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APHG Final Super-Quiz

Total questions: 110

Worksheet time: 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Immigration may provide relief from overcrowding in

a)

countries of origin, which are usually in stage 2

b)

countries of origin, which are usually in stage 4

c)

receiving countries, which are usually in stage 2

d)

receiving countries, which are usually in stage 4

2.

In countries of ORIGIN, migration might

a)

increase the dependency ratio by removing working-age people

b)

increase the dependency ratio by adding more old people

c)

decrease the dependency ratio problem by removing working-age people

d)

decrease the dependency ratio problem by adding more old people

3.

Countries that receive immigrants are typically

a)

further along in the demographic transition and more developed

b)

further along in the demographic transition and less developed

c)

earlier in the demographic transition and more developed

d)

earlier in the demographic transition and less developed

4.

Which region is most associated with needing large numbers of Guest Workers for the oil and energy industry?

a)

the Middle East

b)

Latin America

c)

East Asia

d)

Europe

5.

Between 1890 and 1914, the most common source of immigration to the US was

a)

Northern and Western Europe

b)

Southern and Eastern Europe

c)

Latin America and Asia

d)

Sub-Saharan Africa

6.

Immigrants from Ireland were mostly [ ], and settled predominantly in [ ].

a)

Protestant, Pennsylvania and the Midwest

b)

Catholic, Pennsylvania and the Midwest

c)

Protestant, Northeastern cities

d)

Catholic, Northeastern cities

7.

Which is NOT an accurate statement of one of Ravenstein's laws of migration?

a)

People tend to migrate shorter distances.

b)

Generally, migration is from urban to rural areas.

c)

In the past, men were more likely to migrate, but the number of female migrants is rising.

d)

Younger people are more likely to migrate than older ones.

8.

Which of the following is a DEMOGRAPHIC PUSH factor?

a)

gender imbalance making it hard to find a mate

b)

unemployment

c)

natural disaster

d)

government persecution

9.

Which type of population density gives geographers an idea of much pressure a population is putting on its land?

a)

agricultural

b)

arithmetic

c)

physiological

10.

This population pyramid is

a)

a stage 2 country, with fast population growth

b)

a stage 2 country, with slow/zero population growth

c)

a stage 4 country, with fast population growth

d)

a stage 4 country, with slow/zero population growth

11.

This population pyramid is

a)

a stage 2 country, with fast population growth

b)

a stage 2 country, with slow/zero population growth

c)

a stage 4 country, with fast population growth

d)

a stage 4 country, with slow/zero population growth

12.

Which stage has the highest NIR and population growth?

a)

Stage 1

b)

Stage 2

c)

Stage 3

d)

Stage 4

13.

At which stage of the EPIDEMIOLOGICAL model do improvements in sanitation and medicine start to decrease deaths from infectious diseases (RECEDING pandemics)?

a)

Stage 1

b)

Stage 2

c)

Stage 3

d)

Stage 4

14.

What is the formula for calculating doubling time?

a)

70/TFR

b)

70/RNI

c)

30/TFR

d)

30/RNI

15.

Which countries are in Stage 4, with an ageing population? (Check ALL that apply!)

a)

Kenya

b)

Germany

c)

India

d)

Japan

e)

China

16.

Today, the main means of cultural diffusion is

a)

relocation by migrants or tourists

b)

internet and social media

c)

television and radio

d)

top-down government directives

17.

Women in India protested to be permitted to

a)

enter a traditional Hindu temple

b)

drive

c)

stop wearing hijab

d)

go to soccer matches

18.

Adopting some cultural traits of the dominant group while retaining others of your own is known as

a)

acculturation

b)

assimilation

c)

syncretism

d)

multiculturalism

19.

When one group receives a culture element from another but gives it a new and unique form, that is called [ ] diffusion.

a)

hierarchical

b)

contagious

c)

stimulus

d)

relocation

20.

Which was NOT part of New France?

a)

West Africa

b)

Quebec

c)

Vietnam

d)

Brazil

21.

The Congo was the center of [ ] control in Africa.

a)

Belgian

b)

British

c)

French

d)

Dutch

22.

Folk culture is usually

a)

concentrated in smaller, isolated areas and spreads slowly through relocation diffusion

b)

concentrated in smaller, isolated areas and spreads quickly through contagious diffusion

c)

widespread over heterogeneous groups and spreads quickly through contagious diffusion

d)

widespread over heterogeneous groups and spreads slowly through relocation diffusion

23.

