wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Earth Science SOL Review

Total questions: 500

Worksheet time: 13hrs 41mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The independent variable is

a)

the variable I change

b)

the variable that gets changed

c)

in another lab

d)

one of five variable combinations

2.

Name two types of variables used by scientists.

a)

Independent and dependant

b)

Relational and dependant

c)

Relational and independent

d)

Mathematical and relational

3.

Why do scientists need to come up with a hypothesis?

a)

To give an educated guess for their question.

b)

Because they need something to do.

c)

Because making hypothesis are fun.

d)

Its important so they can practice their analysis.

4.

What is the first step of the scientific method?

a)

Analysis

b)

Question or problem

c)

Measuring

d)

Communicating results

5.

Difference between observation and inference.

a)

Observation is an interpretation of your sorroundings.

b)

Inference involve senses.

c)

When you infer you interpret what you observed with your senses.

d)

This are not skills used by scientists.

6.

Observing involves how many senses?

a)

4

b)

6

c)

5

d)

3

7.

This is a branch of science.

a)

Chemistry

b)

Physics

c)

Biology

d)

All are correct.

8.

Science is important because.

a)

To improve communication.

b)

To solve problems.

c)

To enhance education.

d)

All are correct.

9.

Skills used by scientists.

a)

Phenomena, world.

b)

Problem,variables.

c)

Compare, observe, deduct, measure.

d)

None.

10.

Tools and equipment used by scientists.

a)

Hammer, nails, screwdrivers,sandpaper.

b)

Paint, colors, brushes, oil pastels.

c)

Test tubes, beakers, measuring cups, droppers., microscopes.

d)

sneakers, basketballs, volleyballs.

11.

What is the last step of the scientific method?

a)

Measuring

b)

Analyzing

c)

Communicating results.

d)

Drawing conclusions

12.

This shows the changes in elevation of Earth's surface

a)

GPS

b)

political map

c)

topographic map

d)

cross section

13.
The difference in elevation from one contour line to the next
a)
Contour interval
b)
Contour spacing
c)
Contour distance
d)
Contour grading
14.
Map that shows detailed shapes of Earth's surface, along with its natural and human made features
a)
topographical map
b)
elevation
c)
contour line
15.

What name is given to the darker numbered lines on the map?

a)

roads

b)

index contour

c)

contour interval

d)

waves

16.

Which locations have the same elevation?

a)

A and C

b)

B and E

c)

C and I

d)

F and G

17.
The height above sea level of any point on Earth's surface
a)
contour interval
b)
elevation
c)
slope
18.

What type of map would be most helpful if you were looking for a steep trail to hike?

a)

Geologic Map

b)

Road Map

c)

General Use Map

d)

Topographic Map

19.

What type of map is this an example of?

a)

Geologic Map

b)

Projection Map

c)

Topographic Map

d)

3D Map

20.

What would use this type of map for?

a)

To calculate distance from one town to another.

b)

To determine the best trail for a hike.

c)

To investigate the type and age of rocks present.

21.

If you find a fossil of a mammoth tusk and want to know what time period it lived in, what type of map could you use?

a)

Geologic Map

b)

Topographic Map

c)

Road Map

d)

General Use Map

22.

What is the contour interval of this map?

a)

100 ft

b)

500 ft

c)

1000 ft

d)

15000 ft

23.

What is the highest elevation on this map?

a)

300 ft

b)

280 ft

c)

Between 291 ft and 299 ft

d)

290 ft

24.

What is the lowest possible elevation on this map?

a)

231 ft

b)

between 231 ft and 239 ft

c)

240 ft

d)

250 ft

25.

___________ describes the difference between the high and low elevations on a map.

a)

Sea level

b)

relief

c)

peak

d)

topography

26.

Match the topographic map to its profile.

a)
b)
c)
d)
27.
What is the elevation of point B?
a)
800 ft
b)
850 ft
c)
900 ft
d)
1000 ft
28.

How can you tell a map shows a steep slope?

a)

The lines are far apart from each other

b)

The lines are close to each other

29.
On a topographic map of a mountain, you walk a longer distance to get to the top when the contour lines are
a)
spread out
b)
close together
c)
going down
d)
going up
30.
Determine the contour interval:
a)
5 m
b)
10 m
c)
15 m
d)
20 m
31.

Geologic cross sections like the ones pictured show what rocks look like below the ground.

a)

True

b)

False

32.
0 degrees latitude; an imaginary line that runs around the middle of Earth, like a belt
a)
Tropic of Cancer
b)
Equator
c)
Prime Meridian
d)
Tropic of Capricorn
33.
0 degrees longitude; an imaginary line that runs up and down through the United Kingdom
a)
Prime Meridian
b)
Equator
c)
International Date Line
34.
180 degrees longitude; an imaginary line that runs up and down through the Pacific Ocean
a)
International Date Line
b)
Equator
c)
Time Zone Line
d)
Prime Meridian
35.
What is the approximate location of letter B?
a)
80oN, 0o
b)
0o, 80oW
c)
80oS, 0o
d)
0o, 80oE
36.
Which letter would you find at 15oS, 60oW?
a)
A
b)
C
c)
L
d)
H
37.
What is the map symbol (darker lines)?
a)
roads
b)
index contour
c)
contour interval
d)
waves
38.
Contour lines that are very close together indicate the land is _______________
a)
gentle/gradual
b)
a forest
c)
steep
d)
a swamp
39.
In which direction is Bird Creek flowing?
a)
West
b)
North
c)
South
d)
East
40.

Which locations have the same elevation?

a)

A and C

b)

B and E

c)

C and I

d)

F and G

41.

Points A, B, X, and Y are locations on a map. Elevations are shown in feet.


Which diagram best represents the topographic profile along a straight line from point A to point B?

a)
b)
c)
d)
42.
Map that shows detailed shapes of Earth's surface, along with its natural and human made features
a)
topographical map
b)
elevation
c)
contour line
43.
The height above sea level of any point on Earth's surface
a)
contour interval
b)
elevation
c)
slope
44.
Lines on a topographic map that connect points of equal elevation
a)
contour lines
b)
topography lines
c)
index lines
45.
The number of satellites needed to triangulate your position on Earth
a)
one
b)
three
c)
27
46.
The angular distance measured in degrees North or South of the equator is called ___.
a)
elevation
b)
relief
c)
latitude
d)
longitude
47.
The difference in elevation between contour lines on a topographic map is called ___.
a)
contour line
b)
contour interval
c)
relief
d)
scale
48.
In which direction is Mill River flowing?
a)
Southeast
b)
Southwest
c)
Northeast
d)
Northwest
49.
The NFL game starts at 8 p.m. Eastern Standard Time. What time will it start in the Pacific Time Zone?
a)
10 p.m.
b)
4 p.m.
c)
5 p.m
d)
11 p.m.
50.
How many time zones are there in the world?
a)
24
b)
12
c)
6
d)
48
51.
California is in Pacific time zone and Boston is in Eastern time zone. If it is 10:00 A.M. in Boston, what time is it in California?
a)
1:00 P.M.
b)
7:00 A.M.
c)
12:00 P.M.
d)
11:00 A.M.
52.
a)
The map shows lines of longitude.
b)
The map shows lines of latitude.
53.

The variable that I change

a)

constant

b)

independent

c)

dependent

d)

control

54.

Why do scientists use the scientific method?

a)

To make sure they get credit for their discoveries.

b)

To make sure their results are valid and can be performed by other scientists.

c)

So that other scientist don't get mad at them

d)

Because their 6th grade science teacher told them to.

55.
True or False: Your hypothesis can never be wrong.
a)
True
b)
False
56.

If plants are exposed to sunlight, then they will grow taller.

What part of the scientific method is this an example of?

a)

Procedure

b)

Hypothesis

c)

Question

d)

Results

57.

The summary at the end of an experiment that explains the results is called the...

a)

conclusion

b)

procedures

c)

materials

d)

hypothesis

58.

What is a hypothesis?

a)

An educated guess stating what you believe will be the result of your experiment

b)

A random guess

c)

A statement of the outcome of your experiment

d)

Step by step directions for your experiment

59.

What are the procedures step in the experiment?

a)

The conclusion to your experiment

b)

The materials needed to complete experiment

c)

Step by step directions of how to complete your experiment

d)

An educated, best guess

60.

The manipulated variable is the ONE thing you _____.

a)

change on purpose

b)

control or keep constant

c)

measure

61.

