WorksheetsA&P MyLab Questions
Total questions: 234
Worksheet time: 2hrs 57mins
which plasma constituent is the main contributor to clotting?
fibrinogen
albumin
beta globulins
alpha globulins
Which of the following is not a function of blood?
protection from infection
transport of metabolic wastes
hormone production
homeostatic regulation
Which of the following plasma proteins is improperly matched with its function?
gamma globulins: lipid transport
gamma globulins: lipid transport
albumin: osmotic pressure
fibrinogen: clotting
What triggers erythropoietin (EPO) release that leads to the production of new red blood cells?
a high hematocrit
excess oxygen in the bloodstream
too many platelets
reduced availability of oxygen
How many oxygen molecules can be transported by one hemoglobin molecule?
two
four
eight
Erythropoietin (EPO) stimulates the developmental process shown here. What part of the body does erythropoietin (EPO) target to increase erythropoiesis?
bone marrow
kidneys
liver
lungs
What erythrocyte production disorder results from an autoimmune disease associated with insufficient vitamin B12 absorption (step 6)?
hemorrhagic anemia
renal anemia
aplastic anemia
pernicious anemia
Which of the following does NOT stimulate erythrocyte production?
hyperventilating
testosterone
a drop in blood oxygen levels
erythropoietin
Bilirubin is released into the bloodstream as old or damaged red blood cells are broken down by macrophages. Which organ is responsible for removing bilirubin from the blood stream?
pancreas
spleen
liver
kidneys
__________ is caused by a genetic mutation that results in the production of abnormal hemoglobin. Under low-oxygen conditions, the abnormal beta chains link together and form stiff rods that alter the shape of the RBCs.
Leukopenia
thalassemia
polycythemia
sickle-cell anemia
Which type of leukocyte provides protection against parasitic worms?
basophil
lymphocyte
eosinophil
neutrophil
Which of the following leukocyte is not correctly matched with its function?
lymphocytes: immune response against viral infections
monocytes: develop into macrophage
basophils: inflammation
neutrophils: produce antibodies
Your patient has a hematocrit of 56%. You recall from your anatomy and physiology class that high hematocrits are often a sign of blood doping by athletes. However, your patient is an elderly man suffering from the flu. What is most likely accounting for his elevated hematocrit?
He is leaking blood into his abdominal cavity.
Your patient is on chemo and it is causing him to produce too many red blood cells.
He is dehydrated from the flu.
He recently donated blood.
Which of the following is FALSE regarding the role of platelets in hemostatic reactions?
Platelets do not stick to intact endothelial cells.
Platelets release chemicals that attract and bind other platelets.
Platelets adhere to exposed collagen fibers.
Platelets release the only chemical factors that can initiate coagulation.
What enzyme removes unneeded clots after healing has occurred?
fibrin
thrombin
plasminogen
plasmin
plasmin
Submit
fibrin
thrombin
prothrombin activator
fibrinogen
Which of the following represents a difference between extrinsic and intrinsic blood clotting pathways?
One involves calcium ions, while the other does not.
One can be triggered by tissue damage, while the other cannot.
One is faster than the other.
One leads to the formation of prothrombin activator and the other does not.
Which of the following would NOT lead to a bleeding disorder?
vitamin K deficiency
excess calcium in the diet
impaired liver function
thrombocytopenia
Which of the following statements is true?
A person with type AB blood produces both anti-A and anti-B antibodies (agglutinins).
A person with type O blood produces both type A and type B antigens (agglutinogens).
Type O blood can safely be given to recipients with type B blood.
Type A blood can safely be given to recipients with type B blood.
Which ABO blood type is considered to be the universal recipient?
B
AB
O
A
Which of the following scenarios could result in HDN (hemolytic disease of the newborn)?
A-positive female pregnant with a B-positive baby
B-negative female pregnant with an AB-positive baby
AB-negative female pregnant with an AB-negative baby
O-positive female pregnant with a B-positive baby
Choose the incompatible transfusion.
Donate type B blood to a recipient with type AB blood.
Donate type O blood to a recipient with type AB blood.
Donate type A blood to a recipient with type AB blood.
Donate type B blood to a recipient with type O blood.
Submit
The amplification of the signal from a water-soluble hormone is achieved through an increase in _______.
cAMP in the cytoplasm
plasma membrane receptors
water-soluble hormone in the blood
phosphodiesterase in the cytoplasm
adenylate cyclase in the plasma membrane
Submit
Water-soluble hormones affect target cells by binding to __________.
protein kinases
caMP
cytoplasmic receptors
plasma membrane receptors
adenylate cyclase
How do endocrine hormones reach their target cells?
Hormones travel through the lymphatic system to target cells.
Hormones are transported through the blood stream to target cells.
Hormones are released at synapses adjacent to target cells.
Ducts transport hormones directly to target cells.
Hormones are produced by endocrine cells that are adjacent to target cells.
What is the role of activated protein kinases?
Activate adenylate cyclase.
Convert ATP to cAMP by phosphorylation.
Phosphorylate proteins.
Phosphorylate ADP to ATP.
Degrade cAMP to AMP.
Submit
Cyclic AMP is degraded by __________.
phosphodiesterase
G proteins
adenylate cyclase
protein kinase
AMP
Which of the following enzymes are important in the deactivation of cAMP and termination of signaling?
G protein
phosphodiesterase
protein kinase
adenylate cyclase
What type of hormones bind to receptors located on the cell membrane?
lipid-soluble hormones, such as thyroid hormones and cortisol
water-soluble hormones, such as insulin and epinephrine
Which intracellular substance degrades cAMP, thus inactivating the response to a hormone?
phosphodiesterase
protein kinase C
phospholipase C
adenylate cyclase
Submit
Growth factor hormones, such as insulin, bind to which type of receptor?
