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Sap Cert 2/4

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 3hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which field in the material master record is only necessary for materials of a material type with value updating?

a)

Base Unit of Measure

b)

Valuation Class

c)

Material Group

d)

Material description

2.

Which views are maintained at client level in the material master record?

a)

MRP

b)

Purchase order text

c)

Purchasing

d)

Basic Data

3.

For which of the following can you create different data for business partners?

a)

Plant

b)

Material Group

c)

Purchasing Group

d)

Supplier Subrange

4.

While creating a purchase order, you want to take into account a supplier for whom no master record exists. Which statements is applicabe?

a)

A purchase order is not possible in the SAP system in this case

b)

You can use a one-time supplier

c)

You have to use a supplier where the account group allows external number assignment. This enables you to enter a number in the document that has not yet been created.

d)

You have to use a special document type

5.

Which of the following is the partner role for address determination for return deliveries?

a)

OA (Ordering Adress)

b)

PI (Invoicing party)

c)

AZ (Alternate Payment Recipient)

d)

GS (Goods Supplier)

6.

For what can you create partners schemas?

a)

Account Groups

b)

Purchasing Organizations

c)

Contact Persons

d)

Purchasing Document Types

7.

At which level can you maintain conditions in the info record?

a)

Purchasing Organization

b)

Material

c)

Client

d)

Purchasing Organization with plant

8.

An info record can apply to all plants for a purchasing organization

a)

True

b)

False

9.

You create a purchase order using an info record for a material group. Which of the following are mandatory entries in the item?

a)

Material Number

b)

Account assignment category

c)

Quantity

d)

Short text

10.

What types of purchasing info records can you create?

a)

Standard

b)

Third-party

c)

Subcontracting

d)

Plant

11.

Which statements apply for contracts and contract items?

a)

Contracts can be created only with reference to a purchase requisition

b)

You can use account assignment category U (unknown) for a contract item

c)

Contracts can be created without a reference to an outline agreement requisition.

d)

For a consumable material, the account assignment data must already be stored in the contract.

12.

A quantity contract is fulfilled when a stipulated overall target value is reached as a result of the issue of release orders

a)

True

b)

False

13.

The W item category can be used in quantity and value contracts

a)

True

b)

False

14.

Items to be purchased from a value contract with the item category M (Material Unknown) all have the same

a)

Material Group

b)

Short Text

c)

Purchasing Group

d)

Price

15.

How do scheduling agreements differ from contracts?

a)

You can create contracts with reference to a scheduling agreement, but you cannot create scheduling agreements with reference to a contract

b)

The U (Unknown) account assignment category is allowed in the contract but not in the scheduling agreement

c)

Contracts can contain a plant but scheduling agreements must contain a plant

d)

You can use the W (Material Group) item category in both the contract and the scheduling agreement, but you can only use the M item category in contract.

16.

In scheduling agreements, item categories M and W are not permitted

a)

True

b)

False

17.

Which messages are possible for scheduling agreements with release documentation?

a)

Scheduling agreements (Message type NEU)

b)

Forecast delivery schedule

c)

JIT delivery schedule

d)

Scheduling agreement delivery schedule line

18.

Once you archive the scheduling agreement releases, you cannot reverse the archives.

a)

True

b)

False

19.

If the source list indicator has been set in the material master record, it is not possible to create a purchase requisition or purchase order for a supplier that is not in the source list.

a)

True

b)

False

20.

Which of the following statements are true when creating source list records for a material?

a)

The manual procedure allows you to make changes or enter new entries in the source list

b)

You cannot create a source list from within an outline agreement

c)

From within an info record, you can create a source list only for a single plant even if the info record is valid for an entire purchasing organization

d)

You can automatically generate a source list for a single material or several materials

21.

You can use the source list to prevent materials from being ordered with reference to a material group contract item

a)

True

b)

False

22.

Which of the following is the calculation for quota rating?

a)

(Quota-allocated quantity + Quota base quantity)/Quota

b)

(Quota-allocated quantity - Quota base quantity)/Quota

c)

(Quota-allocated quantity + Quota base quantity) * Quota

d)

Quota-allocated quantity + Quota base quantity + Quota

23.