The variable that is being measured or observed is called the _______________.

a)

manipulated variable

b)

responding variable

c)

controlled variable

62.

An experiment is performed on plants to see how different liquids affect plant growth. Each plant in the experiment is given a different liquid: water, apple juice, or milk. What variables should be kept constant/controlled?

a)

type of plant, flower pot, soil, and amount of sunlight

b)

water, apple juice, milk

c)

only the amount of sunlight

d)

type of plant only

63.

What is a constant/control in an experiment?

a)

Things that do not change in an experiment. It's the variable that stays the same. You can have many variables stay the same.

b)

It's the variables that the scientist changes in the experiment.

c)

It's the variables that are being measured in an experiment.

64.

A series of steps used by scientists to solve a problem or answer a question is called...

a)

the scientific method.

b)

a recipe.

c)

data collection.

d)

metric system.

65.

A student is conducting an experiment to determine whether a construction paper air plane will fly faster than an airplane made from notebook paper. What would be an appropriate hypothesis?

a)

If I make a paper airplane from notebook paper, then it will fly faster than construction paper.

b)

If I throw an airplane, it will fly.

c)

If I fold the airplane a special way, then it will fly the furthest.

d)

I think the construction paper air plane will fly faster.

66.

Distance, measured in degrees, north or south of the equator

a)

latitude

b)

longitude

67.

distance, measured in degrees, east or west of the prime meridian

a)

latitude

b)

longitude

68.

Key that explains symbols on a map

a)

map legend

b)

map scale

c)

map view

69.

Relates distances on a map to actual distances

a)

map legend

b)

map scale

c)

map view

70.

Shows Earth's surface from above

a)

profile view

b)

map view

71.

First in rank

a)

prime

b)

last

72.

Shows an object as though you were looking at it from the side

a)

profile view

b)

map view

73.

Area on Earth where people use the same time

a)

time zone

b)

prime meridian

c)

longitude

d)

latitude

74.

Hight above sea level

a)

elevation

b)

relief

c)

slope

d)

aerial

75.

Shows vertical slice through rocks below Earth's surface

a)

cross section

b)

relief

c)

slope

d)

topographic map

76.

Shows the surface geology of an area

a)

geologic map

b)

topographic map

77.

Measured steepness of the land

a)

slope

b)

relief

c)

elevation

d)

aerial

78.

Shows detailed shapes and natural and human made features of Earth's surface

a)

topographic map

b)

geologic map

79.

Longitude line 180 degrees east or west of the prime meridian

a)

International Date Line

b)

prime

c)

relief

d)

elevation

80.
0 degrees latitude; an imaginary line that runs around the middle of Earth, like a belt
a)
Tropic of Cancer
b)
Equator
c)
Prime Meridian
d)
Tropic of Capricorn
81.
0 degrees longitude; an imaginary line that runs up and down through the United Kingdom
a)
Prime Meridian
b)
Equator
c)
International Date Line
82.
180 degrees longitude; an imaginary line that runs up and down through the Pacific Ocean
a)
International Date Line
b)
Equator
c)
Time Zone Line
d)
Prime Meridian
83.
What is the approximate location of letter B?
a)
80oN, 0o
b)
0o, 80oW
c)
80oS, 0o
d)
0o, 80oE
84.
Which letter would you find at 15oS, 60oW?
a)
A
b)
C
c)
L
d)
H
85.
What is the map symbol (darker lines)?
a)
roads
b)
index contour
c)
contour interval
d)
waves
86.
Contour lines that are very close together indicate the land is _______________
a)
gentle/gradual
b)
a forest
c)
steep
d)
a swamp
87.
In which direction is Bird Creek flowing?
a)
West
b)
North
c)
South
d)
East
88.

Which locations have the same elevation?

a)

A and C

b)

B and E

c)

C and I

d)

F and G

89.

Points A, B, X, and Y are locations on a map. Elevations are shown in feet.


Which diagram best represents the topographic profile along a straight line from point A to point B?

a)
b)
c)
d)
90.
Map that shows detailed shapes of Earth's surface, along with its natural and human made features
a)
topographical map
b)
elevation
c)
contour line
91.
The height above sea level of any point on Earth's surface
a)
contour interval
b)
elevation
c)
slope
92.
Lines on a topographic map that connect points of equal elevation
a)
contour lines
b)
topography lines
c)
index lines
93.
The number of satellites needed to triangulate your position on Earth
a)
one
b)
three
c)
27
94.
The angular distance measured in degrees North or South of the equator is called ___.
a)
elevation
b)
relief
c)
latitude
d)
longitude
95.
The difference in elevation between contour lines on a topographic map is called ___.
a)
contour line
b)
contour interval
c)
relief
d)
scale
96.
The NFL game starts at 8 p.m. Eastern Standard Time. What time will it start in the Pacific Time Zone?
a)
10 p.m.
b)
4 p.m.
c)
5 p.m
d)
11 p.m.
97.
How many time zones are there in the world?
a)
24
b)
12
c)
6
d)
48
98.
California is in Pacific time zone and Boston is in Eastern time zone. If it is 10:00 A.M. in Boston, what time is it in California?
a)
1:00 P.M.
b)
7:00 A.M.
c)
12:00 P.M.
d)
11:00 A.M.
99.
a)
The map shows lines of longitude.
b)
The map shows lines of latitude.
100.

What is an example of modern mapmaking?

a)

Mapmakers using repeated, first-hand experience of the landscape to create a map.

b)

Mapmakers and scientists using photos from airplanes or satellites to create a map.

c)

Mapmakers and scientists using historic and modern data by traveling on foot.

d)

Mapmakers using pictures taken when traveling to create a map of the landscape.

101.

GIS stands for

a)

Geographic Information System

b)

Generic Information System

c)

Geological Information System

d)

Geographic Information Sharing

102.

why the Use of GIS is necessary

a)

Saves Times

b)

Handle large datasets

c)

Maps can be created and edited faster

d)

All of the above

103.
What does GPS stand for?
a)
Global Positioning System
b)
Geographic Information System
c)
Land forms
d)
Map Making
104.
What does a cartographer do?
a)
Make Maps
b)
Create Computer programs
c)
Teacher
d)
None of the above
105.
Which of the following is not a use of a GIS?
a)
Store Prices
b)
Mapping 
c)
Network Services
d)
Urban Planning
106.
What is a GPS used for?
a)
Navigation
b)
Resource Distribution
c)
Irrigation 
d)
Energy Tracking
107.

What geographic tool is an actual model of the Earth?

a)

globe

b)

map

c)

GPS

d)

satellite imagery

108.

What geographic tool uses at least four satellites to provide locations on the Earth?

a)

globe

b)

map

c)

satellite imagery

d)

GPS

109.

What geographic tool is limited because it cannot show streets and small towns?

a)

globe

b)

map

c)

satellite imagery

d)

GPS

110.

How is a globe more accurate than a map?

a)

a globe is a 3 dimensional model of the Earth, but a map is flat

b)

a globe can show streets and roads, but a map cannot

c)

a globe can show all of the continents at once, but a map cannot

d)

a globe can be used to navigate from one town to another, but a map cannot

111.

A visual representation of an area

a)

globe

b)

map

c)

aerial photograph

d)

GPS

112.

Geographers only use one tool/technology when they study the world.

a)

False

b)

True

113.

Maps are the least useful tool in geography.

a)

True

b)

False

114.

Technologies like GPS and GIS help geographers with new and detailed information.

a)

True

b)

False

115.