G proteins
intracellular receptors
tyrosine kinase receptors
Which is the correct order of events for hormones activating Gs proteins?
activation of G protein, binding of GTP, activation of phospholipase C, activation of DAG and IP3
activation of a G protein, tyrosine kinase receptor, phosphorylation of intracellular proteins
activation of G protein, binding of GTP, activation of adenylate cyclase, conversion of ATP to cAMP
Which second messenger causes the release of calcium from the endoplasmic reticulum?
tyrosine kinase
DAG
IP3
cAMP
Which of the following adrenergic receptors increase cAMP levels?
β receptors
α1 receptors
α2 receptors
Which of the following hormones has intracellular receptors?
cortisol
epinephrine
insulin
What is the mechanism of action of lipid-soluble hormones?
phosphorylation of intracellular proteins
activation of genes, which increases protein synthesis in the cell
increasing protein kinases
Submit
After a lipid-soluble hormone is bound to its intracellular receptor, what does the hormone complex do?
acts as a transcription factor and binds to DNA, activating a gene
activates a protein kinase
phosphorylates a protein
directly alters protein synthesis at the ribosome
Which hormone’s receptor is always bound to DNA, even when the receptor is empty?
thyroid hormone
insulin
cortisol
What keeps intracellular receptors from binding to DNA before a hormone binds to the receptor?
transcription factors
Receptors can’t enter the nucleus until the hormone is bound to it.
chaperone proteins (chaperonins)
What tropic hormone stimulates cortisol from the adrenal gland?
thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
growth hormone (GH)
adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
Submit
What is the function of the ventral hypothalamic neurons?
control secretion of oxytocin
control secretion of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
control secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
control secretion of thyroid hormones
Insulin-like growth factors (IGFs) are intermediary hormones stimulated by which of the following hormones?
oxytocin
GH (growth hormone)
prolactin (PRL)
thyroid hormones
Submit
Which of the following hormones is regulated by a neuroendocrine (“letdown”) reflex?
cortisol
oxytocin
antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
Where is antidiuretic hormone (ADH), also known as vasopressin, synthesized?
anterior pituitary
kidney
posterior pituitary
hypothalamus
What is the most important regulatory factor controlling the circulating levels of thyroid hormone?
a circadian rhythm of release
negative feedback
thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH)
thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
Your patient has been admitted to the intensive care unit with a severe head injury. As you monitor his urine output, you find that it has fallen sharply. Lab tests indicate that his serum osmolality is lower than normal (i.e., his plasma is too dilute). What should you suspect?
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
Prolactin
Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)
Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
Acromegaly may be caused by all EXCEPT which of the following?
hypersecretion of GHRH (growth hormone-releasing hormone)
pancreatic tumor
lack of negative feedback by insulin-like growth factors
hyposecretion of GH in adulthood
Submit
A blow to the head may cause diabetes insipidus by ______.
triggering the hypersecretion of hypothalamic-inhibiting hormones
triggering the hyposecretion of hypothalamic-inhibiting hormones
interfering with the normal transmission of nerve impulses to the posterior pituitary
interfering with the normal transmission of nerve impulses from the posterior pituitary
What is the target of thyroid hormones?
hypothalamus
thyroid
anterior pituitary
cells of the body
Where is thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) made?
anterior pituitary
follicular cells of the thyroid gland
posterior pituitary
hypothalamus
Where is the thyroid gland located?
at the base of the brain near the hypothalamus
posterior to the sternum in the thoracic cavity
adjacent to the trachea in the neck
posterior to the parathyroid glands in the neck
Submit
Which of the following is NOT secreted by the thyroid?
calcitonin
triiodothyronine
thyroxine
thyroid-stimulating hormone
Under normal conditions, increased levels of thyroid hormone in the blood will cause _______.
no change in TSH levels
a decrease in TSH levels
an increase in TSH levels
an increase in thyrotropin releasing hormone (TRH)
Submit
Hypocalcemia could be caused by the ______.
apoptosis of parathyroid cells
failure of osteoclasts to respond to PTH (parathyroid hormone/parathormone)
malfunction of the parathormone receptors in kidney tubule cells
all of the above
If a person's parathyroids are responding properly to a drop in blood calcium, which of the following should result?
Bone mass and density will increase.
Vitamin D levels in the blood will drop.
More calcium will be present in feces.
Less calcium will be excreted in the urine by the kidneys.
Which of the following would result from hypoparathyroidism?
an increase in calcium ion in circulating blood
an increase in calcium absorption in the kidney tubule
a decrease in the release of calcium from bones
an increase in calcium absorption from food
What type of stimulation controls parathyroid release?
neural
paracrine
hormonal
humoral
Pheochromocytoma produces symptoms of uncontrolled sympathetic nervous system activity. Which of the following is common to both adrenal chromaffin cells and adrenergic fibers of the sympathetic nervous system?
the presence of axons capable of secreting substances that are capable of increasing heart rate
secretion of epinephrine
secretion of norepinephrine
All of the listed responses are correct.
Adrenocortical androgens are normally converted in females into estrogens. However, in adrenogenital syndrome, females develop a beard and a masculine pattern of body hair distribution; this occurs due to ______.
negative feedback that inhibits estrogen production
conversion of estrogens into testosterone
insufficient level of enzymes that convert androgens into estrogens
increased testosterone secretion
Your patient has been diagnosed with Type I diabetes mellitus, and you are explaining how to administer insulin. Your patient states, "I don't want to do this. My brother-in-law has diabetes, and he just takes a pill and watches what he eats." What is your best response?
"I'll ask the doctor if you can try an oral pill and a low carbohydrate diet before using insulin."
"Your relative may have Type II diabetes. People with that condition can make insulin, but their cells don't respond to it properly. Your pancreas doesn't manufacture insulin."
"Great. Maybe your relative can give you some tips on how to manage your condition."
"Perhaps you can switch to pills and a special diet once your diabetes is under control."
When blood glucose levels are high
The liver releases glucagon.
