a)

Hyperglycemia

b)

Hypoglycemia

c)

Hypercapnia

d)

Hypocapnia

250.

In providing diabetic teaching for a patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus, which instructions will the nurse provide to the patient?

a)

Insulin is the only consideration that must be taken into account

b)

Saturated fat should be limited to less than 7% of total calories

c)

Nonnutritive sweeteners can be used without restriction

d)

Cholesterol intake should be greater than 200 mg/day

251.

The patient diagnosed with cardiovascular disease is receiving dietary instructions from the nurse. Which information from the patient indicates teaching is successful?

a)

Maintain a prescribed carbohydrate intake

b)

Eat fish at least 5 times/week

c)

Limit cholesterol to less than 300 mg/daily

d)

Avoid high-fiber foods.

252.

The nurse is providing home care for a patient diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Which dietary intervention will the nurse add to the care plan?

a)

Provide small, frequent nutrient-dense meals for maximizing kilocalories.

b)

Prepare hot meals because they are more easily tolerated by the patient.

c)

Avoid salty foods and limit liquids to preserve electrolytes

d)

Encourage intake of fatty foods to increase caloric intake.

253.

A patient is on a full liquid diet. Which food item choice by the patient will cause the nurse to intervene?

a)

Custard

b)

Frozen yogurt

c)

Pureed vegetables

d)

Mashed potatoes and gravy

254.

A nurse is caring for a group of patients. Which patient will the nurse see first?

a)

Patient receiving total parenteral nutrition of 2-in-1 for 50 hours

b)

Patient receiving total parenteral nutrition infusing with same tubing for 26 hours

c)

Patient receiving continuous enteral feeding with same feeding bag for 12 hours

d)

Patient receiving continuous enteral feeding with same tubing for 24 hours

255.

The nurse is preparing to check the gastric aspirate for pH. Which equipment will the nurse obtain?

a)

10-mL Luer-Lok syringe

b)

Asepto syringe

c)

Sterile gloves

d)

Double gloves

256.

A nurse is teaching a health class about the nutritional requirements throughout the life span. Which information should the nurse include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Infants triple weight at 1 year

b)

Toddlers become picky eaters.

c)

Older adults have altered food flavor from a decrease in taste cells

d)

School-age children need to avoid hot dogs and grapes

257.

The patient is asking the nurse about the best way to stay healthy. The nurse explains to the patient which teaching points? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Increase physical activity

b)

Maintain body weight in a healthy range.

c)

Choose and prepare foods with little salt

d)

Increase intake of meat and other high-protein foods.

258.

When assessing patient with nutritional needs, which patients will require follow-up from the nurse? (Select all that apply.)

a)

A patient with infection taking tetracycline with milk

b)

A patient with diverticulitis following a high-fiber diet daily

c)

A patient with an enteral feeding and 500 mL of gastric residual

d)

A patient with irritable bowel syndrome increasing fiber

259.

To honor cultural values of patients from different ethnic/religious groups, which actions demonstrate culturally sensitive care by the nurse? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Allows fasting on Yom Kippur for a Jewish patient.

b)

Serves no ham products to a Muslim patient

c)

Serves no meat or fish to a Hindu patient.

d)

Serves kosher foods to a Christian patient