Google maps is an example of a GIS.

a)

True

b)

False

116.
The five characteristics that all minerals share are:
a)
Definite Chemical Composition, Color, Density, Igneous, and Solid
b)
Definite Chemical Composition,  Crystal Structure, Inorganic, Naturally Occurring, and Solid
c)
Cleavage, Faces, Hardness, Metamorphic, and Streak
d)
Cleavage, Crystal Structure, Density, Igneous, and Solid
117.
Means that the substance must occur in nature, it cannot be created or manufactured by people
a)
Inorganic
b)
Organic
c)
Naturally Occurring
d)
Not Living
118.
Means that a mineral cannot come from something that was once living.
a)
Inorganic
b)
Organic
c)
Naturally Occurring
d)
Not Living
119.
This has a definite volume and shape, its particles are tightly packed together and cannot move easily.
a)
Chemical Composition
b)
Crystal Structure
c)
Density
d)
Streak
120.
This means the particles that make a mineral line up in a pattern that repeats over and over again.
a)
Chemical Composition
b)
Crystal Structure
c)
Fracture
d)
Solid
121.
A crystal has flat sides called ______ that meet in sharp edges.
a)
Color
b)
Faces
c)
Fracture
d)
Luster
122.
Definite ___________ means that a mineral always contains certain elements in definite, or exact, proportions.
a)
Chemical Composition
b)
Crystal Structure
c)
Crystal System
d)
Naturally Occurring
123.
This is measured on  the Mohs Scale.
a)
Cleavage
b)
Density
c)
Hardness
d)
Luster
124.
The _________ of a mineral is a physical property that is easy to observe.
a)
Chemical Composition
b)
Color
c)
Hardness
d)
Streak
125.
_______ is found by rubbing the mineral against an unglazed tile called a plate.
a)
Cleavage
b)
Color
c)
Luster
d)
Streak
126.
This is how a mineral reflects light.
a)
Cleavage
b)
Density
c)
Hardness
d)
Luster
127.
________ is the mass per unit volume.
a)
Crystal Structure
b)
Density
c)
Hardness
d)
Solid
128.
_______ is a property that describes a mineral  that splits evenly along flat surfaces.
a)
Cleavage
b)
Fracture
c)
Inorganic
d)
Organic
129.
This describes how a mineral looks if it breaks in an irregular way.
a)
Cleavage
b)
Fracture
c)
Inorganic
d)
Organic
130.
The three major rock groups are:
a)
Inorganic, Metamorphic, and  Sedimentary
b)
Inorganic, Metamorphosis, and Sediment
c)
Igneous, Metamorphic, and Sediment
d)
Igneous, Metamorphic, and Sedimentary
131.
This rock  is formed from molten rock (magma/lava) that has cooled.
a)
Igneous
b)
Inorganic
c)
Metamorphic
d)
Sedimentary
132.
This rock is formed from lava on  the earth's  surface
a)
Inorganic
b)
Igneous
c)
Metamorphic
d)
Sedimentary
133.
This rock is formed by erosion (continuously broken down into small fragments) and  then is compressed and  cemented together.
a)
Inorganic
b)
Igneous
c)
Metamorphic
d)
Sedimentary
134.
This rock is formed by extreme heat and/or pressure that alters the chemical composition into a new form of rock.
a)
Inorganic
b)
Igneous
c)
Metamorphic
d)
Sedimentary
135.
When identifying minerals, _______ can be tested by scratching the surface with different materials such as your fingernail or a coin.
a)
Cleavage
b)
Density
c)
Hardness
d)
Streak
136.
The color of a mineral in powder form is called the mineral's 
a)
hardness
b)
specific gravity
c)
luster
d)
streak
137.
How light reflects off of a mineral is called the mineral's 
a)
luster
b)
streak
c)
cleavage
d)
fracture
138.
Why is coal not a mineral?
a)
It's not a solid
b)
It is man-made
c)
It is not inorganic
d)
It is made of carbon
139.
The following image shows what mineral property?
a)
Hardness
b)
Streak
c)
Cleavage
d)
Density
140.
Diamond has a hardness of ___ on Mohs Hardness Scale.
a)
1
b)
5
c)
8
d)
10
141.
Dull, silky, waxy, pearly, and earthy are terms that best describe which property of minerals?
a)
luster
b)
color
c)
streak
d)
cleavage
142.
By definition, a mineral has which of the following characteristic(s)?
a)
definite chemical composition
b)
crystal structure
c)
naturally occuring
d)
all of the above
143.
How do you test the hardness of a mineral? 
a)
Throw it against a wall
b)
Step on it
c)
Scratch Test
d)
Kick it until it breaks
144.
What mineral is used for pencils?
a)
Graphite
b)
Galena
c)
Magnetite
d)
Quartz
145.
A naturally occurring, inorganic solid with a crystal structure and a definite chemical composition is referring to
a)
density
b)
streak
c)
mineral
d)
non silicate mineral
146.
The solid, geometric form of a mineral produced by a repeating pattern of atoms
a)
crystal
b)
density
c)
element
d)
fracture 
147.
This rock formed when bits of other rocks became pressed into a solid. What type of rock is it?
a)
Sedimentary Rock
b)
Metamorphic Rock
c)
Igneous Rock
148.
This rock was formed when magma cooled very slowly inside the Earth. What specific type of rock is it?
a)
Intrusive Igneous Rock
b)
Extrusive Igneous Rock
c)
Foliated Metamorphic Rock
d)
Clastic Sedimentary Rock
149.
This rock formed when lava cooled very quickly on Earth's surface. What specific type of rock is it?
a)
Extrusive Igneous Rock
b)
Intrusive Igneous Rock
c)
Non-Foliated Metamorphic Rock
d)
Biochemical Sedimentary Rock
150.
When you watch a volcano erupt molten rock, you are seeing _____
a)
Lava
b)
Magma
c)
Mineral Crystals
d)
Igneous Rocks
151.
When you are describing the sizes of the mineral grains in a rock, you are detailing the rock's _____
a)
Texture
b)
Composition
c)
Sedimentation
d)
Igneous-ness
152.
What are the 3 major types of rocks?
a)
Igneous, Metamorphic, Sedimentary
b)
Metamorphic, Igneous, Cementation
c)
Brown, Red, Gray
d)
Streak, Hardness, Breakage
153.
Two ways to describe types of igneous rocks are _____
a)
Extrusive and Intrusive
b)
Foliated and Non-Foliated
c)
Clastic and Biochemical
d)
Black and Gray
154.
What process is used to form sedimentary rocks?
a)
Lava cools and hardens to form a rock.
b)
Bits of sand and gravel form layers that turn into rock from pressure.
c)
Extreme heat and pressure from inside the Earth turn rocks into new rocks.
d)
Magma trapped under the Earth's surface cools and solidifies.
155.
This rock was formed by smaller pieces of rock that settled at the bottom of a lake millions of years ago. What type of rock is this?
a)
Sedimentary
b)
Igneous
c)
Metamorphic
156.
What has to increase for metamorphism to occur? 
a)
weathering and erosion
b)
temperature and pressure
c)
melting and cooling
d)
compaction ad cementation
157.
Which type of rock results from melting and cooling of magma?
a)
Igneous
b)
Metamorphic
c)
Sedimentary
d)
Extrusive
158.
Which type of rock forms from extreme heat and pressure?
a)
Igneous
b)
Sedimentary
c)
Organic
d)
Metamorphic
159.
This rock was formed by smaller pieces of rock that settled at the bottom of a lake millions of years ago. What type of rock is this?
a)
Sedimentary
b)
Igneous
c)
Metamorphic
160.
What are the 3 major types of rocks?
a)
Igneous, Metamorphic, Sedimentary
b)
Metamorphic, Igneous, Cementation
c)
Brown, Red, Gray
d)
Streak, Hardness, Breakage
161.
Each rock type can follow only one pathway of the rock cycle.
a)
True
b)
False
162.
The color of a mineral in powder form is called the mineral's 
a)
hardness
b)
specific gravity
c)
luster
d)
streak
163.
How light reflects off of a mineral is called the mineral's 
a)
luster
b)
streak
c)
cleavage
d)
fracture
164.
A mineral's resistance to being scratched is called?
a)
streak
b)
luster
c)
hardness
d)
heft
165.
In what kind of rock can fossils be found?
a)
Sedimentary Rocks
b)
Igneous Rocks
c)
Metamorphic Rocks
d)
Granite
166.
Which layer formed first?
a)
Rock Layer W
b)
Rock Layer X
c)
Rock Layer Y
d)
Rock Layer Z
167.
Put the layers in order from oldest to youngest.
a)
a, b, c, d, e
b)
b, c, d, a, e
c)
b, c, d, e, a 
d)
e, d, c, b, a
168.
Put the layers in order from oldest to youngest.
a)
c, e, d, b, a
b)
a, b, c, d, e
c)
a, c, e, d, b
d)
b, d, e, c, a
169.
Used to determine whether an object is older or younger than other objects
a)
Superposition
b)
Relative Dating
c)
Fossil
d)
Unconformity
170.
States that younger rocks lie above older rocks if the layers have not been disturbed
a)
Law of crosscutting
b)
Law of superposition
c)
Relative Dating
d)
Unconformity
171.
A break in the geologic record that is made when rock layers are eroded over a long period of time
a)
Law of Superposition
b)
Law of Crosscutting
c)
Relative Dating
d)
Unconformity
172.
Which rock layer in the diagram seems to be the oldest?
a)
F
b)
E
c)
B
d)
A
173.
How does sedimentary rock usually form?
a)
Vertically
b)
Diagonally
c)
Folding
d)
Horizontally
174.
Which layer is oldest?
a)
A
b)
W
c)
G
d)
Z
175.
What type of fossil is this?
a)
Trace fossil
b)
Mold
c)
Cast
d)
Carbon film
176.
What type of fossil is this?
a)
Mold
b)
Cast
c)
Preserved remains
d)
Trace fossil
177.
A mineral must by formed by ___________.
a)
processes that occur in the natural world
b)
processes that occur in the human world
178.
A mineral must be a___________.
a)
solid
b)
liquid
c)
gas
179.
A mineral must be ___________.
a)
organic
b)
inorganic
180.