The pancreas releases glucose.
The pancreas releases insulin.
The liver releases insulin.
The pancreas releases glucagon.
A liver cell responds to insulin by
releasing glucagon
breaking down glycogen and releasing glucose
releasing insulin
taking in glucose and converting it to glycogen
taking in glucose and converting it to glucagon
What cells in the body respond to glucagon by breaking down glycogen and releasing glucose?
cells in the pancreas
intestinal cells
liver cells
liver cells and cells in the pancreas
muscle cells
Body cells that respond to insulin include
Liver cells only.
Intestinal cells only.
Muscle cells only.
Liver cells, as well as most other cells of the body.
Liver cells and muscle cells only.
Submit
When blood glucose levels are low
Liver cells convert more glucose to glycogen.
The pancreas releases insulin, which eventually causes blood glucose levels to decrease.
The pancreas releases glucagon, which eventually causes blood glucose levels to increase.
The pancreas releases glucagon, which eventually causes blood glucose levels to decrease.
The pancreas releases insulin, which eventually causes blood glucose levels to increase.
The body's tendency to maintain relatively constant internal conditions is called
diabetes
homeostasis
positive feedback
negative feedback
none of the above
All of the following conditions would stimulate the pancreas to release insulin EXCEPT one. Which one?
a rise in blood amino acid levels
a rise in blood glucose levels
acetylcholine release on the pancreatic cells
sympathetic activation
Which of the following triggers the release of glucagon?
release of insulin
hyperglycemia
prolonged fasting
release of somatostatin
Submit
Which of the cell types would secrete their product if the blood glucose level was rising, as during digestion of a meal?
pancreatic acinar cells
alpha cells
beta cells
What is happening during the “pause” phase when the heart is resting (relaxing)?
ventricles are filling
atria are contracting
ventricles are contracting
valves are closing
What causes the abnormal swishing or whooshing sound that is heard as blood regurgitates back into an atrium from its associated ventricle?
blood turbulence
pulmonary trunk expansion
aortic recoil
semilunar valve closure
Which of these vessels returns blood to the left atrium of the heart?
superior vena cava
pulmonary trunk
pulmonary veins
coronary sinus
Which of these muscles is particularly associated with anchoring the right and left atrioventricular valves?
trabeculae carnae
pectinate muscles
myocardium
papillary muscles
The right tricuspid valve prevents backflow of blood from the right ventricle into the __________.
left ventricle
pulmonary trunk
left atrium
right atrium
Which statement is correct regarding the ventricles?
The right ventricle forms a complete circle in cross section.
The left ventricle has a thinner wall than the right ventricle.
The left ventricle empties into the pulmonary circuit.
The right ventricle empties into the pulmonary trunk.
Cardiac tamponade results in ineffective pumping of blood by the heart. This is because the excessive amount of fluid in the pericardial cavity will ______.
prevent the visceral layer of the serous pericardium from properly surrounding the heart
prevent the heart from filling properly with blood
prevent proper oxygenation of the blood
interfere with the ability of this fluid to lubricate the serous membranes
Submit
The greater the mass of tissue in an organ, the greater its need for an adequate blood supply. Which chamber of the heart has the highest probability of being the site of a myocardial infarction?
right atrium
left atrium
left ventricle
right ventricle
Failure in a particular structure of the heart tends to cause a backup of blood in the lungs, known as pulmonary congestive heart failure. Failure of which structure of the heart would lead to such a backup?
pulmonary semilunar valve
right ventricle
left ventricle
right atrium
The presence of an incompetent tricuspid valve would have the direct effect of causing ______.
reduced efficiency in the delivery of blood to the lungs
reduced efficiency in the delivery of blood to the myocardium
reduced efficiency in the delivery of blood from the lungs to the heart
reduced efficiency in the delivery of blood from the head to the heart
Submit
The heart is actually (one, two, or three) pumps?
two
one
three
Which chamber receives blood from the superior and inferior vena cavae?
right atrium
right ventricle
left ventricle
left atrium
Which heart chamber receives blood from the pulmonary veins?
left atrium
right atrium
left ventricle
right ventricle
Which heart chamber pumps unoxygenated blood out the pulmonary trunk?
left ventricle
right atrium
right ventricle
left atrium
Which chamber pumps oxygenated blood out the aorta to the systemic circuit?
right atrium
right ventricle
left atrium
left ventricle
Consider the following characteristics of the cells found in muscle tissue. Which feature is shared by both cardiac muscle and skeletal muscle?
striatrions
triads
branched cells
intercalated discs
Why are gap junctions a vital part of the intercellular connection of cardiac muscles?
Gap junctions form strong intercellular connections.
Gap junctions contract when stimulated, strengthening the force of cardiac cell contraction.
Gap junctions allow action potentials to spread to connected cells.
Gap junctions allow calcium to enter the cell, triggering calcium release from the SR.
Suppose a patient develops a myocardial infarction that disables the sinoatrial node. Would the heart still pump blood to the aorta and the pulmonary trunk?
Yes, because the atrioventricular node will still stimulate ventricular systole.
No, because there will be no contraction of the atria.
No, because there would be no more connection between the atrioventricular node and the bundle branches.
Yes, because the ventricles will depolarize on their own without nodal stimulation at a rate of 50 times per minute.
Which portion of the electrocardiogram represents the time during which the ventricles are in systole?
QRS complex
T wave
P wave
Q-T interval
What would happen to the SA node if a chemical blocker was used to reduce transport of Na+ into the pacemaker cells?
The SA node would depolarize more slowly, increasing the heart rate.
The SA node would depolarize more quickly, decreasing the heart rate.
The SA node would depolarize more slowly, reducing the heart rate.
