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Total questions: 155

Worksheet time: 3hrs 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In most parts of the world especially in the first world countries, this phenomenon has led to the degradation of the environmental quality and produced low-density, auto-oriented communities that contribute to sedentary lifestyles and diminished public health.

a)

Suburban Sprawl

b)

Transport-Oriented Developments

c)

Greenbelts

d)

Compact Cities

2.

An approach to development that encourages a mix of building types and uses, diverse housing and transportation options, development within existing neighborhoods, and community engagement.

a)

Planned Unit Development

b)

Smart Growth

c)

New Urbanism

d)

Area for Priority Development

3.

A large number of city dwellers, especially in developing countries, can be found living in hazardous, unsafe environments and oftentimes in inhumane and harsh conditions. The core of the problem is the conditions of their shelters, but the cause would be:

a)

Their economic and social conditions

b)

People's attitude of tolerance and easy acceptance of their situation

c)

Lack of opportunities in cities

d)

Lack of land

4.

Which among these statements DO NOT describe sustainable design:

a)

seeks to reduce negative impacts on the environment, and the health and comfort of building occupants, thereby improving building performance

b)

environmentally friendly, socially acceptable, and economically successful design

c)

inherently context-sensitive, minimizing negative development impacts by respecting the landscape’s natural and cultural patterns and processes

d)

none of the above

5.

Which among the principles of Smart Growth directly impacts the physical environment:

a)

Make development decisions predictable, fair, and cost-effective, and encourage community and stakeholder collaboration in development decisions

b)

Foster distinctive, attractive communities with a mix of land uses, compact building design, and a strong sense of place

c)

Create a range of housing opportunities and choices in walkable neighborhoods that provide a variety of transportation choices

d)

Preserve open space, farmland, natural beauty, and critical environmental areas by directing development toward existing communities

6.

When doing a site inventory, which of the following factors can help in the assessment of the site's attributes:

I. Costs of data collection and analysis

II. Client’s financial capacity

III. Existing on-site and off-site conditions

IV. Proposed site uses

V. Requirements for permits and approvals

a)

I, II, IV, V

b)

II, III, IV, V

c)

I, II, III, IV

d)

I, III, IV, V

7.

This serves as the template for attribute mapping and analysis:

a)

Site Location Map

b)

Zoning Map

c)

Topographical Map

d)

Base Map

8.

Sustainable tropical design is a result of a careful assessment of the site conditions, and using easily obtainable materials with low embodied energy, low impact technology and low consumption of energy in maintaining the building. In the past, such adaptations to the local climate are clearly evident in our local vernacular structures. Which among the following describes the Ifugao house exhibiting a characteristic that responds to the upland tropical climate?

a)

Dwellings have large windows, steep roofs, and on stilts to let in natural ventilation inside to alleviate the effects of high temperature and humidity

b)

Dwellings are designed with thick layers of cogon to serve as insulation from the heat of the sun and torrential rains as well as keep the warmer air inside during the coldest months

c)

Dwellings are on high platforms, made from recycled materials that can easily be procured, as these may succumb to the harsh torrential rains and winds, making re-building easier

d)

Dwellings use local thatch and wood, as well as stone with lime, to withstand typhoons and harsh winds

9.

Under President Manuel L. Quezon’s term, Quezon City was intended to replace Manila as the capital of the Philippines. Its large scale and monumental plan was influenced by which planning principle:

a)

City Beautiful Movement

b)

The Neighborhood Units

c)

Organic Planning

d)

Garden City

10.

A site significant to the Romans, located at the center of the ancient city of Rome, and the location of important religious, political

and social activities.

a)

Plaza

b)

Agora

c)

Forum

d)

Park

11.

Stalingrad, renamed as Volgograd, as one of the largest cities-centers in Russia, consists a series of functionally specialized parallel sectors, running parallel to Volga River. It was built following which shape of development:

a)

Linear

b)

Articulated Sheet

c)

Rectilinear

d)

Radiocentric

12.

Environments which can be used for many different purposes exhibit which quality:

a)

Permeability

b)

Personalization

c)

Variety

d)

Robustness

13.

In a development, the following should be considered for utilities planning:

I. determine whether the existing facilities are adequate for the community as well as for the needs of the project

II. adequacy of access and efficiency of circulation within and outside of the site

III. relationship of traffic pattern to each other

IV. locate in open areas adjacent to streets or under streets for easy maintenance and access

a)

III, IV

b)

I, II

c)

I, III

d)

I, IV

14.

Before the invention of bulldozers and other earthmoving equipment, geographic studies indicate that urban areas seldom form in these conditions:

A. The topography is steep

B. Where the slope of the land is generally uneven

C. At the sloping side of mountains

D. The land is located in a high altitude

a)

B, C, D

b)

A, B, C

c)

A, B, D

d)

A, C, D

15.