A crystalline structure means

a)

disorderly internal structure

b)

atoms or ions are arranged in an orderly repetitive manner

181.

A naturally formed, inorganic solid that has a definite crystalline structure is known as a:

a)

Rock.

b)

Compound.

c)

Element.

d)

Mineral.

182.

In class you learned that there are five criteria that make a mineral, a mineral. Based on what you learned, what are the five criteria?

a)

Solid, Naturally Occurring, Inorganic, Fixed Chemical Formula, and Crystal Structure.

b)

Fixed Chemical Formula, Organic, Living, Bright Color, and Crystal Structure.

c)

Inorganic, Naturally Occurring, Plastic, Solid, and Fixed Chemical Formula.

d)

Organic, Naturally Occurring, Crystal Structure, Solid, and Liquid.

183.

Coal is NOT a mineral because

a)

It is not solid.

b)

It is not naturally occurring.

c)

It is organic.

d)

It is inorganic.

184.

Native copper is a solid, inorganic substance found in Earth. What would it be classified as?

a)

Soil.

b)

Animal.

c)

Mineral.

d)

Vegetable.

185.

Read the description below. Which detail(s) show that Sulfur is a mineral?


At room temperature Sulfur is a yellow crystalline solid. It's has a chemical formula of S8 and is found near volcanic vents.


HINT: There may be more than one answer!

a)

It is yellow.

b)

It is a solid.

c)

It can be defined by a chemical formula.

d)

All of the above.

186.

Plastic is a clear substance that is a solid. Plastic has a fixed chemical formula and is a man - made product.


Is plastic a mineral or not?

Please select two answers.

a)

Yes, plastic is a mineral because it is formed from a man - made substance.

b)

No, plastic is not a mineral because it is not naturally occurring in the environment.

c)

Yes, plastic is a mineral because it is a solid substance that has a fixed chemical formula.

d)

No, plastic is not a mineral because it does not have a crystal structure.

187.

Read the description below. Use the definition of minerals to choose the correct statement about ivory.


Ivory is a hard, solid, white material that comes from the tusks, or teeth, of animals, usually elephants.

a)

Ivory is a mineral because minerals either come from living things or are man - made.

b)

Ivory is a mineral because minerals are always white in color.

c)

Ivory is not a mineral because minerals don't come from living things.

d)

Ivory is not a mineral because minerals are not solids.

188.

Guess the Mineral!


This mineral is found in your toothpaste. It plays a key role in keeping your teeth healthy and strong. What is it?

a)

Zinc.

b)

Copper.

c)

Fluorite.

d)

Salt.

189.

Guess the Mineral!


This mineral can be crushed into a white powder that is widely known as baby powder. This powder has the ability to absorb moisture, oils, and odor. What is the name of the mineral?

a)

Zinc.

b)

Talc.

c)

Fluorite.

d)

Salt.

190.

Guess the Mineral!


This mineral is the hardest naturally occurring mineral. It is most often used in jewelry but can also be used on the tips of saw blades. What is the name of the mineral?

a)

Fluorite.

b)

Talc.

c)

Diamond.

d)

Sulfur.

191.

Fill in the blank with the correct answer choice.


Minerals can sometimes be thought of as the ______________________ of rocks. Minerals are the small particles that make up the materials in different types of rocks. Igneous, metamorphic, and sedimentary rocks all contain minerals.

a)

Solid.

b)

Building Blocks.

c)

Crystal Structure.

d)

Fixed Chemical Formula.

192.
What is molten rock deep inside of Earth?
a)
Magma
b)
Lava
193.
What is molten rock that has reached Earth's surface?
a)
Magma
b)
Lava
194.

One way that minerals form is by the crystallization of cooling

a)

magma.

b)

water.

195.
Some minerals form when solutions ___________.
a)
evaporate
b)
boil
196.

Minerals form ___________

a)

when magma and lava cool.

b)

when metamorphism occurs.

c)

from hot water solutions where water evaporates.

d)

all of the above.