The SA node would depolarize more quickly, increasing the heart rate.
no change
The P wave on an electrocardiogram represents __________.
atrial depolarization
atrial repolarization
ventricular repolarization
ventricular depolarization
What structure in the intrinsic cardiac conduction system determines heart rate?
sinoatrial node
vagus nerve
atrioventricular node
cardiac nerve
Why does a graph of the membrane potential of living pacemaker cells never demonstrate a flat line?
As pacemaker cells hyperpolarize, the excessive influx of K+ ions increases the membrane potential
Repolarization of pacemaker cells triggers the opening of fast Ca2+ channels, triggering another rapid depolarization.
Hyperpolarization of pacemaker cells triggers the opening of slow Na+ channels and starts a new slow depolarization phase.
The vagus nerve continually stimulates the pacemaker cells.
In contrast to a skeletal muscle cell action potential, why does the action potential for a cardiac muscle cell contain a “plateau” phase?
Cardiac muscle cells contain slow Ca2+Ca2+ channels in their sarcolemma that continue to allow influx of Ca2+Ca2+ ions after Na+Na+ channels are inactivated.
Cardiac muscle cells are depolarized by the influx of Ca2+Ca2+ ions rather than by Na+Na+ ions, and cardiac muscle cells contain few pumps to return Ca2+Ca2+ ions to the extracellular fluid
Cardiac muscle cells lack the gap junctions found in skeletal muscle tissue, resulting in action potentials that “plateau.”
Cardiac muscle cells contain slow voltage-gated Na+Na+ channels instead of the typical fast Na+Na+ channels found in skeletal muscle cells.
What is the role of the atrioventricular bundle?
The atrioventricular bundle is what brings parasympathetic signals from the autonomic nervous system to the heart to regulate heart rate and contractility.
The atrioventricular bundle is responsible for initiating the heartbeat and setting the sinus rhythm.
The atrioventricular bundle provides the only pathway for electrical signals to pass from the atria to the ventricles.
The atrioventricular bundle is the only structure that allows blood to pass from the atria to the ventricles.
Which part of the intrinsic conduction system normally initiates the depolarizing impulse that causes a heartbeat?
SA node
AV bundel
AV node
internodal pathway
Which of these structures conduct(s) action potentials the slowest?
AV bundle
AV node
bundle branches
purkinje fibers
Action potentials generated by the autorhythmic cells spread to the contractile cells through what structures in the membrane?
tight junctions
gap junctions
desmosomes
intercalated discs
One of the changes that occurs in the pacemaker potential (unstable resting membrane potential) in the SA node (an autorhythmic cell) is a decreased efflux of what ion?
potassium
sodium
calcium
When threshold is reached at the SA node (an autorhythmic cell), what channels open causing further depolarization of the membrane?
fast sodium
slow calcium
fast calcium
potassium
Repolarization of an autorhythmic cell is due to the opening of which channels?
voltage-gated potassium channels
chemically gated calcium channels
Chemically gated potassium channels
voltage-gated sodium channels
In order to cause cardiac muscle contraction, the contractile cells must also depolarize. What causes the depolarization of the contractile cells?
the flow of positive ions from adjacent cells
an unstable resting membrane potential in the contractile cells
the flow of negative ions from adjacent cells
What is the period during the cardiac cycle when the valves leading to and from the ventricles are completely closed and blood volume in the ventricles remains constant as the walls contract?
ventricular filling
isovolumetric relaxation phase
ventricular ejection
isovolumetric contraction phase
At what point in the cardiac cycle is pressure in the ventricles the highest (around 120 mm Hg in the left ventricle)?
mid-to-late diastole (atrial contraction)
ventricular filling
early diastole (isovolumetric relaxation)
ventricular systole
During which of these stages are the aortic and pulmonary valves open?
phase 1
phase 2a
phase 2b
phase 3
Which best describe the isovolumetric contraction phase of the cardiac cycle?
The pressure from the atrial contractions opens the semilunar valves.
As ventricular systole starts, the AV valves are closed and the semilunar valves are closed. Because the ventricles are contracting and both valves are closed, pressure increases rapidly leading to ejection.
As pressure builds up in the ventricles during systole, the AV valves open and allow blood to leave the heart.
As ventricular systole starts, the AV valves close, which immediately opens the semilunar valves.
Submit
The first heart sound (the "lub" of the "lub-dup") is caused by __________.
ventricular contraction
closure of the semilunar valves
closure of the atrioventricular valves
atrial contraction
The beginning of the QRS complex of the electrocardiogram (ECG) immediately precedes which of the following events?
closing of the atrioventricular valves
blood ejection from the ventricles
atrial contraction
closing of the semilunar valves
Submit
Which of the following can be heard with a stethoscope most easily?
Closing of atrioventricular valves
Isovolumetric contraction
Blood flow into aorta
Contraction of atria
Submit
Which of the following would cause a DECREASE in cardiac output (CO)?
an increase in adrenal medulla output (epinephrine)
heightened use of skeletal muscle
decreasing thyroid function (thyroxine)
suddenly standing up from a supine position
Submit
Which of the following INCREASES stroke volume?
exercise
decrease in end diastolic volume (EDV)
decrease in preload
severe blood loss
What best describes afterload?
contractility of cardiac musce
back pressure exerted by arterial blood
cardiac reserve
degree of stretch of the heart muscle
As your skeletal muscles contract during physical activity, more blood is returned to the heart. Which variable would be affected and what would be the outcome of this action?
End-systolic volume would be increased, which would increase cardiac output.
Afterload would increase, which would increase cardiac output.
Contractility would be increased, which would result in a larger cardiac output.
Preload would be increased, which would result in a larger cardiac output.
Hypercalcemia could cause ______.
increased osteoclast activity
prolonged T wave
hypersecretion of parathyroid hormone
all of the above
How does heart rate affect stroke volume?
A high heart rate reduces the end diastolic volume (EDV) and stroke volume (SV), because there is less time for ventricular filling.
A low heart rate reduces the end diastolic volume (EDV) and stroke volume (SV), because an inadequate supply of blood is pumped into the ventricles.