As provided for in the Water Code and the HLURB zoning guidelines, the required easement in urban areas from the banks of rivers/streams, seas and lakes is:

a)

3 meters

b)

2 meters

c)

100 meters

d)

40 meters

16.

Most cities serve as transportation terminals. Metro Manila, Bulacan, and Baguio are examples of crossing points for networks of internal transportation. These examples show us that:

a)

Urban areas seldom form where the topography is steep and therefore difficult to build roads

b)

Accessibility of other important places determines location of larger cities

c)

Natural factors play an important part in the development and growth of urban areas

d)

Cities are usually built in flat terrain

17.

Woonerf, a planning strategy that helps manage the vehicular traffic and provide safer conditions for pedestrians may include which technique:

I. Low speed limits

II. Shared space

III. Underpass

IV. Traffic calming

a)

I, II, IV

b)

I, III, IV

c)

I, III, IV

d)

I, II, III

18.

A permeable geological stratum or formation that can both store and transmit groundwater in significant quantities.

a)

Hot Spring

b)

Aquifer

c)

Water Table

d)

Watershed

19.

It is the backbone of the soil determining its carrying capacity, which usually comprises 50% to 80% of the volume of the soil.

a)

Organic Matter

b)

Air

c)

Water

d)

Mineral Particles

20.

If LEED transformed the building industry in the context of their sustainability performance, this certification system transformed the way local government set priorities and implement policies and practices to improve their sustainability performance.

a)

BERDE Building for Ecologically Responsive Design Excellence

b)

STAR

c)

US-GBCUnder

d)

SITES

21.

As per PD1096, Habitable rooms should have an area of at least ________ and an air space of at least ________ per person.

a)

6.0 sqm., 12.0 cum.

b)

5.0 sqm., 14.0 cum.

c)

5.0 sqm., 12.0 cum.

d)

6.0 sqm., 14.0 cum.

e)

6.0 sqm., 15.0 cum.

22.

As per PD1096, windows for naturally ventilated rooms should have a total opening area equal to or at least ________ of the floor area of the room.

a)

12%

b)

10%

c)

5%

d)

15%

e)

8%

23.

What is the minimum area of a parallel parking slot?

a)

12.9 sqm.

b)

14.1 sqm.

c)

13.6 sqm.

d)

11.2 sqm.

e)

15.7 sqm.

24.

As per PD1096, Building Height Limit (BHL) includes the height of the following projections above the roof:

a)

Telecom Tower

b)

Beacons

c)

Mast

d)

Antenna

e)

None of the above

25.

A ________ is a street or a road that services pedestrian and/or vehicular traffic from minor roads leading to major roads.

a)

Collector Road

b)

Service Roads

c)

Carriageway

d)

Motor Courts

e)

Alley

26.

Fires brought about by combustible materials such as sodium, magnesium, potassium, and other similar materials are classified under Class ________ Fire.

a)

Class A Fire

b)

Class C Fire

c)

Class B Fire

d)

Class D Fire

e)

Class K Fire

27.

________ refers to materials that easily evaporate, giving off vapor that easily combines with oxygen and heat, which with a simple spark triggers a fire.

a)

Cryogenic

b)

Combustible

c)

Explosive

d)

Volatile

e)

Flammable

28.

According to RA 9514, what is the minimum opening area (in sqm) for a window that can be used for rescue?

a)

0.366

b)

0.448

c)

0.960

d)

0.544

e)

0.720

29.

A continuous membrane, or a membrane with discontinuities created by protected openings, designed, and constructed to restrict the movement of smoke.

a)

Smoke Barrier

b)

Smoke Trap

c)

Smoke Enclosure

d)

Smoke Partition

e)

Smoke Compartment

30.

The Emergency Evacuation Plan shall be posted at least every ________ meter interval.

a)

30

b)

25

c)

20

d)

40

e)

35

31.

What is the minimum area (in sqm) of a wheelchair turning space?

a)

1.80

b)

2.25

c)

1.44

d)

2.85

e)

2.70

32.

This tactile paver is used to warn the visually impaired that they are approaching the edge of a high-speed train platform:

a)

Offset Blister

b)

Directional

c)

Lozenge

d)

Corduroy

e)

Blister

33.

What is the minimum number of accessible water closet on a building floor where the total number of water closets per sex on that level is 25?

a)

4

b)

2

c)

1

d)

3

e)

5

34.