Which of the following is used for manual control of the quota arrangement when new sources are included?

a)

Quota

b)

Quota-allocated quantity

c)

Quota rating

d)

Quota base quantity

24.

The total quantity of all relevant assigned planned orders for a material goes into the quota-allocated quantity. If the planned order is converted to a requisition, the quota-allocated quantity is updated once more.

a)

True

b)

False

25.

The lot size specified in the quota arrangement item overrides the settings in the material master record for the planning run.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

You can define only the minimum lot size per quota arrangement item. The maximum lot size per quota arrangement item cannot be modified.

a)

True

b)

False

27.

Which of the following indicators do you set to prevent reselection of the same source because of quota rating?

a)

P

b)

1x

c)

S

d)

PPI

28.

You create a purchase requisition using source determination. When is a source found uniquely?

a)

When there is a valid quota arrangement

b)

when there is no quota arrangement, but a single valid info record exists as a source list entry without any other indicators.

c)

When there is no quota arrangement, but several valid info records exist as source list entries without any other indicators.

d)

When there is no quota arrangement, but multiple valid source list entries, of which both an outline agreement item and an info record are selected as fixed sources.

29.

During the requirements planning run, according to what priority does the system determine the possible sources?

a)

First quota arrangement and then source list

b)

First source list and then quota arrangement

c)

From the cheapest price to the highest

d)

From the shortest delivery time to the longest

30.

You can enter only suppliers and plants in the quota arrangement, but no outline agreement items.

a)

True

b)

False

31.

For transactions outside the planning run, what flow logic does the system use for source determination?

a)

First quota arrangement, then info records, then outline agreement items, and last source list.

b)

Frist, quota arrangement, then source list, then outline agreement items, and last info records

c)

First info records, then quota arrangement, then outline agreement items, and last source list.

d)

First source list, then info records, then outline agreement items, and las quota arrangement.

32.

You should use the regular supplier if you only have info records for a material and if you prefer not to create a source list to control sourcing.

a)

True

b)

False

33.

How do you block sources of supply¿

a)

Using a cross-plant vendor status in the vendor master record

b)

Blocking the source client wide in the source list for a material

c)

Blocking the source dependent on the plant in the source list for a material

d)

Using a blocking indicator in the supplier master record purchasing data.

34.

By blocking a source list entry with outline agreement item, you can still order the material without reference to the outline agreement item from the same supplier.

a)

True

b)

False

35.

After blocking a supplier, you cannot enter goods receipts for and undertake changes to the open documents.

a)

True

b)

False

36.

Which of the following transactions enables you tu assign and process purchase requisitions?

a)

ME55

b)

ME56

c)

ME57

d)

ME58

37.

Which documents can you generate with the Automatic Generation of Purchase Orders transaction (ME59N)?

a)

Contract release orders

b)

Scheduling agreement delivery schedule lines

c)

Purchase Orders

d)

RFQ

38.

You would like to convert assigned purchase requisitions into follow-on documents. Which of the following statements apply?

a)

You can convert several requisitions items form the same vendor to one single purchase order

b)

You can automatically convert all requisition items generated by MRP into purchase orders using transaction ME59N

c)

If the assigned source was blocked in the source list after the assignment was made, it is not possible to convert the corresponding requisition item.

d)

You can convert purchase requisitions into scheduling agreement delivery schedule lines.

39.

A prerequisite to convert purchase requisitions into purchase orders or scheduling agreement delivery schedule lines using the assignment list is that you should have already assigned sources of supply to the purchase requisition items to be converted.

a)

True

b)

False

40.

Which of the following statements is true if you only work with order confirmations (without confirmation control key)?

a)

You can separately record both the confirmed dates and quantities

b)

You can separately record only the confirmed dates

c)

You can use te Fast Change Function to enter a confirmation number for all items.

d)

You can separately record only the confirmed quantities.

41.

Which of the following prerequisites must be met to generate order confirmation reminders?

a)

You have selected the Acknowledgment Reqd checkbox

b)

You have entered an acknowledgment number for items without a confirmation control key

c)

You have set the message determination for the order acknowledgment reminder.

d)

You have confirmed the ordered quantity for items with a confirmation control key

42.