A high heart rate increases venous return, which increases end diastolic volume (EDV) and stroke volume (SV).
A high heart rate decreases venous return, which increases end systolic volume (ESV) and stroke volume (SV).
What is the effect of high blood pressure on cardiac output?
High blood pressure reduces afterload, thereby increasing cardiac output (CO).
High blood pressure increases afterload and reduces cardiac output (CO).
High blood pressure increases preload and ventricular filling, thereby increasing cardiac output (CO).
High blood pressure occurs only when the cardiac output is already very high.
Which statement best describes the autonomic nervous system’s role in regulating heart rate?
The parasympathetic division increases the heart rate during strenuous exercise or conditions of fright or anxiety.
The parasympathetic division normally inhibits the heart, keeping it beating at a slower rate than it would be on its own.
The parasympathetic division does not innervate the heart at all, and the sympathetic division innervates it only slightly.
The sympathetic division continually stimulates the heart to keep it from slowing to an inadequate rate for oxygenating the body.
Which of the following is an effect of epinephrine, norepinephrine, and thyroxine?
increased end systolic volume
increase contractility
decrease heart rate
decrease cardiac output
An increase in sympathetic stimulation of the heart would increase stroke volume by increasing __________.
contractility
end diastolic volume
heart rate
end systolic volume
Which layer of the typical blood vessel is constructed from simple squamous epithelium?
tunica intima
tunica media
tunica externa
Which layer of the typical vessel can be regulated to constrict or dilate the lumen?
tunica media
vasa vasorum
tunica intima
tunica externa
Which type of vessel is most suited to expanding and recoiling in response to the ejection of blood from the heart?
elastic artery
large veins
muscular artery
arteriole
Which of the following form successively larger vessels that carry blood toward the heart?
arteries
capillaries
venules
veins
As the kidneys filter blood, it is necessary for both fluid and dissolved chemicals in the plasma to be rapidly removed without the removal of larger proteins or cells. Which capillary would be best suited for this filtration?
sinusoid capillaries
fenestrated capillaries
continuous capillaries
anastomoses
Varicose veins seen in the superficial veins of the legs are unsightly and are often treated by surgical removal. However, even without these veins being present, the return of all blood toward the heart from the legs is not diminished. This is primarily because ______.
the precapillary sphincters will contract to prevent blood from flowing toward areas where veins have been removed
blood can still return via the deep veins
in the absence of the venous valves (that have been removed), the blood will backflow into the capillary beds and then flow into other venules
all of the above
Which of the following is mismatched?
elastic arteries: conducting vessels
capillaries: exchange vessels
muscular arteries: distribution vessels
veins: resistance vessels
Which of the following would decrease total peripheral resistance to blood flow?
decreasing the hematocrit
vasoconstriction
increasing blood vessel length
atherosclerosis
Which of the following is NOT an important source of resistance to blood flow?
total blood volume
blood viscosity
vessel diameter
vessel length
You have a patient with a very low blood pressure of 80/60 mm Hg. What are the possible consequences of this low blood pressure on capillary function?
a) Mean arterial pressure (MAP) would not be high enough for adequate capillary exchange to occur.
capillaries may rupture
c) Tissues would become ischemic because of lack of adequate perfusion
a and c are correct
What vessels sustain a drop in pressure from approximately 35 mm Hg to around 17 mm Hg?
elastic arteries
veins
arterioles
capillaries
Which of the following lowers blood pressure by reducing the sympathetic vasomotor response?
Increasing the secretion of atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
Administering a cholinergic blocking agent
Increasing the secretion of vasopressin
Increasing the levels of circulating aldosterone
In the capillaries, hydrostatic pressure (HP) is exerted by __________.
blood pressure
proteins in the blood
The net hydrostatic pressure (HP) is the hydrostatic pressure in the __________ minus hydrostatic pressure in the __________.
capillary; interstitial fluid
interstitial fluid; capillary
Which of the following would reflect the typical net hydrostatic pressure (HP) at the arterial end of the capillary?
1 mm Hg
34 mm Hg
12 mm Hg
The colloid osmotic pressure in the capillary is caused by __________.
blood pressure
proteins in the blood
Which net pressure draws fluid into the capillary?
net hydrostatic pressure
net osmotic pressure
Reabsorption of fluid into the capillary takes place at the arterial end or venous end of the capillary?
venous
arterial
Where are the sensors for the arterial baroreceptor reflex located?
carotid sinus and aortic arch
cardiovascular centers in the medulla oblongata
The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems
Submit
If blood pressure is increased at the arterial baroreceptors, what would happen with the activity level of the parasympathetic nervous system (PNS) and sympathetic nervous system (SNS)?
decreased PNS activity and increased SNS activity
increased PNS and SNS activity
increased PNS activity and decreased SNS activity
Which of the following would cause vasodilation of arterioles?
decreased activity of the sympathetic nervous system
increased activity of the sympathetic nervous system
increased activity of the parasympathetic nervous system
decreased activity of the parasympathetic nervous system
Stimulation of the adrenal medulla would result in which of the following?
vasodilation of arteries
a decrease in cardiac output
a decrease in blood pressure
an increase in heart rate and contractility
A decrease in blood pressure at the arterial baroreceptors would result in which of the following?
a decrease in heart rate
a decrease in cardiac output
vasodilation of arterioles
an increase in heart contractility
Which of the following hormones will lower blood pressure?
aldosterone
ADH
angiotensin II
atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
Which of the following would take the longest time to regulate blood pressure?
renal regulation
chemoreceptor-initiated reflexes
baroreceptor-initiated reflexes
hormonal control of peripheral resistance
Submit
Which of the following is NOT a vasoconstrictor?
