A 44-year-old woman comes in reporting pain in the epigastric area for several months. She denies nausea, vomiting, weight loss, and blood in the stool. On physical examination no abnormalities are found. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 42-year-old man comes to the office with several weeks of epigastric pain radiating up under his chest which becomes worse after lying flat for an hour. He also has a "brackish" taste in his mouth and a sore throat. What is the next step in management?

A 56-year-old woman comes to the clinic because her symptoms of epigastric pain from an endoscopically confirmed duodenal ulcer have not responded to several weeks of a PPI, clarithromycin, and amoxicillin. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 64-year-old patient with diabetes for 20 years comes to the office with several months of abdominal fullness, intermittent nausea, constipation, and a sense of "bloating." On physical examination, a "splash" is heard over the stomach on auscultation of the stomach when moving the patient. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 69-year-old woman comes to the ED with multiple red/black stools over the last day. Her medical history is significant for aortic stenosis. Her pulse is 115/min and blood pressure is 94/62 mm Hg. Physical examination is otherwise normal. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 75-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with pneumonia. Several days after the start of antibiotics, he begins to have diarrhea. The stool C. diff toxin is positive, and he is started on vancomycin, which resolves the diarrhea after a few days. Two weeks later the diarrhea recurs and the C. diff toxin is again positive. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

Which of the following is the most effective method of screening for colon cancer?

Which of the following is associated with the worst prognosis in pancreatitis?

A 54-year-old man is evaluated for fatigue, erectile dysfunction, and skin darkening. He is found to have transferrin saturation (iron divided by TIBC) >50%. His AST is 2 x the upper limit of normal. What is the next step to confirm the diagnosis?

Which of the following correlates best with an increased likelihood of mortality?

Which of the following is the best indicator that a pregnant woman will transmit infection to her child?

Which of the following will become abnormal first after acquiring hepatitis B

infection?

Which of the following indicates that a patient is no longer a risk for transmitting infection to another person (active infection has resolved)?

Which of the following best indicates the need for treatment with antiviral medication in chronic disease?