197.
The color of a mineral in powder form is called the mineral's 
a)
hardness
b)
specific gravity
c)
luster
d)
streak
198.
How light reflects off of a mineral is called the mineral's 
a)
luster
b)
streak
c)
cleavage
d)
fracture
199.
A mineral's resistance to being scratched is called?
a)
streak
b)
luster
c)
hardness
d)
heft
200.
Breakage along smooth, flat planes
a)
fracture
b)
cleavage
c)
streak
d)
ore
201.
Breakage along rough or jagged edges
a)
cleavage
b)
fracture
c)
streak
d)
luster
202.
Which mineral property is being shown here?
a)
luster
b)
hardness
c)
cleavage
d)
streak
203.
Diamond has a hardness of ___ on Mohs Hardness Scale.
a)
1
b)
5
c)
8
d)
10
204.
The definition of a mineral does NOT include:
a)
crystalline structure
b)
solid
c)
organic
d)
natural
205.
Which of the following is NOT a way to identify a mineral?
a)
Luster
b)
Hardness
c)
Heaviness
d)
Density
206.
A naturally occurring, inorganic solid which has a definite crystalline structure
a)
Mineral
b)
Element
c)
Compound
d)
Rock
207.
Repeating pattern of atoms or molecules that is present throughout a solid
a)
Compound
b)
Crystals
c)
Elements
d)
Molecules
208.
Deposits of minerals from which metals and nonmetals can be removed profitably.
a)
Ore
b)
Conduction
c)
Placer Deposits
d)
Wire
209.
Chalcopyrite (copper) is used for...
a)
in pencils, paint, lubricants, and batteries
b)
wiring, in coins and jewelry, building ornaments
c)
glass
d)
in gunpowder, medicines, and rubber
210.
Graphite is used...
a)
 glass
b)
in gunpowder, medicines, and rubber
c)
in pencils, paint, lubricants, and batteries
d)
as wiring, in coins and jewelry, building ornaments
211.
Sulfur is used...
a)
in gunpowder, medicines, and rubber
b)
as glass
c)
in pencils, paint, lubricants, and batteries
d)
as wiring, in coins and jewelry, building ornaments
212.
Quartz is used...
a)
in gunpowder, medicines, and rubber
b)
as glass
c)
 in pencils, paint, lubricants, and batteries
d)
as wiring, in coins and jewelry, building ornaments
213.
How do we harvest geologic resources?
a)
With a combine.
b)
With a chainsaw.
c)
With a drill.
d)
With a boat.
214.
What is one of the most common rocks on the planet? Made of quartz, mica, and feldspar.
a)
Limonite
b)
Granite
c)
Limestone
d)
Gneiss
215.
What is true about minerals?
a)
They are naturally occurring and inorganic.
b)
They are organic and inorganic.
216.
Most minerals are made from compounds.
a)
True
b)
False
217.
Ore minerals are minerals that are valuable and economical to extract.
a)
True
b)
False
218.
_______ resources can be negatively impacted by mining
a)
Air
b)
Oxygen
c)
Dust
d)
Water
219.
Mining companies must obtain permits before mining.
a)
True
b)
False
220.
Reclamation is.....
a)
not required in the US.
b)
a process that causes significant environmental damage.
c)
returning the land back to its original condition after mining
d)
required for every country and every type of mine in the world.
221.
Which one is not a native element?
a)
gold
b)
silver
c)
copper
d)
oxygen
222.
Air pollution, water pollution, and noise pollution are associated with ______.
a)
subsurface mining
b)
surface mining
223.
 Which of the following statements about minerals is false?
a)
Humans can create minerals to suit specific needs.
b)
Minerals have a crystalline structure
c)
Minerals are inorganic materials.
d)
 Minerals cannot be liquids or gases.
224.
Acid mine drainage causes
a)
air pollution
b)
water pollution 
c)
subsidence
d)
erosion
225.
Sand, gravel, and granite are examples of what?
a)
metallic minerals
b)
metallic elements
c)
nonmetallic minerals
d)
aluminum
226.
A company is likely to mine a site if the site...?
a)
is rich in minerals
b)
does not contain gangue minerals
c)
contains gold
d)
contains minerals that can be economically extracted
227.
Which of the following is a native mineral?
a)
Kryptonite (LiNaSiB3O7(OH))
b)
Salt (NaCl)
c)
Quartz (SiO2)
d)
Silver (Ag)
228.
Which of the following is a compound?
a)
gold (Au)
b)
silver (Ag)
c)
quartz (SiO2)
d)
Uranium (U)
229.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of all minerals?
a)
naturally occuring
b)
usually inorganic solid
c)
orderly internal structure
d)
contains DNA
230.
Collapse of _________ can lead to subsidence (sinkholes).
a)
placer deposits
b)
coal
c)
pillars in abandoned mines
d)
magma seams
231.
A rock formed from fragments of other rocks is a(n)
a)
Metamorphic Rock
b)
Sedimentary Rock
c)
Extrusive Rock
d)
Igneous Rock
232.
An igneous rock containing large crystals is most likely a(n)
a)
Chemical Rock
b)
Foliated Rock
c)
Extrusive Rock
d)
Intrusive Rock
233.
A metamorphic rock in which the grains line up in parallel bands is a
a)
Clastic Rock
b)
Nonclastic Rock
c)
Nonfoliated Rock
d)
Foliated Rock
234.
If heat and pressure inside the Earth cause a rock to melt, the material that formed would be
a)
Metamorphic
b)
Magma
c)
Sedimentary
d)
Igneous
235.
You find a rock in which the grains are arranged in parallel bands of white and black crystals.  The rock is probably a(n)
a)
Igneous rock
b)
Sedimentary rock
c)
Metamorphic rock
d)
Extrusive rock
236.
As lava cools and crystallizes, what type of rock will form?
a)
Sedimentary
b)
Metamorphic
c)
Extrusive Igneous
d)
Intrusive Igneous
237.
The parent rock of Gneiss is
a)
Marble
b)
Granite
c)
Obsidian
d)
Biotite
238.
When minerals line up in bands within a metamorphic rock, this rock is...
a)
Nonfoliated
b)
Foliated
c)
Igneous
d)
Sedimentary
239.
Which of the following is not a rock
a)
Pumice
b)
Lava
c)
Halite
d)
Sandstone
240.
The three groups of rocks are classified by
a)
How they form
b)
Color
c)
Grain size
d)
Chemical Composition
241.
The igneous rock texture that is characterized by two distinctly different crystal sizes is called
a)
Coarse grained
b)
Fine grained
c)
Glassy
d)
Porphyritic
242.
Fossils are only found in
a)
Sedimentary rocks
b)
Foliated Metamorphic rocks
c)
Igneous Rocks
d)
Nonfoliated Metamorphic rocks
243.
This rock formed when bits of other rocks became pressed into a solid. What type of rock is it?
a)
Sedimentary Rock
b)
Metamorphic Rock
c)
Igneous Rock
244.
This rock was formed when magma cooled very slowly inside the Earth. What specific type of rock is it?
a)
Intrusive Igneous Rock
b)
Extrusive Igneous Rock
c)
Foliated Metamorphic Rock
d)
Clastic Sedimentary Rock
245.
This rock formed when lava cooled very quickly on Earth's surface. What specific type of rock is it?
a)
Extrusive Igneous Rock
b)
Intrusive Igneous Rock
c)
Non-Foliated Metamorphic Rock
d)
Biochemical Sedimentary Rock
246.
This rock was formed by smaller pieces of rock that settled at the bottom of a lake millions of years ago. What type of rock is this?
a)
Sedimentary
b)
Igneous
c)
Metamorphic
247.
This rock was found near the mouth of a volcano. What type of rock is this?
a)
Sedimentary
b)
Igneous
c)
Metamorphic
248.
When sediments are pressed together tightly, this is called ____________.
a)
Compaction
b)
Cementation
c)
Weathering
d)
Erosion
249.
The process when rocks break into smaller pieces due to exposure to natural elements is called
a)
erosion
b)
weathering
c)
sediments
250.

This rock started as lava that cooled and solidified. Then it was heated and put under pressure, which changed it chemically. What type of rock is this?

a)

Sedimentar

b)

Igneous

c)

Metamorphic

251.
Each rock type can follow only one pathway of the rock cycle.
a)
True
b)
False
252.

What are the 3 major types of rocks?

a)

Igneous, Metamorphic, Sedimentary

b)

Metamorphic, Igneous, Cementation

c)

Brown, Red, Gray

d)

Streak, Hardness, Breakage

253.

The individual particles that make up a rock are known as _____

a)

Grains

b)

Textures

c)

Metamorphs

d)

Lava

254.

Two ways to describe types of igneous rocks are _____

a)

Extrusive and Intrusive

b)

Foliated and Non-Foliated

c)

Clastic and Biochemical

d)

Black and Gray

255.

Intrusive rocks

a)

Forms at earth's surface

b)

Has a fine-grained texture

c)

Form underground

256.

Extrusive rocks

a)

Forms underground

b)

Has a coarse-grained texture

c)

Cool quickly

257.

A slow cooling igneous rock will have _____ crystals

a)

large

b)

small

c)

average

d)

black

258.

This type of rock can contain fossils.

a)

sedimentary rocks

b)

metamorphic rocks

c)

extrusive igneous rocks

d)

intrusive igneous rocks

259.

This rock is formed in layers.

a)

Sedimentary

b)

Igneous

c)

Metamorphic

260.

This rock is changed by heat and pressure.

a)

Sedimentary

b)

Igneous

c)

Metamorphic

261.

What factors can lead to the formation of a sedimentary rock?

a)

melting and solidification

b)

extreme heat and pressure

c)

compaction and cementation

262.

Which 2 statements below correctly identify the difference between a rock and a mineral?

a)

Rocks are mixtures and minerals are not.

b)

Rocks can be organic and minerals are always inorganic.

c)

Rocks are harder than minerals.

d)

Rocks are the building blocks of minerals.

263.
Which way do convergent plates move in relation to each other?
a)
Come together
b)
Move apart
c)
Slide next to each other
d)
Bend each other
264.
Which way to divergent boundaries move in relation to each other?
a)
Come together
b)
Move apart
c)
Slide next to each other
d)
Bend each other
265.
Which way to transform boundaries move in relation to each other?
a)
Come together
b)
Move apart
c)
Slide next to each other
d)
Bend each other
266.
What rock type is made from compacting and cementing?
a)
Sedimentary
b)
Igneous
c)
Metamorphic
267.
What rock type is made from extreme heat and pressure?
a)
Sedimentary
b)
Igenous
c)
Metamorphic
268.
What rock type is made from cooling lava?
a)
Sedimentary
b)
Igenous
c)
Metamorphic
269.
What term refers to breaking down rocks?
a)
Weathering
b)
Erosion
c)
Deposition
270.
What term refers to moving weathered materials?
a)
Weathering
b)
Erosion
c)
Deposition
271.
What term refers to where eroded materials end up?
a)
Weathering 
b)
Erosion
c)
Deposition
272.
What is the outermost layer of the Earth?
a)
Crust
b)
Inner core
c)
Outer core
d)
Mantle
273.
What layer would you find magma in?
a)
Inner core
b)
Outer core
c)
Mantle
d)
Crust
274.
Which of the following is NOT a type of rock?
a)
Sedimentary
b)
Igneous
c)
Metamorphic
d)
Metamorphous
275.
What is the scientific meaning or "organic"?
a)
Never living
b)
Once living
c)
Healthier
d)
Processed
276.
Weathering occurs due to different types of weather.
a)
True
b)
False
277.
Which of the following eras came first?
a)
Cenozoic
b)
Mesozoic
c)
Paleozoic
278.
Which of the following eras are we currently in?
a)
Paleozoic
b)
Mesozoic
c)
Cenozoic
279.
Which of the following is NOT a fossil type?
a)
Molds
b)
Casts
c)
Trace
d)
Compact
280.
Which of the following terms relates to the idea of new ocean floor being created?
a)
Sea floor spreading
b)
Transform boundary
c)
Fault line
d)
Fossil record
281.
What do scientists use as evidence of continental drift?
a)
Sea floor spreading
b)
Fossil record
c)
Coastline shapes
d)
All of these options
282.
Which interaction likely formed Mt. Everest?
a)
Continental vs. Continental convergence
b)
Oceanic vs. Continental convergence
c)
Oceanic vs. Oceanic convergence
d)
Transform boundary
283.