To help the visually impaired in identifying female washrooms at a distance, signages on doors should be ________ in shape and with a dimension of at least ________.

a)

Circular, 0.40 mts. dia.

b)

Circular, 0.30 mts. dia.

c)

Square, 0.30 mts. each side

d)

Square, 0.35 mts. each side

e)

Equilateral Triangle, 0.40 mts. each side

35.

A height of _____ mts. from the finished floor to the rim of the urinal is the standard mounting height for a kid’s urinal.

a)

0.28 mts.

b)

0.48 mts.

c)

0.30 mts.

d)

0.35 mts.

e)

0.42 mts.

36.

As per PD1096, a basement shall be allowed for a project provided that adjacent Road Right-Of-Way (RROW) that services the lot in which said project will be constructed is at least ________ mts. in width.

a)

15.00 mts.

b)

12.00 mts.

c)

10.00 mts.

d)

9.00 mts.

e)

8.00 mts.

37.

Compute for the required number of parking slots for a residential condominium zoned as maximum R3, having gross floor area of 3,920 sqm. dedicated to residential units. The floor area of each condo unit is 28 sqm.

a)

35

b)

28

c)

25

d)

30

e)

32

38.

A hotel located in a busy commercial district will have its main entrance renovated and installed with a canopy. If the width of the sidewalk in front of the hotel is 3.50 mts., what should be the maximum length of the canopy?

a)

3.20 mts.

b)

3.00 mts.

c)

3.65 mts.

d)

3.50 mts.

e)

2.75 mts.

39.

Under PD957, what is the prescribed ratio for saleable and non-saleable lots?

a)

65% saleable and 35% non-saleable

b)

75% saleable and 25% non-saleable

c)

80% saleable and 20% non-saleable

d)

70% saleable and 30% non-saleable

e)

85% saleable and 15% non-saleable

40.

If a 4-storey on-site mall carpark has a capacity of 1,080 parking slots, how many supplemental parking slots should be provided by an independent third-party owned carpark?

a)

300

b)

315

c)

350

d)

270

e)

250

41.

Under RA9514, how many exits are required for a space having an occupant load of 1132 pax?

a)

5

b)

4

c)

1

d)

3

e)

2

42.

For processing plant factories, the required maximum travel distance from any point of the space to an exit door is _____ mts., if not protected by an automatic fire sprinkler system.

a)

35.00 mts.

b)

33.50 mts.

c)

31.00 mts.

d)

29.00 mts.

e)

26.50 mts.

43.

Gaseous Fire Suppression System uses both inert gases, and their mixtures, as “clean” fire extinguishing agent:

a)

Helium and Nitrogen

b)

Neon and Nitrogen

c)

Helium and Neon

d)

Argon and Nitrogen

e)

Argon and Helium

44.

A wet standpipe system is required in the following facilities, except:

a)

10-storey Backpackers’ hotel

b)

2-storey Mental Healthcare facility

c)

Theater with 1500 seat capacity

d)

Outlet store spanning 2400 sqm.

e)

4-storey Secondary School building

45.

Minimum number of fire extinguishers to be provided in a 600 sqm room with a low hazard (Class A) fire.

a)

6

b)

8

c)

10

d)

3

e)

12

46.

Temporary signages used to warn of roadworks on carriageway should be carefully located so as not to reduce footway width to less than ________ mts.

a)

1.50 mts.

b)

1.20 mts.

c)

0.90 mts.

d)

1.35 mts.

e)

1.05 mts.

47.

Under what principle of Universal Design can the graphical signages of both male and female restrooms be categorized?

a)

Tolerance for Error

b)

Simple and Intuitive Use

c)

Equitable Use

d)

Perceptible Information

e)

Flexibility in Use

48.

What is the range by which a person confined on a wheelchair is able to comfortably reach?

a)

0.70 – 1.20 mts.

b)

0.40 – 1.55 mts.

c)

0.85 – 1.45 mts.

d)

0.90 – 1.50 mts.

e)

0.60 – 1.30 mts.

49.

What is the minimum time (in seconds) to be provided for a PWD to cross a 9-meter-wide carriageway?

a)

8

b)

10

c)

12

d)

15

e)

6

50.

What is the minimum area (in sqm) of a vestibule to be placed in front of building entrances?

a)

2.85

b)

2.25

c)

2.70

d)

1.44

e)

1.80

51.

As per PD1096, Signboards installed on a building shall have a clear distance from each other not less than ________ mts.

a)

3.50 mts.

b)

3.00 mts.

c)

4.50 mts.

d)

4.00 mts.

e)

2.00 mts.

52.

According to the NBCP (PD1096), Museums and Art Galleries are facilities classified as ________ Occupancy.

a)

Mixed-Use

b)

Educational

c)

Commercial

d)

Institutional

e)

Assembly

53.