ADH
norepinephrine
angiotensin II
ANP
A muscle that is being regularly contracted during exercise will attract blood flow by dilating arterioles. Which of these factors would contribute to this effect?
an increase in sympathetic tone
heat loss from the muscle
increased levels of carbon dioxide
increased levels of oxygen
Which of the following is a myogenic factor that influences blood flow?
atrial natriuretic peptide
sympathetic tone
epinephrine from the adrenal medulla
stretch of vascular smooth muscle
Which of the following would NOT be a cause of edema in your patient's lower extremities?
excess protein in diet
pregnancy
congestive heart failure
sitting during a long flight
Which of the following CANNOT diffuse across a capillary wall to or from the surrounding interstitial fluid?
proteins
O2 and CO2
lipid-soluble substances
monosaccharides and AA
What pressure is responsible for reabsorption and for pulling fluids into the venous end of capillaries?
osmotic pressure in capillary (OPc)
hydrostatic pressure in interstitial fluid (HPif)
hydrostatic pressure in a capillary (HPc)
osmotic pressure in interstitial fluid (OPif)
Lymphedema may be treated by all EXCEPT which of the following?
manual compression of the affected area
movements of the affected area
treatments that promote growth of lymphatic vessels
bed rest to allow enhanced blood flow and therefore healing of the affected area
Which statement correctly describes the origin of lymph fluid?
Lymph is secreted into the lymph vessels.
Lymph is collected from fluid that accumulates in veins as blood slowly circulates back toward the heart.
Lymph is fluid collected from arteriovenous anastomoses.
Lymph is excess tissue fluid formed from plasma that has leaked from capillaries
Once collected, lymph is ultimately transported into __________.
lymph nodes
venous circulation
the liver for detoxification
arterial circulation
Which of the following is NOT a function of the lymphatic system?
to carry pathogens towards lymph nodes
to participate in gas exchange at capillaries
to return excess interstitial fluid to the bloodstream
to transport absorbed lipids from the small intestine to the bloodstream
Which of the following mechanisms is NOT used to propel lymph through lymphatic vessels?
milking action of muscles
gravity
small heart-like pumps
pulmonary motion
Which lymphoid organ(s) serve(s) as the site where T lymphocytes become immunocompetent T cells?
thymus gland
thyroid gland
tonsils
red bone marrow
Lymph arrives at the lymph nodes via afferent lymphatic vessels.
true
false
Tears and mucus membranes would be a part of which defense system?
adaptive defenses
innate internal defenses
innate external defenses
Phagocytotic cells such as macrophages identify a variety of enemies by recognizing markers unique to pathogens. They would be classified as which type of defense system?
innate external defenses
innate internal defenses
adaptive defenses
What cells make antibodies?
cytoxic T cells
memory T cells
memory B cells
plasma B cells
What is the name of the unique area (specific region) that a lymphocyte recognizes and binds to?
antibody
antigen
an antigenic determinant
pathogen
What type of immunity can be transferred by bodily fluids from one person to another, thus conferring immunity to the recipient?
cellular immunity
humoral immunity
cell-mediated immunity
If a virus attacks a cell, which type of immunity would be activated?
cell-mediated immunity (cellular immunity)
humoral immunity
antibody-mediated immunity
Cancer cells would be attacked by which of the following cells?
cytoxic T cells
B cells
macrophages
Which of the following is NOT a chemical barrier that helps prevent infections?
pH of urine
tears
mucus
pH of blood
Which of the following is/are the most specific internal defense against disease?
phagocytes
inflammation
T cells
NK cells
Phagocytes are unable to adhere to bacteria that have external capsules concealing their membrane carbohydrates. Our immune system gets around this problem by coating such pathogens with __________.
phagosomes
toll like receptors
opsonins
mucin
Which type of chemical induces fever?
complement
antibodies
interferon
pyrogens
Which of the following chemicals do NOT directly trigger inflammation?
antibodies
prostoglandins
histamines
kinins
What protein can be released by infected cells to help protect cells that have not yet been infected?
pyrogens
complement
interferon
opsonins
T cells achieve self-tolerance in the __________.
tonsils
bone marrow
thymus
lymph nodes
Vaccines provide what type of immunity?
artificially acquired active
artificially acquired passive
naturally acquired passive
naturally acquired active
Which molecules of the adaptive defense system provide humoral immunity by circulating freely in the blood and lymph, where they bind to extracellular antigens and inactivate them and mark them for destruction?
antigens
complement proteins
antibodies
interferons
Health workers working with diphtheria commonly receive a serum with antibodies against the pathogen. What type of immunity would this be?
passive, artificial immunity
passive, natural immunity
active, artificial immunity
active, natural immunity
Submit
Which mechanism(s) of antibody action result(s) in cell lysis?
agglutination
precipitation
neutralization
complement activation
The antivenom used to treat a venomous snake bite is an antibody produced in an animal such as a horse. Suppose these antibodies are injected into a patient who has been bitten by a venomous snake. How would you classify the resulting humoral immunity?
active immunity, artificially acquired
active immunity, naturally acquired
passive immunity, artificially acquired
passive immunity, naturally acquired
Submit
Which lymphocytes act as the bridge between the cellular and humoral responses?
helper T cells
B cells
cytoxic T cells
regulatory T cells
Which of the following are NOT appropriately matched?
cytotoxic T cells: destroy virally infected cells
macrophages: antigen-presenting cells
B cells: produce antibodies
helper T cells: destroy infected body cells
What types of antigen do mature T cells normally not recognize?
processed fragments of protein antigens displayed on surfaces of body cells
bacterial antigens
self antigens
cancer antigens
Which of the following cells engulf antigens by phagocytosis and present fragments of them on their own surfaces for recognition?
plasma cells
dendritic cells
NK cells
T lymphocytes
What type of T cell can directly attack and kill other cells, such as virus-infected cells?
regulatory T (TReg) cells
APCs
cytotoxic T (TC) cells
helper T (TH) cells
What is the role of helper T cells in the adaptive immune response?
