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FAA Test Bank

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What measurement can be used to determine the stability of the atmosphere

a)

Surface temperature.

b)

Actual lapse rate.

c)

Atmospheric pressure.

2.

What would decrease the stability of an air mass?

a)

Warming from below.

b)

Cooling from below.

c)

Decrease in water vapor.

3.

Upon your preflight evaluation of weather, the forecasts you reference state there is an unstable air mass approaching your location. Which would not be a concern for your impending operation?

a)

Stratiform clouds.

b)

Turbulent conditions.

c)

Thunderstorms.

4.

You have received an outlook briefing from flight service through 1800wxbrief.com. The briefing indicates you can expect a low-level temperature inversion with high relative humidity. What weather conditions would you expect?

a)

Turbulent air, poor visibility, fog, low stratus type clouds, and showery precipitation.

b)

Light wind shear, poor visibility, haze, and light rain.

c)

Smooth air, poor visibility, fog, haze, or low clouds.

5.

What minimum visibility is required for sUAS operations?

a)

3 miles.

b)

1 miles

c)

4 miles

6.

The minimum distance from clouds required for sUAS Part 107 operations is

a)

500 feet above, 1,000 feet horizontally.

b)

500 feet below, 2,000 feet horizontally.

c)

clear of clouds.

7.

 (Refer to Figure 69.) You are inspecting the lighted towers approximately 8 NM SW of the Corpus Christi Intl Airport (CRP). What is the lowest cloud cover that will enable you to inspect the top of the tower?

a)

1,604 feet MSL.

b)

1,104 feet MSL.

c)

1,504 feet MSL.

8.

The weather report lists the ceiling at 800 feet. What is the highest you can operate your sUAS?

a)

200 feet AGL

b)

800 feet AGL

c)

300 feet AGL

9.

(Refer to Figure 23.) What are the VFR minimum visibility requirements over Plantation Airport?

a)

1 SM

b)

5 SM

c)

3 SM

10.

(Refer to Figure 23, Area 4.) What is the required f light visibility for a remote pilot operating an unmanned aircraft near the Plantation Airport (JYL)?

a)

1 statute miles.

b)

3 statute miles.

c)

5 statute miles.

11.

(Refer to Figure 78.) What is the minimum base of the cloud layer to fly to the top of the towers 4 NM east of Onawa (K36)?

a)

1,335 feet MSL

b)

292 feet AGL.

c)

792 feet AGL.

12.

What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm?

a)

Frequent lightning.

b)

Continuous updraft.

c)

Roll cloud.

13.

Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm?

a)

Precipitation beginning to fall. C— Maximum growth rate of the clouds.

b)

Precipitation beginning to fall.

c)

The appearance of an anvil top.

14.

What conditions are necessary for the formation of thunderstorms?

a)

Lifting force, moist air, and extensive cloud cover.

b)

High humidity, high temperature, and cumulus clouds.

c)

High humidity, lifting force, and unstable conditions.

15.

During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts?

a)

Mature

b)

Cumulus.

c)

Dissipating.

16.

Thunderstorms reach their greatest intensity during the

a)

cumulus stage.

b)

mature stage.

c)

downdraft stage.

17.

Thunderstorms which generally produce the most intense hazard to aircraft are

a)

warm front thunderstorms.

b)

squall line thunderstorms.

c)

steady-state thunderstorms.

18.

A nonfrontal, narrow band of active thunderstorms that often develop ahead of a cold front is known as a

a)

squall line.

b)

dry line

c)

prefrontal system.

19.

If there is thunderstorm activity in the vicinity of an airport at which you plan to land, which hazardous atmospheric phenomenon might be expected during recovery/landing of the sUAS?

a)

Steady rain.

b)

Wind-shear turbulence.

c)

Precipitation static.

20.

 Which weather phenomenon is always associated with a thunderstorm?

a)

Lightning.

b)

Heavy rain.

c)

Hail.

21.

Which is considered to be the most hazardous condition when flying an sUAS in the vicinity of thunderstorms?

a)

Wind shear and turbulence.

b)

Static electricity.

c)

Lightning.

22.

What is the expected duration of an individual microburst?

a)

One microburst may continue for as long as 2 to 4 hours.

b)

Two minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately 1 minute.

c)

Seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation.

23.

In what stage are thunderstorms the strongest?

a)

Cumulus.

b)

Mature.

c)

Dissipating.

24.

Where are squalls most likely to form?

a)

Low altitude.

b)

At any altitude.

c)

High altitude.

25.

The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence that there

a)

is a temperature inversion with freezing rain at a higher altitude.

b)

are thunderstorms in the area.

c)

has been cold frontal passage.

26.

One in-flight condition necessary for structural icing to form is

a)

stratiform clouds.

b)

small temperature/dewpoint spread.

c)

visible moisture.

27.

In which environment is aircraft structural ice most likely to have the highest accumulation rate?

a)

Freezing rain.

b)

Cumulus clouds with below freezing temperatures.

c)

Freezing drizzle.