A partition wall 8.0 mts in length and 3.2 mts in height, is specified to be 3-hr FRR. If it is designed to have two (2) openings, what is the width of each opening if they should be equal in dimension?

a)

1.20 mts.

b)

1.75 mts.

c)

1.00 mts.

d)

1.35 mts.

e)

1.50 mts.

54.

For socialized housing project under BP220, a single attached or duplex housing shall have a minimum lot area of ________ sqm.

a)

64

b)

48

c)

54

d)

36

e)

28

55.

An office building is to be constructed in an inside lot with a 7-mtr. wide access road. If the said lot is in a C3 zoned area, what is the maximum BHL for the said building?

a)

18.00 mts.

b)

24.00 mts.

c)

9.0 mts.

d)

36.00 mts.

e)

54.00 mts.

56.

A fire safety report that should be submitted prior to the release of a building permit.

a)

FSCCR

b)

FSMR

c)

FSCR

d)

FSRMR

e)

FSIC

57.

All persons having fire insurance coverage on their properties and/or business shall submit a certified true copy of all coverages currently in effect, including subsequent and/or additional policies not later than ________ days after receipt of the document from any insurance company.

a)

10

b)

7

c)

2

d)

3

e)

5

58.

Given a room with a size of 23.0 mts. x 16.0 mts. and with a maximum occupant load of 225 pax, what is the minimum required distance between its exit access doors, if this room will be protected by automatic fire sprinklers?

a)

9.35 mts.

b)

9.10 mts.

c)

8.05 mts.

d)

10.25 mts.

e)

8.40 mts.

59.

What is the minimum corridor width (in meters) for offices and other business occupancies as per RA9514?

a)

1.20

b)

1.10

c)

1.83

d)

1.12

e)

1.15

60.

An Automatic Fire Suppression System (AFSS) is required for a school building if it has:

a)

A height of 15.0 mts. or above

b)

Four storeys or above

c)

A floor area of 1,115 sqm. or greater

d)

An occupant load of at least 300 pax

e)

All of the above

61.

Accessible water closet stalls shall have a minimum depth of ________ mts., and a minimum width of ________ mts.

a)

1.90 mts., 1.80 mts.

b)

1.70 mts., 1.60 mts.

c)

1.80 mts., 1.90 mts.

d)

1.80 mts., 1.70 mts.

e)

1.70 mts., 1.80 mts.

62.

Tapping rails should be installed at a height of _____ mts. from the finished floor surface.

a)

0.25 mts.

b)

0.40 mts.

c)

0.20 mts.

d)

0.30 mts.

e)

0.35 mts.

63.

What is the minimum area (in sqm) of a PWD accessible elevator car?

a)

3.06

b)

4.00

c)

1.06

d)

1.54

e)

3.24

64.

What should be the depth of a code compliant curb cut-out 0.90 mtr. wide, if the sidewalk is 2-mtr. wide and elevated from the carriageway by 125mm?

a)

1.20 mts.

b)

1.00 mts.

c)

1.30 mts.

d)

1.10 mts.

e)

0.90 mts.

65.

As per BP344, what is the minimum clear area (in sqm) of a landing in a straight ramp?

a)

2.70

b)

1.44

c)

1.80

d)

2.25

e)

2.85

66.

Which of the following needs to come first in the permit application process for a Golf Course Luxury Complex in a semi-forested area?

a)

Locational Clearance

b)

EC-Certificate

c)

Building Permit

d)

Business Permit

67.

What is the product of a specific heat capacity and the density of a substance?

a)

U-Value

b)

Heat Storage Value

c)

British Thermal Unit

d)

R-Value

68.

What do you call the time of the year where the sun reaches its southernmost point on the celestial sphere?

a)

Spring Equinox

b)

Vernal Equinox

c)

Winter Solstice

d)

Summer Solstice

69.

What is the average hottest month of the year?

a)

March

b)

June

c)

May

d)

April

70.

The following times of day is seen on a sun path diagram, which one is not?

a)

1500

b)

1000

c)

1800

d)

0500

71.

What month would allow the most sunlight to enter the building at 12 noon

a)

June

b)

November

c)

May

d)

February

72.

A room with a floor to ceiling height of 3.00m and a plan dimension of 3.00m x 9.00m has one 1.44 sqm. opening on the shorter side. Using Daylight Ratios - until how much can daylight penetrate on a normal day without an overcast of clouds?

a)

8000 mm

b)

6500 mm

c)

7500 mm

d)

1200 mm

73.

What months are included in the Hot Dry season in the Philippines?

a)

April - June

b)

March - May

c)

March - June

d)

Mid March - Mid June

74.