Because of religious taboos, Hindus refrain from eating [ ], while Muslims do not eat [ ].

a)

beef, pork

b)

pork, beef

c)

chicken, pork

d)

beef, chicken

24.

Moors are [ ] from North Africa who conquered [ ] in the 700s.

a)

Muslims, Spain

b)

Christians, Spain

c)

Muslims, France

d)

Christians, France

25.

The Troubles were a decades long conflict between [ ] in [ ].

a)

Catholics and Protestants in Northern Ireland

b)

Jews and Muslims in Northern Ireland

c)

Catholics and Protestants in Jerusalem

d)

Jews and Muslims in Jerusalem

26.

Which is NOT a correct match?

a)

Baptists... the Northeast

b)

Mormons... Utah

c)

Lutherans... Minnesota and the Dakotas

d)

Amish... Pennsylvania

27.

Which Christian sect is dominant in Russia and eastern Europe?

a)

the Orthodox Church

b)

Protestants

c)

Lutherans

d)

Catholics

28.

Which is a CENTRIPETAL force for the place?

a)

Religion in Europe

b)

Religion in Latin America

c)

Language in Canada

d)

Ethnicity in Nigeria

29.

Mecca, Saudi Arabia is the hearth of

a)

Islam

b)

Christianity

c)

Buddhism

d)

Judaism

30.

Which statement is NOT true?

a)

Many languages start as creoles but then develop into pidgin languages.

b)

Creole languages are the first language of some speakers.

c)

Creole languages have more advanced grammar and vocabulary.

d)

Creole languages are often formed through mixing traditional language with a colonizer's language.

31.

Which is not a correct match between country/region and dominant religion?

a)

Northern Europe, Protestantism

b)

Latin America, Roman Catholicism

c)

India, Buddhism

d)

Eastern Europe, Orthodox Christianity

32.

Which is NOT a universalizing religion?

a)

Hinduism

b)

Christianity

c)

Sikhism

d)

Buddhism

e)

Islam

33.

Lumbini, Nepal is the hearth of

a)

Islam

b)

Christianity

c)

Buddhism

d)

Judaism

34.

African Americans in the US live primarily in

a)

the Southeast and urban areas

b)

the Southwest and urban areas

c)

the Southeast and rural areas

d)

the Southwest and rural areas

35.

Which TWO countries best illustrate the geographical concept of the nation-state? (Make sure you choose TWO!)

a)

Canada

b)

Russia

c)

Belgium

d)

Iceland

e)

Japan

36.

Which is the LARGEST stateless nation in the world?

a)

Kurds

b)

Rohingya

c)

Roma (Gypsies)

d)

Palestinians

37.

Which of the following is NOT part of the definition of a state?

a)

Sovereignty within defined boundaries

b)

A permanent population

c)

An economy and currency circulation

d)

A shared culture and history

38.

Northern Ireland is

a)

a sub-national entity within the unitary state of Great Britain

b)

a formal region of the Republic of Ireland

c)

a sovereign state

d)

a fully autonomous region of England

39.

Private investors and foreign governments have leased farmland for large-scale commercial farming, where much of the food and crops produced are bound for wealthier nations. This practice is an example of

a)

decolonization

b)

supranationalism

c)

imperialism

d)

neocolonialism

e)

irredentism

40.

The India-Pakistan border line was

a)

superimposed and consequent

b)

geometric and relict

c)

natural and antecedent

d)

superimposed and relict

41.

Which of these things did NOT happen as a result of NAFTA?

a)

Manufacturing costs decreased thanks to lower labor costs.

b)

Consumer goods prices decreased as a result of lower production costs.

c)

Many low-wage jobs moved to Mexico.

d)

Mexico and the US adopted a common currency to facilitate trade.

42.

The process of re-allocating the 435 House seats every 10 years based on the results of the census is called

a)

reapportionment

b)

redistricting

c)

gerrymandering

d)

redlining

43.

Which is NOT a possible consequence of centrifugal forces?

a)

failed states

b)

uneven development

c)

ethnic nationalist or independence movements

d)

increased cultural cohesion and solidarity

44.

The Tamils are [ ] in Sri Lanka.

a)

a Hindu ethnic minority

b)

a Buddhist ethnic minority

c)

the Hindu ethnic majority

d)

the Buddhist ethnic majority

45.

