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Unit 10 Exam - Dermatology and Immunology

Total questions: 40

Worksheet time: 21mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The term goose bumps is directly related to the contraction of which structures?

a)

hair follicles

b)

arrector pili

c)

sebaceous glands

d)

lunula

2.

It is the body's __________________ glands that secretes an oily liquid that naturally moisturizes the skin.

a)

sweat gland

b)

eccrine

c)

sebaceous gland

d)

apocrine

3.
The tiny grains of pigment deposited in cells that provide skin with its color are: 
a)
keratin
b)
protein
c)
melanin
d)
collagen
4.

The fibrous protein that is responsible for the strength and water resistance of the skin surface is

a)

keratin

b)

elastin

c)

collagen

d)

melanin

5.

Which of these is NOT a function of the skin

a)

produce movement

b)

cover and line body surfaces

c)

act as a physical and microbial barrier

d)

cushion and protect the internal organs

6.

The protein that allows the skin to stretch and recoil is...

a)

keratin

b)

elastin

c)

collagen

d)

melanin

7.

Which layer of skin contains the nerve endings?

a)

epidermis

b)

dermis

c)

subcutaneous layer

d)

exodermis

8.

What layer of the skin is shown in the picture?

a)

epidermis

b)

dermis

c)

subcutaneous layer

d)

melanin

9.

What layer of the skin is found beneath the epidermis?

a)

Sweat glands

b)

Hair follicle

c)

Dermis

d)

Subcutaneous layer

10.

What do sebaceous glands, hair follicles, sweat glands and sensory receptors of the skin have in common?

a)

They all produce new skin cells

b)

They all fall off and are replaced every few weeks

c)

They all allow to detect sensations of touch

d)

They're all found in the dermis

11.

How do first-degree burns differ from second-degree burns?

a)

First-degree burns only affect the epidermis; second-degree burns can extend into the dermis

b)

First degree-burns are painless; second-degree burns hurt a lot

c)

First degree-burns can extend into the dermis; second-degree burns only affect the epidermis

d)

First degree-burns hurt a lot; second-degree burns are painless

12.

Why can you often not feel third-degree burns?

a)

Because they damage the nerve ending in your skin

b)

Because they aren't very damaging

c)

Because they cause scabs to form

d)

Because they only affect the inner part of your skin

13.
You called 911 to request emergency assistance for a victim burned in a fire. The victim tells you that he is in a lot of pain. His skin has many blisters and is severely swollen.   

What should you tell the 911 operator when he asks, "How bad are the burns?"
a)
"They are first-degree burns."
b)
"They are second-degree burns."
c)
"They are third-degree burns."
14.

The process of removing dead tissue after a burn to help tissue grow and prevent infection is called ____________. This is the 1st step in treatment of all 3rd degree burns.

a)

debridement

b)

antibiotics

c)

ointment

d)

epidermal abrasion

15.

What layers of the integument are burned in a 1st degree burn? (choose all that apply)

a)

epidermis

b)

dermis

c)

hypodermis

16.

What are the three main causes of burns?

a)

First, second, and 3rd degree

b)

Thermal(Heat), chemical, and lightening

c)

Thermal(Heat), chemical, and electrical

d)
Steam, chemical, and electrical
17.
When treating first-, second-, or third-degree burns which depth of burn is not treated with water?
a)
first-degree burns
b)
second-degree burns
c)
third-degree burns
18.

Tom's sister burned herself playing with matches, and she has third-degree burns on her arms and legs. He called 911. He put out the fire and her clothes are not burning, but he doesn't know what to do next.


What should he NOT do?

a)

Clean and rinse the wounds with water.

b)

Check to see if she is in shock.

c)

Check to see if she is breathing and if not, to perform mouth-to-mouth resuscitation or CPR.

d)

Elevate the burned parts if on just one part of body.

19.

What is the name of the structure represented by #6?

a)

Sebaceous Gland

b)

Sweat Gland

c)

Collagen Gland

d)

Arrector Pili Muscle

20.

What is the name of the structure represented by #7?

a)

Sebaceous Gland

b)

Sweat Gland

c)

Collagen Gland

d)

Arrector Pili Muscle

21.

The proteins found on the surface of RBCs that allow us to type blood as A, B, O or AB are called

a)

antigens

b)

antibodies

c)

aggluntates

d)

Rh factors

22.

What is produced by your body in response to foreign antigens, such as the wrong type of blood?

a)

agglutinates

b)

clotting factors

c)

phagocytes

d)

antibodies

23.

What is the reaction between antigens and antibodies that allow you to determine blood type?

a)

clotting

b)

agglutination

c)

aggregation

d)

antibody production

24.

Which blood type has Type A antibodies?

a)

Type AB

b)

Type O

c)

Type B

d)

Type B and Type O

25.

Destiny has blood type B, what antigen is present?

a)

None

b)

A

c)

B

d)

A and B

26.
What is a protective protein produced by the immune system?
a)
Antibody
b)
Antibiotic
c)
Antigen
d)
Antimicrobial
27.

A secondary immune response will be faster when...

a)

The individual has encountered the pathogen already

b)

The individual's macrophages are on high alert

c)

The individual has encountered the pathogen and has memory B cells circulating

d)

Antibodies are produced by T cells

28.

What happens after the second time you are exposed to a pathogen?

a)

The body will not be able to fight off the pathogen quickly, because it knows how to get into the body easier.

b)

The body's immune system will react the same was as it did during the first exposure.

c)

The body can only be exposed to a pathogen a second time if you do not have a vaccine.

d)

The body will know how to fight off the pathogen quickly, because memory cells have been created after the first encounter.

29.
What is the main purpose of the immune system?
a)
support the body through bones and muscles
b)
get rid of waste from the body
c)
protect the body from pathogens
d)
move blood through the body
30.
Which one is a way the body defends against a pathogen?
a)
Fever
b)
Stomach Acid digesting
c)
White Blood Cells fighing
d)
All of these are correct
31.
Cells that ingest pathogens are
a)
plasma cells
b)
phagocytic cells
c)
helper T cells
d)
antibodies
32.

What is the body's first line of defence against infection?

a)

Physical barriers

b)

White blood cells

c)

Blood plasma

d)

Red blood cells

33.

An agent that causes a disease is a...

a)

Pathogen

b)

Coronavirus

c)

Antigen

d)

Leukocyte

34.

What is the name of white blood cells that have molecules on their surface to fit an antigen?

a)

memory cells

b)

lymphocytes

c)

red blood cells

d)

fighter white blood cells

35.

Phagocytes and lymphocytes are both types of

a)

white blood cells

b)

red blood cells

c)

pathogens

d)

lysozymes

36.

A/an ________ is an injection of a weakened form of a pathogen to help the individual gain immunity from a disease.

a)

Virus

b)

Vacuum

c)

Vaccine

d)

Antibiotic

37.

What is the "big cell" that surrounds the pathogen and tells the t-cell what the antigens are?

a)

Macrophage

b)

Lymphocyte

c)

Memory T and B cells

d)

Antibodies

38.

These are important because they remember the pathogen for the future.

a)

Macrophage

b)

Lymphocyte

c)

Memory T and B cells

d)

Antibodies

39.
Killer T Cells-
a)
Kill the pathogen
b)
Kill your infected body cells
c)
Kill only viruses
d)
Kill only bacteria
40.

Someone with type A blood donates whole blood to someone with type B blood. What occurs?

a)

The transfusion goes well, no negative effects.

b)

Agglutination occurs in the person with type B blood. The donor cells are affected.

c)

Agglutination occurs in the person with type B blood. Their own blood cells are affected.

d)

The person with type B blood will die.