An opening 36 inches high from the sill to the header with a 600mm deep ledge to make sure it won’t experience direct sunlight on the 15th of November at 1500. Is the ledge depth sufficient?

a)

designer should add 12 inches more to the ledge

b)

designer should add 600mm more to the ledge

c)

it is not sufficient

d)

600mm is sufficient

75.

What will happen if a material has a short time to release and propagate heat?

a)

It will not be able to absorb heat at any cause

b)

It will absorb and release heat slowly

c)

It will absorb and release heat quickly

d)

Heat will be released after a material reached a certain temperature

76.

The practice of placing windows or other openings and reflective surfaces so that during the day natural light provides effective internal lighting.

a)

Daylighting

b)

Fenestration

c)

Sustainable Lighting

d)

Tropical Lighting

77.

Which among the following is not a climatic element prioritized to be considered in designing buildings?

a)

Natural Light

b)

Rainfall

c)

Air Temperature

d)

Sunlight

78.

Wind analysis for a site is considered what type of perception in terms of climate?

a)

Macroclimate

b)

Microclimate

c)

Megaclimate

d)

Mesoclimate

79.

The cool dry-season happens during what months?

a)

December - March

b)

December - May

c)

November - January

d)

November - February

80.

Suppose a building faces the north while its kitchen is located at the rear elevation, in what orientation would the solar control devices be

a)

Diagonal

b)

Horizontal

c)

Vertical

d)

Egg Crate

81.

A summer house near the beach is oriented towards the east (away from the sea), in order to maximize natural ventilation, at what part should the bedroom be located?

a)

Right-Side Elevation

b)

Left-Side Elevation

c)

Front Elevation

d)

Rear Elevation

82.

Given that the altitude of a particular hot day is at 60 degrees in relation to the building, how deep the required ledge dimension so that sunlight won’t 2400mm high opening?

a)

3.0 mts.

b)

1.7 mts.

c)

1.2 mts.

d)

0.6 mts.

83.

Which among the following is not a passive daylight concept?

a)

Vertical Light Pipe

b)

Windows

c)

Skylights

d)

Daylight Sensors

84.

Who pioneered in the concept of double glazed façade to introduce an insulated treatment for a building?

a)

Frank Lloyd Wright

b)

Walter Gropius

c)

Norman Foster

d)

Le Corbusier

85.

A cooling system using a building’s design and construction to maintain a comfortable temperature within the building

a)

Active Cooling

b)

Chimney Effect

c)

Passive Cooling

d)

Stack Effect

86.

Placing the colors black and white adjacent to each other is an example of the design principle of contrast because:

a)

one color has a different tonal value than the other

b)

one color is the complement of the other

c)

one color enhances the other

d)

one color negates the other

87.

In the facade of Juan Arellano’s Post Office Building, the secondary horizontal building form contrasts with the dominant vertical ________.

a)

space

b)

columns

c)

transepts

d)

height

88.

Using the design principle of balance requires providing the design with an apparent feeling of:

a)

asymmetry

b)

equilibrium

c)

dynamism

d)

proportion

89.

The façade of a Gabaldon school building clearly gives a feeling of balance because of its:

a)

contrast

b)

symmetry

c)

scale

d)

rhythm

90.

Comparing the diameter of a facade column to the overall width and height of the facade is to consider its:

a)

scale

b)

balance

c)

hierarchy

d)

proportion

91.

In determining the proportional height of a shopping mall atrium, a designer must primarily consider its:

a)

dominant color

b)

daylighting

c)

dominant finishes

d)

overall width

92.

The use of the design principle of rhythm requires that repeating elements must be in a specific:

a)

accentuation

b)

hierarchy

c)

variation

d)

pattern

93.

The psychological pace of a city’s central business district is usually more hectic than that of a residential neighborhood primarily because of the rhythm of the city’s:

a)

pattern of grid street layout

b)

vertical street lamp-posts

c)

vertical high-rise structures

d)

traffic patterns

94.

The use of human scale in design requires a psychological understanding of the experience of unconsciously comparing an architectural design to the self’s:

a)

body proportions

b)

body size

c)

distance to the design

d)

body location

95.

Egyptian temples were considered houses of the gods which is why their designs:

a)

considered human scale only in the hypaethral court

b)

ignored the scale of the lesser buildings in the complex

c)

ignored human scale in their overall dimensions

d)

considered the scale of the open desert

96.

Which type of privacy involves the use of psychological barriers instead of architectural design to achieve privacy?

a)

anonymity

b)

intimacy

c)

reserve

d)

solitude

97.

Designing a cha-shitsu involves designing for:

a)

intimacy

b)

solitude

c)

anonymity

d)

reserve

98.