The [ ] is a region of free movement of people, with no interior border controls.

a)

Schengen Area

b)

Eurozone

c)

European Single Market

d)

NAFTA

46.

Advances in communication technology have done all of the following EXCEPT

a)

promote globalization by connecting people more quickly across national boundaries

b)

support democratization and devolutionary movements by helping groups organize and gain support from the international community

c)

increase the effects of distance decay

d)

create a digital divide between countries with and without access for political or infrastructure reasons

47.

Which is an INCORRECT match between separatist movement and state?

a)

Biafra... Nigeria

b)

Moro... Philippines

c)

Basque... France

d)

Zapatista... Mexico

e)

Quebec... Canada

48.

The terrorist group Boko Haram is a fundamentalist

a)

Islamist group in Northern Nigeria

b)

Christian group in Northern Nigeria

c)

Islamist group in Southern Nigeria

d)

Christian group in Southern Nigeria

49.

Which two are FEDERAL states?

a)

China

b)

Belgium

c)

Nigeria

d)

the United Kingdom

e)

Japan

50.

1. The movement of power from central to local governments

2. The breakup of a large state into several independent ones


These are both definitions of

(a)  

51.

Which is NOT true of gerrymandering?

a)

It makes elections more competitive.

b)

It often depresses voter turnout.

c)

It is done by both major political parties.

d)

It affects politics at the national scale.

52.

Countries have FULL navigational and economic sovereignty over their

a)

12 mile territorial seas

b)

24 mile contiguous zones

c)

200 mile exclusive economic zones

d)

continental shelf

53.

This area would best be clarified as a(n)

a)

chokepoint

b)

shatterbelt

c)

autonomous region

d)

exclusive economic zone

54.

Which has not been a shatterbelt region?

a)

Yugoslavia

b)

Mexico

c)

Sudan

d)

Vietnam

55.

Which country has invested heavily in building infrastructure in Africa and the Middle East as part of its Belt and Road Initiative?

a)

China

b)

the US

c)

Russia

d)

Saudi Arabia

56.

Which is an incorrect match?

a)

Uyghurs... China

b)

Rohingya... Myanmar

c)

Flemings... Belgium

d)

Boko Haram... Syria

57.

Which was NOT an effect of the Green Revolution?

a)

increased air pollution from fossil fuels

b)

increased crop yields and life expectancies

c)

environmental damage

d)

the elimination of famine in the developing world

58.

Which region did the Green Revolution START in?

a)

Latin America

b)

East Asia

c)

South Asia

d)

Sub-Saharan Africa

59.

Which innovation had the MOST SIGNIFICANT effect in the Green Revolution?

a)

mechanized tractors and harvesters

b)

GMOs

c)

hybrid seeds

d)

irrigation

60.

Which statement is true about the Green Revolution?

a)

It upended traditional gender roles, giving most power to women.

b)

It did not substantially effect gender roles in most places.

c)

It increased men's power and dominance in society.

61.

Which is NOT a reason why the Green Revolution struggled to take hold in Africa?

a)

African farmers were skeptical of genetically-modified seeds.

b)

African governments could not adequately invest in expensive new technology.

c)

Most research focused on crops that were not conducive to Africa's climate.

d)

Transportation infrastructure made movement of goods difficult.

62.

Overnight farm stays, corn mazes, and educational school visits are all examples of

a)

agritourism

b)

agribusiness

c)

community-supported agriculture

d)

fair trade

63.

In the developing world, women make up about [ ]% of the agricultural labor force.

a)

70

b)

50

c)

20

d)

40

64.

Female-run farms tend to be

a)

20-30% less efficient than male-run ones

b)

20-30% more efficient than male-run ones

c)

50-60% less efficient than male-run ones

d)

50-60% more efficient than male-run ones

65.

Food deserts exist in

a)

more-developed countries

b)

less-developed countries

c)

areas with many farmers

d)

areas with few farmers

66.

Which countries are most associated with cocoa production?

a)

Ghana and Ivory Coast

b)

Nigeria and Benin

c)

Togo and Sudan

d)

Namibia and Libya

67.

During the winter months in North America, the primary source of fruits and vegetables found in grocery stores is

a)

Uruguay

b)

Chile

c)

Nigeria

d)

Philippines

68.