The movement of the tectonic plates is caused by

a)

the rotation of the Earth.

b)

convection currents in the Asthenosphere

c)

the gravity of the iron-nickel core.

d)

the Moho discontinuity.

284.

In some areas of the world, like California and Japan, earthquakes are a common occurrence. How can this best be explained?

a)

The strong ocean currents are undermining both areas causing earthquakes.

b)

Both areas are located near the edge of the Pacific Ocean, the unstable sand causes earthquakes.

c)

Both areas are subjected to strong ocean wind and waves that causes earthquakes.

d)

Both areas are on the boundary of active plates, the motion of the plates causes earthquakes.

285.
Subduction zones occur on Earth where dense oceanic crust dives under more buoyant continental crust. These boundaries are characterized by a deep ocean trench next to a high continental mountain range, large numbers of earthquakes and volcanoes. All of this is further evidence for the
a)
big bang theory.
b)
theory of plate tectonics.
c)
origin of the species.
d)
theory of natural selection.
286.
There are three types of plate boundaries. Which choice is NOT a type of plate boundary?
a)
convergent
b)
thrust
c)
divergent
d)
transform
287.

Observe this diagram of a plate boundary. One statement BEST describes what is happening. It is that

a)

the oceanic crust is melting.

b)

the denser ceanic crust is subducting under the less dense oceanic crust

c)

volcanic islands are forming.

d)

the tectonic plates are moving away from each other.

288.

The map in the picture shows tectonic plate boundaries. This map would be useful in predicting the location of future

a)

droughts

b)

hurricanes

c)

earthquakes

d)

tornadoes

289.
What geological forces might be responsible for this range of mountains?
a)
diverging tectonic plates
b)
erosion of the land by the ocean
c)
converging tectonic plates
d)
deposition of sediments by the ocean
290.

Earthquake epicenters (center of where the earthquakes started) were mapped for a 35 year period in the diagram above. The black dots indicate these epicenters. The black dots appear along what feature on Earth?

a)

hot spots

b)

plate boundaries

c)

rift zones

d)

sea floor spreading

291.
The Earth’s surface is not a solid surface but is divided into
a)
several oceanic plates.
b)
continental and crustal plates.
c)
seven continental plates.
d)
continental and oceanic plates.
292.
Geologists have long recognized that earthquakes are not randomly distributed on Earth but occur in concentrated areas that coincide with __________ and provide evidence for the theory of ___________ .
a)
mountain ranges; fault zones.
b)
continental borders; supercontinents.
c)
plate boundaries; plate tectonics
d)
areas of liquid magma; sea floor spreading.
293.
Which geological features MOST LIKELY prompted the development of the theory of plate tectonics?
a)
river deltas
b)
mountain ranges
c)
glacier fields
d)
tropical rainforests
294.

Where are earthquakes MOST LIKELY to occur?

a)

close to the equator

b)

close to the center of tectonic plates

c)

at divergent or convergent plate boundaries

d)

at transform plate boundaries

295.

The 2004 Indian Ocean tsunami was caused by a shift in two plates that pushed one section of the sea floor under another section of the sea floor by 5 meters. What type of boundary is this?

a)

divergent

b)

convergent

c)

transform

d)

metamorphic

296.
The image shows the Pacific Ring of Fire, a region of high tectonic activity. What evidence supports the theory that the tectonic activity of the region is due to the subduction of tectonic plates?
a)
The region is bound by many oceanic trenches.
b)
North America seems to be colliding with Asia at the north of the ring.
c)
The Asia-Pacific region is dotted by many small and large islands
d)
The landmasses look like they would fit together like the pieces of a jigsaw puzzle.
297.
The Atlantic Ocean gets about 3-5 ______ wider each year.
a)
centimeters
b)
kilometers
c)
miles
d)
meters
298.

___________ currents in the Earth's asthenosphere cause plate to shift at their boundaries. This movement also causes earthquakes and volcanic activity.

a)

conduction

b)

convection

c)

radiation

d)

ocean

299.
Observe the plate boundary shown here. What type of plate boundary is this? Many geologic events occur at these boundaries. Some are shown, but one is missing. What geologic event would you predict would occur at this plate boundary?
a)
convergent oceanic-oceanic plate boundary; volcano
b)
divergent oceanic-oceanic plate boundary; sea floor spreading
c)
convergent oceanic-continental plate boundary; earthquake
d)
convergent continental-continental plate boundary; mountain building
300.

What is the source of energy that drives plate movement?

a)

the subducton of the sea floor

b)

the different densities of the oceanic and crustal plates

c)

convection currents in the asthenosphere

d)

the friction force between the plates that move past each other

301.

Where would sea floor spreading most likely occur?

a)

At convergent boundaries (oceanic vs. oceanic)

b)

At convergent boundaries (oceanic vs. continental)

c)

At divergent plate boundaries (oceanic vs. oceanic)

d)

At transform plate boundaries

302.

The Marianas Trench, where the Pacific Plate descends under the leading edge of the Eurasian Plate, is the deepest sea floor in the world. These ocean trenches form when two oceanic plates collide

a)

and the older, less dense of the two plates rides over the edge of the older plate.

b)

when convection currents in the mantle force the older plate downward.

c)

and the younger, denser of the two plates, rides over the edge of the older plate.

d)

and the plates are approximately the same age and density.

303.
Created by a divergent boundary.
a)
Rocky Mountains
b)
Mariana Trench
c)
Mid Atlantic ridge
304.
Mountains form from ...
a)
plates sliding past one another
b)
collision of plates
c)
plates moving away from each other
305.
During sea floor spreading, molten material rises up from the mantle...
a)
along the continents
b)
at the mid ocean ridges
c)
deep ocean trenches
d)
at north and south poles
306.
Which of the following is where one plate slides under another plate?
a)
submarine zone
b)
divergence zone
c)
subduction zone
d)
lower zone
307.
The area around the pacific plate where boundaries form is called...
a)
death ring
b)
fire zone
c)
ring of fire
d)
zone of fire
308.
Associated with transform boundaries.
a)
Volcanoes
b)
mountains
c)
trenches
d)
earthquakes
309.
This land formation occurs at a divergent continental/ continental boundary.
a)
mid ocean ridge
b)
deep ocean trench
c)
pacific hot spot
d)
rift valley
310.
What happens to temperature as you go deeper in the Earth?
a)
decreases
b)
increases
c)
fluctuates
d)
remains the same
311.
Name the boundary
a)
convergent boundary
b)
divergent boundary
c)
transform boundary
d)
sergent boundary
312.
What is represented by the picture? 
a)
Sea-floor spreading
b)
Pangea
c)
How the continents are arranged today
d)
Volcanoes
313.
Name the boundary
a)
convergent boundary
b)
divergent boundary
c)
transform boundary
d)
sergent boundary
314.
Name the boundary
a)
convergent boundary
b)
divergent boundary
c)
transform boundary
d)
sergent boundary
315.
Which type of crust is more dense and thinner?
a)
Continental
b)
Asthenosphere
c)
Oceanic
d)
Byers
316.
What was Wegener's hypothesis called?
a)
The Pangea 
b)
Moving Continents 
c)
The Continental Drift
d)
Techtonic Plates
317.
Why was Alfred Wegner's theory of Continental Drift not immediately accepted by scientists?
a)
there was no mechanism to explain how Continental Drift happened.
b)
The theory of Continental Drift was immediately accepted by the scientific community.
c)
there was no evidence to support his theory.
d)
Scientists did not think it was possible for the Continents to move.
318.
A location where two tectonic plates collide is known as a _________ boundary.
a)
Convergent
b)
Divergent
c)
Transform
d)
Spreading
319.
Which answer below correctly describes the formation of a volcanic island arc?
a)
Islands are created along the mid ocean ridge as new oceanic crust is formed.
b)
Islands are created one at a time as the plate moves across a hot spot in the mantle.
c)
Islands are created along a subduction zone as oceanic crust is forced back down in to the mantle.
d)
Islands are created as pressure is released when two tectonic plates are pulled apart.
320.