The study of natural human spatial separation in proxemics is rooted in the concept of:

a)

personal space

b)

privacy

c)

defensible space

d)

territoriality

99.

Designing a theater for stage performances involves knowledge of design using which proxemic distance zone?

a)

public distance

b)

intimate distance

c)

social distance

d)

personal distance

100.

Applying Maslow’s Theory of Motivation to architectural design means that the architect should have knowledge of:

a)

intrinsic human desires

b)

human emotional impulses

c)

psychological human needs

d)

extrinsic situational motivations

101.

The location of automated teller machines (ATMs) is primarily governed by which level of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs?

a)

self-actualization

b)

physiological

c)

security

d)

self-esteem

102.

Humans exhibit territorial behavior by defending their territories and:

a)

sharing them with others

b)

placing marks to identify them

c)

personally selecting them

d)

not sharing them with others

103.

The spraying of graffiti on public walls by activist groups is considered vandalism and not personalization because:

a)

it is clearly unlawful

b)

it is not a form of territorial defense

c)

it is not a reactive claiming of territory

d)

it is done by groups and not individuals

104.

Theories of aesthetics inform the architect about:

a)

why people favor certain designs over others

b)

why people use intuition to choose designs

c)

criteria used to choose good designs

d)

how people perceive designs in general

105.

Designing a church in Tagaytay City using the information-theory approach to aesthetics involves:

a)

creating a church design that is intuitively Filipino

b)

checking the entourage from all inward viewpoints

c)

creating a church design that is symbolically meaningful

d)

ensuring the church design uses recognizable patterns

106.

The emotions or meanings expressed by colors are usually dependent on:

a)

the level of perception

b)

their location on the color wheel

c)

their level of chroma

d)

the context of their use

107.

Red used as the dominant interior color in a supermarket may not be effective because:

a)

it may make people bored with shopping and thus finish early

b)

it discourages shoppers from lingering and buying more

c)

it makes shoppers more selective and discourages impulse buying

d)

it may make people depressed with the prices of goods

108.

What is not favorable according to Filipino building beliefs?

a)

a main exterior stairway facing a mountain

b)

a lot with a wider frontage than the rear

c)

a sunken, or depressed, living room area

d)

kitchen sinks facing the morning sun

109.

The philosophy of feng shui applied to architecture encourages:

a)

the strict adherence to design rules

b)

a parallel knowledge of building codes

c)

the design of an environment attuned to nature

d)

an awareness of the presence of chi at all times

110.

Which if the following arrangement of elements would be advisable in feng shui?

a)

a roof deck swimming pool

b)

a bank branch with a gabled roof

c)

a flat-ceilinged indoor swimming pool

d)

an arched entryway

111.

The dispensa of a bahay na bato would usually be located next to, or near, the:

a)

azotea

b)

entresuelo

c)

cocina

d)

caida

112.

A major difference between a bahay na bato and a tsalet is:

a)

the number of rooms in the entresuelo

b)

the location of the escalera

c)

the location of the comedor

d)

the depth of the volada

113.

Which element of the bahay na bato clearly indicates that the house derived from the bahay kubo?

a)

calado

b)

zaguan

c)

entresuelo

d)

volada

114.

Which of the following elements of the bahay na bato would not be considered an element of tropical architecture?

a)

ventanilla

b)

calado

c)

barandillas

d)

media agua

115.

The Burnham plan for Manila mirrored the L’Enfant plan of Washington D.C. through the use of:

a)

geometrically-arranged streets

b)

standardization of city blocks

c)

vistas to government structures

d)

nodes and radiating avenues

116.

The following are all works of Juan Arellano, except:

a)

Manila Yacht Club

b)

Villamor Hall, U. P. Manila

c)

Legarda Elementary School

d)

Chamber of Commerce Building

117.

Which of the following is not a product of the American colonial period?

a)

YMCA Building

b)

Paco Train Station

c)

Veterans Memorial Building

d)

Gota de Leche Building

118.

Which architectural style was a primary tool for Americanization during the American colonial period?

a)

Neoclassical

b)

Art Nouveau

c)

International Style

d)

Art Deco

119.

Which work was not designed during the Post-colonial period?

a)

Capitan Gonzaga Building

b)

Insular Life Building

c)

Regina Building

d)

Rizal Theater

120.

An example of “space-age” design during the Post-colonial period is:

a)

National Press Club Building

b)

Church of the Holy Sacrifice

c)

Meralco Building

d)

Cathedral of the Holy Child

121.

Which architectural element of Ilustre’s proposed Legislative Building clearly expressed his search for a Filipino style of architecture?

a)

the site development plan

b)

the main entrance

c)

the assembly hall floor pattern

d)

the main lobby

122.