28.

 What environment is most conducive to frost formation?

a)

Surface temperature is above freezing, air temperature is below freezing.

b)

Dewpoint of surface is below freezing, dewpoint is above freezing.

c)

Surface temperature is below freezing, air temperature is below freezing.

29.

What situation is most conducive to the formation of radiation fog?

a)

Warm, moist air over low, flatland areas on clear, calm nights.

b)

Moist, tropical air moving over cold, offshore water.

c)

The movement of cold air over much warmer water.

30.

In which situation is advection fog most likely to form?

a)

A light breeze blowing colder air out to sea.

b)

warm, moist air mass on the windward side of mountains

c)

An air mass moving inland from the coast in winter.

31.

An air mass moving inland from the coast in winter is likely to result in

a)

fog

b)

rain

c)

frost

32.

What types of fog depend upon wind in order to exist?

a)

Steam fog and ground fog.

b)

Advection fog and upslope fog.

c)

Radiation fog and ice fog.

33.

Low-level turbulence can occur and icing can become hazardous in which type of fog?

a)

Upslope fog.

b)

Steam fog.

c)

Rain-induced fog.

34.

What is the best way for a remote pilot to determine the likelihood of local fog formation?

a)

Monitor the barometric pressure to insure that it is not decreasing.

b)

Monitor the wind conditions to insure the wind speed is not increasing.

c)

Monitor the temperature/dew point spread.

35.

How would high density altitude affect the performance of a small unmanned aircraft?

a)

Decreased performance.

b)

No change in performance.

c)

Increased performance.

36.

If the outside air temperature (OAT) at a given altitude is warmer than standard, the density altitude is

a)

lower than pressure altitude.

b)

higher than pressure altitude

c)

equal to pressure altitude.

37.

 What are the standard temperature and pressure values for sea level?

a)

15°C and 29.92 "Hg

b)

59°C and 1013.2 millibars.

c)

59°F and 29.92 millibars.

38.

 Which factor would tend to increase the density altitude at a given airport referenced in the weather briefing?

Correct!

a)

A decrease in relative humidity.

b)

An increase in barometric pressure.

c)

An increase in ambient temperature.

39.

What effect does high density altitude have on the efficiency of a small unmanned aircraft propeller?

a)

Density altitude does not affect propeller efficiency.

b)

Propeller efficiency is decreased.

c)

Propeller efficiency is increased.

40.

What effect does humidity have on performance?

a)

It decreases performance.

b)

It increases performance.

c)

It has no effect on performance.

41.

To get a complete weather overview for the planned flight, the remote pilot-in-command should obtain

a)

A standard briefing.

b)

An outlook briefing.

c)

An abbreviated briefing.

42.

Which statement is true concerning ASOS/AWOS weather reporting systems?

a)

 

Both ASOS and AWOS have the capability of reporting density altitude, as long as it exceeds the airport elevation by more than 1,000 feet.

b)

Each AWOS station is part of a nationwide network of weather reporting stations.

c)

ASOS locations perform weather observing functions necessary to generate METAR reports.

43.

 (Refer to Figure 12.) The wind direction and velocity at KJFK is from:

a)

040° true at 18 knots.

b)

180° true at 4 knots.

c)

180° magnetic at 4 knots.

44.

(Refer to Figure 12.) What are the current conditions for Chicago Midway Airport (KMDW)?

a)

Sky 700 feet overcast, visibility 1-1/2 SM, rain.

b)

Sky 7,000 feet overcast, visibility 1-1/2 SM, heavy rain.

c)

  Sky 700 feet overcast, visibility 11, occasionally 2 SM, with rain.

45.

(Refer to Figure 15.) In the TAF for KMEM, what does “SHRA” stand for?

a)

A significant change in precipitation is possible.

b)

A shift in wind direction is expected.

c)

Rain showers.

46.

(Refer to Figure 15.) Between 1000Z and 1200Z the visibility at KMEM is forecast to be

a)

6 statute miles.

b)

3 statute miles.

c)

1/2 statute miles.

47.

(Refer to Figure 15.) What is the forecast wind for KMEM from 1600Z until the end of the forecast?

a)

Variable in direction at 6 knots.

b)

Variable in direction at 4 knots.

c)

No significant wind.

48.

Refer to Figure 15.) According to the KMEM forecast, what is the earliest time on the 12th (today) at which the visibility may be reduced below the 3 SM minimum for sUAS operations?

a)

1720Z

b)

2200Z

c)

2000Z

49.

What will a convective SIGMET be issued for?

a)

Surface winds greater than 40 knots.

b)

Squall line thunderstorms

c)

Visibility less than 3 miles.

50.

 (Refer to Figure 12.) The remarks section for KMDW has “RAB35” listed. This entry means

a)

rain began at 1835Z.

b)

  blowing mist has reduced the visibility to 1-1/2 SM.

c)

the barometer has risen .35 "Hg.