Earthquakes happen along a fault line. Which of the following is NOT true about faults?

a)

It can be found on land.

b)

It can be found under the sea.

c)

It is where fault cyclone starts.

d)

It is a break in the Earth’s crust

321.

Energy from inside the Earth makes the ground move. Which of the following is the reason why there is no movement right away?

a)

Friction causes the delay on the movement of the ground.

b)

There is no movement right away because of the vibration of the rocks.

c)

There is no movement right away because of the bending of the rocks.

d)

The rapid release of energy causes the delay of the movement of the ground.

322.

Earthquakes are common occurrence in Japan, Indonesia, and Philippines. Why is this so?

a)

Japan, Indonesia and Philippines are surrounded by seas.

b)

Japan, Indonesia and Philippines are located near the equator.

c)

Japan, Indonesia and Philippines are considered archipelagic countries.

d)

Japan, Indonesia and Philippines are found within the Pacific Ring of fire.

323.

Which of the following refers to the place where the earthquakes start?

a)

Fault

b)

Focus

c)

Epicenter

d)

Fault plane

324.

What do you call the spot above the focus on the surface of the Earth?

a)

Fault

b)

Crust

c)

Focus

d)

Epicenter

325.

Scientists use different ways to describe how powerful an earthquake is. Which method refers to noting the effects of the earthquake on people, structures, and the surroundings?

a)

Focus

b)

Intensity

c)

Epicenter

d)

Magnitude

326.

Which term refers to the released energy of an earthquake?

a)

Focus

b)

Intensity

c)

Epicenter

d)

Magnitude

327.

Which factor keeps the rocks from slipping past each other?

a)

The depth of the rocks.

b)

The bending of the rocks.

c)

The arrangement of rocks.

d)

The roughness of the rocks.

328.

What do you call the phenomenon that refers to the fast movement between two sides of a fault wherein the friction is overcome resulting to a sudden movement or shaking of the ground?

a)

Stick-slip

b)

Stick-bend

c)

Stick-shake

d)

Stick-vibrate

329.

What Philippine Agency is concerned in monitoring fault movement?

a)

Department of Labor and Employment (DOLE)

b)

Department of Environment and Natural Resources (DENR)

c)

Philippine Institute of Volcanology and Seismology (PHILVOCS)

d)

Philippine Atmospheric, Geophysical and Astronomical Services Administration (PAGASA)

330.

Scientists use different ways to find out if a fault is active. Which one is NOT included?

a)

Scientist created a fault model.

b)

Scientist observed the surroundings.

c)

Scientist checked the country’s historical record.

d)

Scientist studied the past and present vibrations.

331.

What is the other term used to describe Intensity V?

a)

Strong

b)

Devastating

c)

Very strong

d)

Destructive

332.

Which of the following choices is properly associated?

a)

Intensity III : Weak

b)

Intensity 9: devastating

c)

Magnitude 5: slightly felt

d)

Magnitude II: scarcely perceptible

333.

What will most likely happen every time a fault slips?

a)

The rocks will be stuck together.

b)

There will be no movement at all.

c)

There will be movement right away.

d)

The rocks will suddenly slip and will generate an earthquake.

334.

Not every fault movement beneath the sea will produce a tsunami. Which of the following fault movements will result to such occurrence?

a)

String movement

b)

Vertical movement

c)

Sideward movement

d)

Horizontal movement

335.

Which of the following is/are true about tsunamis?

a)

It is related to tides.

b)

It is a giant tidal wave.

c)

It is due to the upward movement of rock on land.

d)

It is due to the upward movement of rock at the seafloor.

336.

What happens to the tsunami when it reaches the shore?

a)

The wave speeds up

b)

The wave breaks down.

c)

It slows down and grows in height.

d)

The wave speeds up and grows in height.

337.

Which of the following refers to the vibrations produced by an earthquake?

a)

Tidal waves

b)

Seismic waves

c)

Pressure waves

d)

Sea-surface waves

338.

What happens when seismic waves travel deeper into the crust?

a)

Seismic waves speed up.

b)

Seismic waves disappear.

c)

Seismic waves slow down.

d)

Seismic waves maintain their speed.

339.

The seismic waves travel through the Earth and carry information from the interior to the surface. All of the following statements is true, EXCEPT

a)

The seismic waves are reflected.

b)

The seismic waves bounced back.

c)

The seismic waves are refracted or bent.

d)

The seismic waves are stocked on the rocks.

340.

A broad volcano with gently sloping sides is a ________________

a)

Shield

b)

Cinder Cone

c)

Fire Fountain

d)

Composite

341.

A small volcano with steep sides.

a)

cinder cone

b)

composite

c)

strata

d)

shield

342.

A steep-sided volcano formed from layers of lava and ash.

a)

Strata or composite

b)

shield

c)

cinder cone

d)

fire fountain

343.

Lava that is very thin and runny probably

a)

has low silica content

b)

is high in silica

344.

Pyroclastic material forms when

a)

magma explodes into the air and travels down the mountain very fast

b)

lava flows calmly from a crack in the Earth´s crust

c)

magma remains underground too long

d)

lava flows underwater

345.

A combination of explosive and quiet eruptions will create a

a)

composite volcano

b)

shield volcano

c)

cinder cone volcano

346.

Where are volcanoes most likely to form?

a)

along plate boundaries

b)

near the center of continents

c)

near water

d)

on the moon

347.

One major belt of volcanoes that surrounds the Pacific Ocean

a)

Ring of Fire

b)

Ring of Asia

c)

Ring o' earthquakes

d)

Ring a ding ding

348.

A bowl shaped area that may form at the top of a volcano around the central vent

a)

crater

b)

vent

c)

tube

d)

leftovers

349.

An area where material from deep within Earth's mantle rises through the crust and melts to form magma.

a)

hot spot

b)

rift zone

c)

hot soup

d)

hot mamma

350.
What is molten rock that has formed deep within the Earth?
a)
Hot Spot
b)
Magma
c)
Lava
d)
Volcano
351.
What is molten rock that has reached the Earth's surface?
a)
Aa
b)
Lava
c)
Magma
d)
Pahoehoe
352.
As magma rises towards the surface it collects in a 'room' called a _____ _____ . 
a)
magma chamber
b)
side vent
c)
main vent
d)
lava chamber
353.
Vocanoes are found...
a)
on land
b)
under water
c)
on islands
d)
all of the above
354.
What is a volcano?
a)
A mountain that has lava all over it 
b)
A giant hill filled with magma
c)
A long high sea wave 
d)
A hole in the Earth where magma erupts
355.
The difference between magma and lava is _____
a)
where it is found (above or below the surface)
b)
how hot the molten rock is (lava is hotter than magma)
c)
 the type of boundary where it forms
d)
the viscosity of the molten rock (lava has a lower viscosity)
356.
Where are most volcanoes found?
a)
Southern Hemisphere
b)
Ring of Fire
c)
Mid-Atlantic Ridge
d)
Hot Spots
357.
Why does magma tend to rise to the surface?
a)
It has large amounts of silica.
b)
It contains very little silica.
c)
It is denser than the surrounding material.
d)
It is less dense than the surrounding material.
358.
What type of volcano has steep slopes made of alternating layers of ash and silica rich lava?
a)
Caldera
b)
Cinder Cone
c)
Composite Volcano
d)

Shield Volcano

359.
What type of volcano is made of lava fragments that have been ejected from a volcanic vent?
a)
Caldera
b)
Cinder Cone
c)
Composite Volcano
d)
Shield Volcano
360.
What is the definition of dormant?
a)
sleeping
b)
extinct
c)
active
d)
invisible
361.
Volcanoes that are NOT found at plate boundaries occur in the middle of plates in areas called ___________. 
a)
hot spots
b)
mid-ocean ridges
c)
fissure volcanoes
d)
shield volcanoes
362.
Most volcanoes occur at which 2 types of plate boundaries? 
a)
convergent w/ subduction and divergent
b)
divergent and transform
c)
divergent and hot spots
d)
convergent w/ subduction and hot spots
363.
A dead volcano, one that is unlikely to erupt again
a)
Dormant volcano
b)
Extinct volcano
c)
Shield volcano
d)
Caldera
364.

Where do volcanoes typically form?

a)

At plate boundaries.

b)

In the middle of tectonic plates.

365.

What is an active volcano?

a)

A volcano that has erupted at least once in the last 10,000 years.

b)

A volcano that hasn’t erupted in the last 10,000 years, but could still erupt.

c)

A volcano that should never erupt again.

366.