The Brutalist finish was used in the Philippines primarily during which period?

a)

Contemporary

b)

Post-Colonial

c)

American Colonial

d)

Marcos 🤮 Era

123.

Which National Artist for Architecture did not practice primarily during the Marcos 🤮 era?

a)

Francisco Mañosa

b)

Ildefonso P. Santos

c)

Jose Zaragoza

d)

Juan Nakpil

124.

Architecture expressing Filipino identity flourished during the Marcos 🤮 era as a response to:

a)

government political ideology

b)

the establishment of the Cultural Center of the Philippines

c)

research in architectural history

d)

academic philosophies in universities

125.

What infrastructure site in Metro Manila is currently being conserved as a historical site for tourists according to recent news?

a)

Quezon Bridge

b)

El Deposito

c)

Lagusnilad

d)

Carriedo Waterworks

126.

Byzantine churches favored the use of the dome because:

a)

dome construction was seen as a structural challenge

b)

the circle represented the Greek idea of perfection

c)

the dome was a Roman cultural model to emulate

d)

the circle was the Greek symbol for the universe

127.

A major contribution of Roman architecture to building technology was:

a)

the use of iron rods in construction.

b)

the development of the keystone arch.

c)

the mass production of materials.

d)

the invention of buttressing.

128.

A peripteral pyknostyle temple having a distance between its columns of 4.5 units would have a column base diameter of how many units?

a)

2.25

b)

1.5

c)

3.0

d)

3.5

129.

A Greek koilon is a:

a)

assembly hall

b)

philosophy school

c)

marketplace

d)

religious shrine

130.

The Greek agora and the stoa are significant developments because of their contribution to:

a)

theories on power as meaning

b)

proxemics in architecture

c)

norms of architectural scale and proportion

d)

ideas on civic architecture

131.

A major contribution of Egyptian architecture was:

a)

the development of the column from natural forms.

b)

the use of post and lintel construction.

c)

the evolution of city planning and civic architecture.

d)

the use of mathematics for structural computation.

132.

Who was the Modernist architect who designed the TWA Flight Center at the JFK International Airport in New York City?

a)

Erich Mendelsohn

b)

Mies van der Rohe

c)

Pier Luigi Nervi

d)

Eero Saarinen

133.

Modernist architecture was primarily a philosophical solution to:

a)

the search for perfection

b)

the rise of the machine

c)

the uncertainty of war

d)

new architectural curricula

134.

Renaissance architecture may primarily be understood as a response to:

a)

an improvement in the economy of Europe because of trade

b)

a product of scientific and structural advances in research

c)

a search for mathematical perfection in the arts and sciences

d)

a review and exploration of Greek and Roman architecture

135.

An architect must know architectural history because:

a)

history provides awareness of the context of design decisions

b)

an architect must be able to discuss historical facts

c)

an architect should have working knowledge of historical terms

d)

history is a foundation for all current architectural design

136.

Under SPP on Architectural Design Competition (ADC), who is tasked to supervise the conduct of the ADC and the preparation of the Conditions, including insuring the ADC timetable if adhered to, supervising the receipt of Competitors’ questions, dispatch of reply to all Competitors and the receipt of competition entries and safeguarding the anonymity of Competitors at all times

a)

Professional Advisor

b)

Technical Advisor

c)

Jury

d)

Competition Secretariat

137.

Under the Asean Mutual Recognition Agreement on Architectural Services, the ASEAN Architect shall be eligible to apply to the Professional Regulatory Authority of a Host Country to be registered as a Registered Foreign Architect, provided the applicant shall submit with his application a sworn undertaking to do the following, except for:

a)

Be bound by the local and international codes of professional conduct in accordance with the policy on ethics and conduct established and enforced by the Country of Origin

b)

Work, either in independent practice or in collaboration with local licensed Architects in the Host Country, where appropriate subject to domestic laws and regulations of the Host Country governing the practice of architecture

c)

Be bound by prevailing laws and regulations of the Host Country

d)

Be bound to undertake technology transfer and/or specialization that has been identified and substantiated consistent with his/her expertise

138.

Buildings of the simplest utilization and character, which are without complication of plan/design or detail and which require only a minimum of architectural finishes, engineering and allied architectural elements

a)

Type A

b)

Group 1

c)

Group A

d)

Type 1

139.

Management activities over and above the normal architectural and engineering services carried out during the regular services. The over-all objective is to have control over time, cost and quality relative to the construction of a project

a)

Construction Management

b)

Full Time Supervision Services

c)

Comprehensive Architectural Services

d)

Project Management

140.