Helper T cells produce and secrete antibodies.
Helper T cells activate B cells and cytotoxic T lymphocytes to kill infected host cells.
Helper T cells directly kill infected host cells.
Helper T cells phagocytize bacteria and viruses.
What is meant by the clonal expansion of a B cell?
An activated B cell will kill infected host cells.
An activated B cell will immediately begin to produce antibodies.
An activated B cell will engulf and digest anything foreign.
An activated B cell divides into cells that give rise to memory B cells and plasma cells.
The student who caught the cold caused by this specific Rhinovirus was exposed to the exact same Rhinovirus 18 months later. What component of the immune system will protect her from getting the same cold again?
plasma cells
memory cells
dendritic cells
antibodies that are left over from the last infection
Which of the following is NOT a step used by cytotoxic T cells to kill infected host cells?
secretion of perforin
Recognition of infected host cell using its CD4 glycoprotein
secretion of granzyme
Recognition of infected host cell using its TCR
Which pair of molecules do NOT directly interact with one another?
CD4 and MHC-II
BCR and TCR
BCR and epitope
CD8 and MHC-I
Which of the following is NOT a step that ultimately leads to antibody production?
Activation of helper T cells by dendritic cells
Activation of cytotoxic T cells by helper T cells
Differentiation of plasma cells
Naive B cells conducting surveillance for foreign epitopes
Which of the following statements is true?
Innate defenses are enough to keep a person healthly.
Memory B cells are typically established when the B cell binds to an antigen.
Adaptive defenses include humoral immunity only.
Adaptive defenses include both humoral and cellular immunity
Your clinical instructor wants a brief description of the four cardinal signs of inflammation. What would you tell him?
The infectious particles are directly responsible for the signs of inflammation
The heat and redness are caused by increased blood flow to the infected areas, and the pain and swelling are caused by excessive leakage of fluid from the capillaries into the infected area.
The heat and redness are because of fever, and the pain and swelling are your created by your brain.
The infection is making your body produce more heat and blood.
Submit
Costanza was picking grapes in her father's arbor when she felt a short prickling pain in her finger. She ran crying to her father, who removed an insect stinger and calmed her with a glass of lemonade. Twenty minutes later Costanza's finger was red, swollen, and throbbing where she had been stung. What type of immune response was she exhibiting?
acute, type I hypersensitivity reaction
delayed, type IV hypersensitivity reaction
subacute, type II hypersensitivity reaction
subacute, type III hypersensitivity reaction
Submit
Which of the following are NOT correctly matched?
multiple sclerosis: autoimmune disorder
immediate hypersensitivity: allergic contact dermatitis
AIDS (acquired immune deficiency syndrome): helper T cells are destroyed by a virus
severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome (SCID): genetic defect resulting in a shortage of B and/or T cells
Which of the following is an organ shared by the respiratory system and the digestive system?
trachea
esophagus
larynx
pharynx
Which of the following is NOT a benefit of breathing through the nose?
the production of smooth, laminar airflow as air passes by the nasal conchae
filtration of the air entering the nasal cavity
recovering heat and moisture from the air leaving the nasal cavity
heating and moistening the air entering the nasal cavity
Submit
Which of the following processes is NOT properly matched with its description?
pulmonary ventilation: movement of gases into and out of the lungs
internal respiration: O2 diffuses out of the blood
transport of respiratory gases: O2 is bound to hemoglobin
external respiration: CO2 diffuses into the blood stream
Which of the following helps to protect against tracheal obstruction.
carina of trachea
trachialis muscle
larynx
tracheal cartilage
What structure prevents food and liquids from entering the trachea?
epiglottis
laryngeal prominence
glottis
vestibular folds
Which of the following is/are part(s) of the respiratory zone structures?
terminal bronchioles
primary bronchi
trachea
alveoli
In children with infant respiratory distress syndrome (IRDS), the walls of the alveoli cling to each other and make them difficult to inflate. It is common in babies born prematurely. What cells in these infants are NOT fully developed and are NOT doing their job?
alveolar macrophages
type II alveolar cells
type I alveolar cells
endothelial cells of alveolar capillaries
Which of these cells would be most effective in the disposal of inspired microorganisms that may enter the alveoli?
type II alveolar cells
type I alveolar cells
alveolar macrophages
lymphocytes in blood circulating through the lungs
During pleurisy, the inflamed parietal pleura of one lung rubs against the inflamed ______.
thoracic wall
parietal pleura of other lung
visceral pleura of same lung
visceral pleura of other lung
Which of the following descriptions accurately describes Boyle’s law?
The pressure of gas in your lungs is inversely proportional to the volume in your lungs.
The partial pressure of a gas in the air you breathe in is equal to the total atmospheric pressure times the fractional concentration of the gas.
How well a gas dissolves in a liquid such as blood depends on both its partial pressure and its solubility.
Submit
Which muscles, when contracted, would increase the volume of air in the thoracic cavity?
diaphragm and internal intercostals
diaphragm and external intercostals
internal intercostals and external oblique
Which pressure is the result of the natural tendency of the lungs to decrease their size (because of elasticity) and the opposing tendency of the thoracic wall to pull outward and enlarge the lungs?
intrapleural pressure
intrapulmonary pressure
atmospheric pressure
During an allergic reaction, which of the following would aid respiration?
histamine
an increase in the parasympathetic nervous system
acetylcholine (ACh)
epinephrine
If the transpulmonary pressure equals zero, what will happen to the lung?
lungs will collapse
lung volume will stay the same
lungs will inflate
If the compliance of the thoracic wall is decreased, ______.
the intrapleural pressure would not decrease normally during inhalation
the intrapulmonary pressure would remain lower than the atmospheric pressure
the airway resistance would be decreased
None of the listed responses is correct.