Luxury crops like tea, bananas, pineapple, coffee, and tea are grown predominantly in

a)

tropical regions

b)

arctic hothouses

c)

the Mediterranean region

d)

semi-arid places

69.

Which is NOT true of luxury crops?

a)

They are typically consumed in the same country they are produced.

b)

The primary consumers of these crops are developed countries.

c)

They are typically grown by monoculture.

d)

They are grown primarily by cheap labor in developing countries.

70.

Which is NOT true of the organic food movement?

a)

It requires farmers to use environmentally sustainable practices.

b)

Organic products often cost more than their factory farm counterparts.

c)

It often produces higher yields than factory farming.

d)

It is often more labor-intensive than factory farming.

71.

Which is NOT an example of value-added farming?

a)

free-range eggs

b)

milk

c)

grass-fed beef

d)

wine

e)

jams and jellies

72.

Which movement aims to reduce the use of fossil fuels used to transport food to distant customers?

a)

Fair Trade

b)

Organic Food

c)

Free Trade

d)

Locavore

73.

Which is NOT true of GMOs?

a)

They allow farmers to use fewer chemicals.

b)

They can vastly increase crop yields.

c)

They began to be widely used in the 1990s.

d)

They are too expensive for small farmers because they are sterile.

e)

They are used widely all over the world.

74.

The fastest growing form of agriculture in the world is

a)

aquaculture

b)

livestock ranching

c)

community gardens

d)

intensive rice production

75.

Which is NOT one of the reasons many crops are grown in less-developed countries?

a)

Land there is cheaper

b)

Labor is cheaper

c)

Labor and environmental regulations are less strict

d)

Large populations provide large markets for the product

76.

Which is NOT a consequence of globalized agriculture?

a)

Supply chains are longer and more complex.

b)

Problems or issues in one country may affect large numbers of producers and consumers.

c)

Farmers in LDCs have access to larger markets.

d)

Consumers in LDCs have access to a wider variety of products.

e)

Monoculture may increase the price of locally grown food in LDCs.

77.

The greatest number of urban dwellers is found in

a)

North America

b)

South America

c)

Africa

d)

Asia

78.

Edge cities are dominated by [ ] development.

a)

retail and office space

b)

residential

c)

recreational

d)

a CBD

79.

The Griffen-Ford Model was most influenced by

a)

Spanish urban planning laws

b)

American urban planning laws

c)

Portuguese urban planning laws

d)

French urban planning laws

80.

Most Latin American cities are focused on a

a)

central plaza

b)

government housing project

c)

zone of heavy industry

d)

squatter settlement

81.

Which of the following types of urban land use is most common on the periphery of cities in Latin America?

a)

a plaza surrounded by a CBD

b)

parks and recreation areas

c)

upper-class residential developments

d)

residential squatter settlements

82.

Which of the following best describes the process of gentrification in United States and Canadian cities?

a)

An increase in housing construction for elderly and retired people

b)

Privately funded redevelopment of existing commercial and residential buildings

c)

Government-led planning of public spaces such as parks and riverfronts

d)

The expansion of suburban housing on the urban periphery

83.

Which of the following groups would most likely engage in the gentrification of an older residential neighborhood?

a)

University students on limited incomes

b)

Double-income households without children

c)

People above sixty-five on limited incomes

d)

Recent immigrants on limited incomes

84.

Mixed-use development, pedestrian-friendly design, and the incorporation of front porches and alleys are design elements of which of the following?

a)

New urbanism

b)

Transit-oriented development

c)

Zero growth

d)

Leapfrog development

85.

Most urban planning in the US is done by

a)

local government ordinances

b)

state statutes

c)

national standards from the federal government

d)

international organizations

86.

The NIMBY movement was associated with

a)

the creation of concentrated public housing projects

b)

the scattered-site housing approach

c)

the locavore movement

d)

the New Urbanist movement

87.

All of the following are consequences of urban sprawl EXCEPT

a)

improved public transportation

b)

urban canyons

c)

brownfields

d)

destruction of animal habitats

88.

As a result of changes in the economy, many cities in MDCs have become centers for

a)

financial and technological services

b)

heavy manufacturing

c)

agricultural expansion

d)

middle-income residences

89.

Gentrification may result in all of the following EXCEPT

a)

an increase in property values

b)

increased investment and services

c)

displacement and pricing out of original residents

d)

renewal of blighted city spaces

e)

preservation of ethnic enclaves

90.