If the confirmation control key contains a sequence with multiple confirmation categories, you can set the GR relevant indicator for all confirmation categories

a)

True

b)

False

43.

Which of the following indicators should set when configuring the confirmation control key so that only the confirmed quantity is proposed when posting a goods receipt?

a)

MRP-Relevant indicator

b)

GR Assignment indicator

c)

Create Inb. Delivery Indicator

d)

Acknowledgment Reqd indicator

44.

The EVO parameter enables you to set the default value for the info record update indicator on a user-dependent basis

a)

True

b)

False

45.

Which user parameter will enable you to prevent a price from being pulled from the last purchase order as a default value?

a)

EKG

b)

MSV

c)

EVO

d)

EFB

46.

Which of the following statements apply to the EFB parameter? The EFB parameter enables you to determine wheter:

a)

The price from the last purchase order appears as the default value when a new purchase order is created

b)

The conditions in an outline agreement are displayed to a user

c)

A user may create a purchase order without reference to a preceding document

d)

The planned delivery time is checked against the delivery date during the source determination process.

47.

If you have not set the Enter Conditions indicator, you must also assign a field selection key controlling the field status of the relevant fields.

a)

True

b)

False

48.

Which of the following is applicable for releasing purchase requisitions?

a)

You can cancel an already effected release for a requisition item that has been converted into a follow-on document.

b)

To release purchasing objects with a certain release code, you need a corresponding authorization

c)

In a collective release, you cannot reject a release.

d)

You can perform an item-wise release irrespective of the document type and the release group in the classification.

49.

When you crate a procedure with classification, the procedure without classification is deactivated manually

a)

True

b)

False

50.

Which of the following determines if a purchase requisition is subject to item-wise release or overall release?

a)

Release group and document type

b)

Release strategy

c)

Release indicator

d)

Release code

51.

You can carry out item-wise release for purchasing documents.

a)

True

b)

False

52.

Which tables contain the possible fields for characteristics of release procedures in purchasing?

a)

EBAN

b)

CEBAN

c)

EKKO

d)

CEKKO

53.

What is the maximum number of release codes you can use in a release strategy?

a)

Two

b)

Five

c)

Eight

d)

Nine

54.

You want to set up a release procedure with classification. You have already created characteristics and classes in customizing. Which step should you perform next?

a)

Create release groups

b)

Set up workflows

c)

Create release codes

d)

Create release indicators

e)

Create release strategies

55.

To use both overall and item-wise release procedures for requisitions, you must create one class for each,

a)

True

b)

False

56.

A release procedure without classification is to be set up in your system for purchase requisition. Which of the following fields can you take as a criterion?

a)

Item category

b)

Account assignment category

c)

Plant

d)

Purchasing group

57.

What can you never do with a blocked purchase order?

a)

Output it

b)

Change it

c)

Call the preview

d)

Add another item to the purchase order

58.

Which characteristics can you use in flexible workflows for purchase orders?

a)

Item category

b)

Plant

c)

Purchasing Group

d)

Material Group

59.

With the Create purchase requisition app, how can you create a purchase requisition item?

a)

Add the number of a material master record

b)

Describe the required product if it is not found in a catalog

c)

Import an excel list with material numbers

d)

Select the material from a catalog.

60.

The default settings for a user can be centrally maintained by an administrator

a)

True

b)

False

61.

You are using the Confirm Receipt of Goods - New app. Which conditions must a purchase requisition item fulfill so that you can confirm a goods receipt for the item?

a)

The purchase requisition item was created by you or for you

b)

A purchase order has been created for the purchase requisition item

c)

The item has been completely delivered

d)

An invoice must have been entered for the purchase requisition item.

62.

For which operations are periodic invoicing plans suitable?

a)

Rental payments

b)

Magazine Subscriptions

c)

Electricity bills

d)

Credit card settlements

63.

Which of the following are prerequisites for automatic invoice creation?

a)

You must enter a tax code in the purchase order

b)

The document type must be FO

c)

You must set the evaluated receipt settlement indicator.

d)

You must enter short text

64.

Unlike the periodic invoicing plan, it is not mandatory to specify an account assignment category when creating a partial invoice plan.

a)

True

b)

False

65.