Manner of providing services by which the Architect may enter into contract with the Owner as the Lead Professional working with other professionals in the engineering and allied professions

a)

With a single contract between the Architect and Owner, and sub-consultancy contracts between the Architect and the other professionals working with the Architect

b)

With the Architect and the engineering and allied professionals executing separate contracts with the Owner

c)

All of the above

d)

None of the above

141.

The statement “The Architect-of-record should be limited to architectural documents of a project and its liability does not extend to the professional responsibility nor civil liability of the other signing (sealing) professionals including the Architect-in-charge of construction and the Consulting Architect unless these are under his/her direct employ” is

a)

True

b)

Applies only to architects in private practice

c)

Applies only to architects in government

d)

False

142.

Which of the following is NOT included in the Standard of Professional Practice on Specialized Architectural Services

a)

Security Evaluation and Planning

b)

Design-Build Services

c)

Management of Architectural Practices

d)

Preliminary Services

143.

For alterations, renovations, rehabilitations, retrofit and expansion/additions to existing buildings belonging to Groups 1 to 5, the compensation of services should be a total of ____ of the RFP:

a)

5%

b)

150%

c)

6%

d)

15%

144.

What is RA 9184?

a)

An act providing for the modernization, standardization and regulation of the procurement activities of the government and for other purposes

b)

The Government Purchasing Reform Act

c)

An Act prescribing policies, guidelines, rules and regulations for government infrastructure contracts

d)

None of the above

145.

For this service, the Architect states the project Terms of Reference (TOR), which discusses the design intent, objectives and parameters necessary for the bidding of design services

a)

Architectural Programming

b)

Design Brief Preparation

c)

Pre-Feasibility Study

d)

Feasibility Study

146.

Per IRR of RA 9266, the following statement: “Upon issuance of the temporary/special permit, the foreign national may become a member of the United Architects of the Philippines, Inc. subject to the rules and procedures of UAP membership” is

a)

Applies only if he/she has a Filipino counterpart

b)

False

c)

Applies only if he/she undergoes technical transfer and/or specialization that has been identified and substantiated consisted with his expertise

d)

True

147.

Per RA 9184, ABC stands for

a)

Approved Budget for the Contract

b)

Actual Budget of the Contract

c)

Appropriated Budget for the Contract

d)

Approved Budget of the Contract

148.

What is the meaning of PERT-CPM

a)

Plan Evaluation and Review Technique-Critical Path Method

b)

Professional Evaluation Review Technique-Critical Path Method

c)

Proposed Evaluation and Review Technique-Critical Path Method

d)

Program/Project Evaluation and Review Technique-Critical Path Method

149.

Under SPP Rule III, Regular Design Services - Construction Phase, the remaining ten percent (10%) of the Professional Fee is:

a)

Ten percent (10%) for Architect’s Liability under the Civil Code

b)

Five percent (5%) for Architect’s Liability under the Civil Code, and five percent (5%) for the Periodic Construction Supervision

c)

Five percent (5%) for Architect’s Liability under the Civil Code, and five percent (5%) for the Project Documentation and Periodic Construction Supervision

d)

Ten percent (10%) for Periodic Construction Supervision

150.

In RA 9184, what is not included in the contents of Bidding Documents

a)

Instructions to Bidders

b)

Delivery Time or Completion Schedule

c)

Plans and Technical Specifications

d)

Invitation to Bid

151.

What bond is a guarantee to enter into a contract if awarded

a)

Payment Bond

b)

Guarantee Bond

c)

Proposal Bond

d)

Performance Bond

152.

In RA 9184, what is not a basis for Failure of Bidding

a)

No bids are received

b)

Only one bidder submits a bid

c)

Bidder refuses, without justifiable cause to accept the award of contract

d)

No bid qualifies as the Lowest Calculated Responsive Bid

153.

Under Scope of Pre-Design Services, what is the service being done when the Architect makes an analysis of the space requirement of the project based on organizational structure and functional set-up, pin-points linkages and interaction of spaces. The formulation of the space program will serve as the basis for the development of the architectural plan/design.

a)

Space Management Studies

b)

Space Planning

c)

Value Management

d)

Architectural Programming

154.

The services of the Architect as Construction Manager can be compensated by a Recommended Professional Fee (RFP) of

a)

1.5% to 3% of the Project Construction Cost

b)

1% to 1.5% of the Project Construction Cost

c)

1.5% to 2% of the Project Construction Cost

d)

4% to 6% based on Value Pricing

155.

In RA 9184, what is not included under Alternative Methods of Procurement

a)

Direct Contracting

b)

Repeat Order

c)

Shopping

d)

Wholesale Procurement