In pneumothorax, the lung collapses because ______.
intrapleural pressure is lower than transpulmonary pressure
intrapleural pressure is equal to intrapulmonary pressure
intrapulmonary pressure is lower than transpulmonary pressure
intrapulmonary pressure is higher than atmospheric pressure
Quiet inspiration is __________, and quiet expiration is __________.
a passive process; also a passive process
an active process; a passive process
an active process; also an active process
a passive process; an active process
Which of the following is not a physical factor that influences pulmonary ventilation?
airway resistance
alveolar surface tension
lung compliance
partial pressure of oxygen in the air
During inhalation,
air moves up the trachea.
oxygen molecules move into the lungs, and carbon dioxide molecules move out of the lungs.
the volume of the thoracic cavity decreases.
the diaphragm and rib muscles contract.
the diaphragm relaxes.
From which structures do oxygen molecules move from the lungs to the blood?
alveoli
trache
nose
bronchiole
bronchi
This lung volume CANNOT be directly measured using a spirometer.
inspiratory reserve volume
residual volume
expiratory reserve volume
tidal volume
Which lung volume tends to be the largest in healthy male and female adults?
tidal volume
expiratory reserve volume
residual volume
inspiratory reserve volume
A patient with a restrictive lung disease such as tuberculosis is likely to see an increase in his or her __________.
residual volume
functional residual capacity
breathing rate
vital capacity
Which of the following behaviors would most likely result in an increased alveolar ventilation rate as compared to that of normal breathing?
rapid, shallow breathing
breathing slowly into a paper bag
slow, deep breathing
breathing rapidly into a paper bag
Which volumes are combined to provide the inspiratory capacity?
tidal volume (TV), inspiratory reserve volume (IRV), and expiratory reserve volume (ERV)
tidal volume (TV) and inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)
expiratory reserve volume (ERV) and residual volume (RV)
tidal volume (TV), inspiratory reserve volume (IRV), expiratory reserve volume (ERV), and residual volume (RV)
Submit
Emphysema can result in an ______.
increased level of carbaminohemoglobin
increased level of deoxyhemoglobin
increased likelihood of the skin of Caucasians developing a slightly blue coloration
all of the above
Which of the following structures would be the LEAST vulnerable to damage caused by oxygen toxicity?
brain
spleen
muscles
costal cartilages
If your core temperature becomes colder, it is more difficult for oxygen to dissociate from hemoglobin at any PO2.
true
false
Which of the following best describes the chloride shift?
Chloride binds to bicarbonate, which allows more of it to be carried in the bloodstream.
Chloride rushes into RBCs to counterbalance the outflow of bicarbonate.
Chloride is taken out of the blood to counterbalance the inflow of carbon dioxide.
Chloride is removed from hemoglobin when carbon dioxide binds to it.
What is the most common method of carbon dioxide transport?
dissolved in the plasma
chemically bound to hemoglobin as oxyhemoglobin
as bicarbonate ions in the plasma
chemically bound to hemoglobin as carbaminohemoglobin
Which of the following would induce the loss of oxygen from the hemoglobin and the blood?
decreases in plasma carbon dioxide
a decrease in blood temperature
increase in hemoglobin that has oxygen bound to it already
a drop in blood pH
_______ has a greater partial pressure in the pulmonary capillaries than in the alveoli, so it diffuses into the _______.
CO2; pulmonary capillaries
CO2; alveoli
O2; pulmonary cavities
O2; alveoli
Despite the fact that the partial pressure difference is so much smaller for CO2, why is there as much CO2 exchanged between the alveoli and blood as there is O2, ?
The capillary walls are more permeable to CO2 than O2
CO2 is much more soluble in blood than O2.
CO2 is a smaller molecule and diffuses faster than O2.
How would the partial pressures of O2 and CO2 change in an exercising muscle?
The partial pressure of O2 would decrease, and the partial pressure of CO2 would increase.
The partial pressure of O2 would increase, and the partial pressure of CO2 would decrease.
The partial pressures of O2 and CO2 would remain unchanged.
Which way would O2 and CO2 diffuse during internal respiration?
O2 would diffuse into the cells, and CO2 would diffuse into the systemic capillaries.
O2 would diffuse into the pulmonary capillaries and CO2 would diffuse into the alveoli.
Both O2 and CO2 would diffuse into the systemic capillaries.
O2 would diffuse into the systemic capillaries, and CO2 would diffuse into the cells.
Internal and external respiration depends on several factors. Which of the following is NOT an important factor in gas exchange?
partial pressure of the gases
available surface area
the molecular weight of the gas
rate of blood flow through the tissue
Submit
What area in the brain sets the respiratory rhythm?
pontine respiratory group (PRG)
dorsal respiratory group (DRG)
hypothalamus
ventral respiratory group (VRG)
Inspiratory neurons send information to the diaphragm via what nerve?
phrenic nerve
intercostal nerves
glossopharyngeal nerve
vegus nerve
What directly stimulates the central chemoreceptors, thus increasing respiration?
H+
high CO2
low O2
high pH
As a result of hyperventilation, what will happen to the partial pressures of CO2 (pCO2) and pH?
increased pCO2 and decreased pH
decreased pCO2 and increased pH
increased pCO2 and increased pH
decreased pCO2 and decreased pH
Which receptors inhibit inspiration during hyperinflation of the lungs?
peripheral chemoreceptors
Hypothalamic receptors
pulmonary stretch receptors
irritant receptors
What stimulates increased respiration at the beginning of exercise?
increased hydrogen ion levels
decreased plasma oxygen levels
increased plasma carbon dioxide levels
sensory input from receptors in joints, neural input from the motor cortex, and other factors
A homeostatic control mechanism controls respiration. What acts as the effector(s) in this system?
peripheral chemoreceptors
respiratory muscles
central chemoreceptors
medulla oblongata
Which of the following arterial blood levels is the most powerful respiratory stimulant?
arterial pH
low CO2 levels
rising CO2 levels
low O2 level