When real estate agents convinced whites to move out of homes by threatening them with plummeting property values as a result of minorities moving in, then re-purposed those homes as apartments to sell to minority families, that was

a)

redlining and filtering

b)

redlining and infilling

c)

blockbusting and filtering

d)

blockbusting and infilling

91.

Which of the following can PREVENT or COUNTERACT urban sprawl? Select ALL that apply.

a)

leapfrogging

b)

infilling

c)

investing in public transit

d)

New Urbanism

e)

greenfields

92.

All of these are CRITICISMS of New Urbanism EXCEPT

a)

unintentional segregation

b)

increased housing costs

c)

loss of historical character or placelessness

d)

an increase in food deserts

93.

Which does NOT describe European cities?

a)

Older, more historic buildings

b)

Better public transit

c)

More compact and walkable

d)

More green spaces

e)

Wider roads

94.

In contemporary manufacturing, the various stages of industry are

a)

all concentrated in the core

b)

spatially disaggregated across the globe

c)

mostly concentrated in the semiperiphery

d)

located in places where strong unions control the process

95.

An ethanol manufacturing plant that turns corn into alcohol for gasoline should locate

a)

Near a large university to facilitate recruitment of highly trained chemists

b)

Near a navigable river to reduce transportation costs to distant markets

c)

Near a prime corn-producing area to minimize transportation costs of raw materials

d)

Near a large metropolitan area to serve a major market

96.

The classic model of industrial location theory (Weber's least-cost model) suggests that the primary consideration in the location of an industrial site is which of the following?

a)

The institutional structure of the firm

b)

The cost of raw materials

c)

The location of the market

d)

The cost of transportation

97.

Which of the following industries will most likely locate closest to its raw material sources?

a)

Soft-drink bottling

b)

Brewing

c)

Nickel smelting

d)

Baking

e)

Automobile assembly

98.

The high-tech firms of Silicon Valley in California are clustered together to take advantage of

a)

cheap labor

b)

economies of scale

c)

access to markets

d)

agglomeration effects

e)

high-speed transportation

99.

The establishment of maquiladoras by United States corporations for the production of electronics components is an example of which of the following?

a)

Exploitation of union labor

b)

Industrialization

c)

New international division of labor

d)

Tertiary economic activity

e)

Colonialism

100.

Which of the following sectors of the economy has grown the fastest in the United States since the mid-1970s?

a)

Service

b)

Agriculture

c)

Retail

d)

Manufacturing

e)

Military

101.

Which of the following has fostered the most significant economic growth by eliminating import tariffs between member states?

a)

The European Union

b)

The Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries

c)

The North Atlantic Treaty Organization

d)

The United Nations

e)

The Association of Caribbean States (ACS)

102.

Many companies have moved domestic manufacturing to the [ ].

a)

South

b)

Northeast

c)

West

d)

Great Plains region

103.

Soda bottling is a

a)

bulk-gaining industry, which will be located close to the market

b)

bulk-gaining industry, which will be located close to the raw material

c)

bulk-losing industry, which will be located close to the market

d)

bulk-losing industry, which will be located close to the raw material

104.

Companies have moved factories to the South for all of the following reasons EXCEPT

a)

cheaper land

b)

lower cost of living

c)

lower wages

d)

more laws protecting workers

105.

Contracting work to non-company employees to save money is called

a)

economies of scale

b)

outsourcing

c)

offshoring

d)

agglomeration

106.

Which TWO organizations are trading blocs/economic supranational organizations?

a)

NAFTA

b)

the EU

c)

the UN

d)

NATO

107.

Silicon Valley is a technopole because it has all of the following EXCEPT

a)

access to highly-skilled and educated labor

b)

access to investment capital

c)

low corporate taxes

d)

other important tech headquarters

108.

Which sector becomes dominant when a country DEINDUSTRIALIZES?

a)

primary

b)

secondary

c)

tertiary

d)

quinary

109.

All of the following are true of Rostow's Stages of Economic Growth EXCEPT

a)

Suggests that all countries should modernize and pursue mass consumption

b)

Based on American and European experiences

c)

Emphasizes the interconnectedness of countries

d)

Prescribes a series of steps countries can take to advance

110.

Which measure describes the gap between men and women in a country?

a)

GDP

b)

Gini

c)

GII

d)

HDI