Which of the following statements apply to blanket purchase orders?

a)

The administrative cost of using blanket purchase orders is very high

b)

Blanket purchase orders are only suitable for the procurement of consumable materials

c)

Blanket purchase orders are especially suitable for the procurement of stock materials

d)

The B item category has the effect that no goods receipt can be posted.

e)

The account assignment does not need to be known at the time of ordering

66.

Which of the following are advantages of using blanket purchase orders?

a)

Blanket purchase orders can be created at client level

b)

You can reduce administrative costs

c)

You can use multiple account assginment

d)

You can use monthly invoices

67.

When creating a blanket purchase order, a prerequisite is that you have to specify an order quantity in the item overview.

a)

True

b)

False

68.

What are the functions of SAP Smart Business KPIs?

a)

Smart filter

b)

Layout

c)

Drilldown & Mini charts

d)

Selection Variant

e)

Export to a spreadsheet.

69.

What can you do in terms of the cards on the Procurement Overview?

a)

Hide cards

b)

Rearrange cards

c)

Create new cards

d)

Filter the cards content

70.

Upon which of the following keys does the number assignment for purchasing documents depend in the standard system?

a)

Purchasing organization

b)

Purchasing group

c)

Document type

d)

Company Code

71.

What is the maximum length for purchasing document numbers?

a)

8

b)

10

c)

12

d)

18

72.

Which of the following options can you specify for purchase order document types?

a)

Allowed item categories

b)

Allowed account assignment categories

c)

Linkage to purchase requisition document types

d)

Linkage to outline agreement document types

73.

For which document categories can you allow time-dependent conditions?

a)

Purchase requisition

b)

Purchase order

c)

Request for quotation

d)

Scheduling agreement

74.

For which document category can you define overall release?

a)

Purchase requisition

b)

Purchase order

c)

Request for quotation

d)

scheduling agreement

75.

For which of the following can you define field selection keys?

a)

Item categories

b)

Document categories

c)

Document types

d)

Account assignment categories

76.

Which user parameter is used for function authorizations in purchasing?

a)

EVO

b)

EKG

c)

FOB

d)

EFB

77.

For which document category can you define field selection keys depending on the release indicator?

a)

Requests for quotation

b)

Contracts

c)

Purchase orders

d)

Purchase requisitions

78.

To which object must you assign account assignment categories?

a)

Document types

b)

Field selection keys

c)

Document categories

d)

Item categories

79.

What is controlled by account assignment categories?

a)

Whether a material is allowed

b)

Whether inventory management is allowed

c)

Whether account assignment is changeable at invoice receipt.

d)

How partial invoices should be handled.

80.

Regarding account determination, what can you maintain in account assignment categories?

a)

Valuation grouping code

b)

Valuation class

c)

Account modification

d)

Account category reference

81.

On which level can you assign message schemas in purchasing?

a)

Purchasing organization

b)

Document type

c)

Application

d)

Plant

82.

Where can you maintain printers for message output?

a)

Message schema

b)

Condition record

c)

User default

d)

Print indicator

83.

Which output type is most commonly used when you change a purchase order?

a)

NEU

b)

AEN

c)

AUFB

d)

MAHN

84.

Where do you define the key fields that you want to use in the output determination process?

a)

Access sequence

b)

Document type

c)

Condition Record

d)

Condition table

85.

Which is the correct order for the message determination process?

a)

Access sequence - Message Type - Message Schema - Condition Record

b)

Condition Record - Access sequence - Message Schema - Message type

c)

Message Schema - Message type - Access sequence - Condition record

d)

Message type - Message schema - Condition record - Access sequence

86.

What is mandatory for message determination analysis?

a)

Condition Record

b)

Message schema

c)

Access sequence

d)

Print preview

87.

What do you specify in a condition record?

a)

Output language

b)

Output medium

c)

Output time

d)

Output attachments

88.

What can you define for change messages?

a)

Different time of output

b)

Different message schema language

c)

New message determination

d)

New release procedure

89.

Which output channels are supported in SAP S/4HANA Output Management?

a)

Fax

b)

Print

c)

E-mail

90.

What is used for output determination in SAP S/4HANA Output Management?

a)

Condition Tables

b)

Condition Records

c)

Decision Tables

d)

Access Sequences

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