What is a dormant volcano?

a)

A volcano that has erupted at least once in the last 10,000 years.

b)

A volcano that hasn’t erupted in the last 10,000 years, but could still erupt.

c)

A volcano that should never erupt again.

367.

What is an extinct volcano?

a)

A volcano that has erupted at least once in the last 10,000 years.

b)

A volcano that hasn’t erupted in the last 10,000 years, but could still erupt.

c)

A volcano that should never erupt again.

368.

What kind of eruptions do composite volcanoes have?

a)

Explosive eruptions.

b)

Quiet eruptions.

369.

What kind of eruptions do shield volcanoes have?

a)

Explosive eruptions.

b)

Quiet eruptions.

370.

Statue of Liberty has changed colors over time because oxygen has caused the surface of the copper it is made of to change into a new chemical (just like copper pennies turn green). What kind of weathering is this?

a)

chemical weathering

b)

physical weathering

371.

Acid rain has worn away the features on this statue. What type of weathering is this?

a)

chemical weathering

b)

physical weathering

372.

The rocks in this stream have gradually worn down from the water and particles in the water rubbing on them over time (abrasion). What kind of weathering is this?

a)

chemical weathering

b)

physical weathering

373.

This freezing water is expanding, causing the crack in the rock to widen (frost action). What kind of weathering is this?

a)

chemical weathering

b)

physical weathering

374.

These plant roots are widening cracks in the rock. What kind of weathering is this?

a)

chemical weathering

b)

physical weathering

375.

This arch was formed by wind and particles carried by the wind rubbing on the rock over time (abrasion). What type of weathering is this?

a)

chemical weathering

b)

physical weathering

376.

Burrowing animals like this one dig holes in the ground, breaking up soils. What kind of weathering is this?

a)

chemical weathering

b)

physical weathering

377.

Does this show signs of physical or chemical weathering?

a)

Physical Weathering

b)

Chemical Weathering

378.

Does this show signs of physical or chemical weathering?

a)

Physical Weathering

b)

Chemical Weathering

379.

Does this show signs of physical or chemical weathering?

a)

Physical Weathering

b)

Chemical Weathering

380.

Does this show signs of physical or chemical weathering?

a)

Physical Weathering

b)

Chemical Weathering

381.

Does this show signs of physical or chemical weathering?

a)

Physical Weathering

b)

Chemical Weathering

382.

Does this show signs of physical or chemical weathering?

a)

Physical Weathering

b)

Chemical Weathering

383.
Which of the following shows where soil formation happens at a faster rate?
a)
Cold, dry climate
b)
Steep Slopes
c)
Valleys and Flat Areas
d)
Few animals and plants are present
384.
Which are contained in soil?
a)
Small rock fragments and air
b)
Inorganic humus and dead animals
c)
Earthworms and crete
d)
Landslides and water
385.
What is the movement of soil from one place to another?
a)
weathering
b)
deposition
c)
discharge
d)
erosion
386.
Weathering and erosion are the same thing.
a)
True
b)
False
387.
Waves dropping sand on the beach is called?
a)
Weathering
b)
Erosion
c)
Deposition
d)
Movement
388.
The process of moving weathered rock and depositing it in another location is called?
a)
weathering
b)
erosion
c)
deposition
389.

Wetlands store flood waters. How is this beneficial? Choose the best answer.

a)

Its not really beneficial because this may flood peoples homes.

b)

It releases the water is increments which will really increase the wildlife in that area.

c)

It releases the water in increments ( a little at a time) which slows the water down thus slowing erosion.

d)

Its really not beneficial because this will flood the habitats of the wildlife living there.

390.
Soil formation begins with the weathering of_______.
a)
Humus
b)
Subsoil
c)
Litter
d)
Rock
391.
Humus is.....
a)
the dead parts of plants and animals in soil.
b)
A food we eat with pretzels.
c)
The tiny particles inside of soil
d)
The roots that come off of a plant and live in soil.
392.
How would you describe the texture of "sandy" soil?
a)
sticky
b)
gritty
c)
smooth
d)
slimy
393.
Decayed organic material turns into dark colored material called __.
a)
litter
b)
clay
c)
humus
d)
soil
394.
According to our lab on soil and water absorption, which soil held the most amount of water?
a)
Clay
b)
Potting Soil
c)
Gravel
d)
Sand
395.
During the landslide lab, what were we testing for?
a)
Which soil was most slippery
b)
What type of soil has more frequent landslides
c)
What type of soil is safer to build on
d)
What type of soil is not located on a mountain
396.
Potholes in streets are caused by
a)
carbonation
b)
hydrolysis
c)
oxidation
d)
ice wedging
397.
What is the first step of soil formation?
a)
humus decomposing
b)
nitrates being absorbed by the plant roots
c)
weathering of parent rock
d)
climate changing
398.
Weathering occurs fastest in
a)
cold, dry climates
b)
cold, wet climates
c)
hot, dry climates
d)
hot, wet climates
399.
The MAIN  thing Decomposers do for the the soil is the following:
a)
Store moisture
b)
Burrow deep in the soil
c)
Make space for air and water
d)
Break down and digest dead organisms
400.
What is soil composed of?
a)
weathered rock
b)
minerals
c)
living things
d)
all of the above
401.
Which type of climate will cause the slowest weathering and soil formation?
a)
humid and hot
b)
dry and cold
c)
moderate temperature
d)
cold and wet
402.
Which of the following processes will most likely contribute to the development of soil?
a)
Volcanic eruptions that make new land
b)
Building up of snow in very cold areas
c)
Migration of animals to warmer climates
d)
Breaking down of rock by wind, water, and ice
403.
Earthworms, moles and other animals help soil formation by:
a)
Breaking rock down
b)
Mixing and loosening soil by burrowing 
c)
Draining the water from soil
d)
Eating soil
404.

Rain washing soil away from a hillside is an example of

a)

Abrasion

b)

Erosion

c)

Deposition

d)

Weathering

405.

Water is able to move rocks as big as a boulder.

a)

True

b)

False

406.

carries away materials

a)

Erosion

b)

Deposition

c)

Weathering

d)

Rock Cycle

407.

The process of sediment being dropped off in a new place is called

a)

Abrasion

b)

Erosion

c)

Deposition

d)

Weathering

408.

A delta is an example of

a)

Erosion

b)

Weathering

c)

Sediment

d)

Deposition

409.

Sea caves are coastal landform made by

a)

Erosion

b)

Deposition

410.
Muddy water being carried away by a fast-moving river
a)
Weathering
b)
Erosion
c)
Deposition 
411.

Small, broken down pieces of rock are called

a)

sedimentary rock

b)

sediment

c)

smaller rocks

d)

crumbs

412.
Flood waters moving soil from one location to another
a)
Weathering
b)
Erosion
c)
Deposition
413.
Waves wash sand onto land until a beach is formed
a)
Mechanical Weathering
b)
Chemical Weathering
c)
Erosion
d)
Deposition
414.
A flash flood washes away the side of a river bank
a)
Mechanical Weathering
b)
Chemical Weathering
c)
Erosion
d)
Deposition
415.
What occurs when water flows or collects over land that is usually dry.
a)
dam
b)
flood
c)
floodway
d)
levee
416.
What is a wall along the banks of a river or other body of water that serves to keep water behind it?
a)
flood
b)
floodway
c)
levee
d)
reserboir
417.

How are dams and levees alike?

a)

both control floods

b)

both control weathering

c)

bath are natural barriers

d)

both prevent coastal erosion

418.

What is the name for an area of flat land next to a river?

a)

floodzone

b)

wetplain

c)

saturated zone

d)

floodplain

419.

When deposits build up in a harbour or lake, they need to be removed. This process is called...

a)

dredging

b)

dodging

c)

delta

d)

digging

420.

What is a Karst Landscape?

a)

A distinctive landscape made of bare limestone and formed by coastal erosion

b)

A distinctive landscape made of bare granite and formed by mechanical weathering

c)

A distinctive landscape made of bare sandstone and formed by chemical weathering

d)

A distinctive landscape made of limestone and formed by chemical weathering

421.

The sudden and dramatic movement of snow and ice down a mountain is called

a)

earthquake

b)

avalanche

c)

flash flood

d)

storm surge

422.

the continuous process by which water is circulated throughout the earth through various processes

a)

precipitation

b)

codensation

c)

water cycle

d)

evaporation

423.

when water in the clouds gets too heavy, the water falls back to the Earth as rain, sleet, snow, hail, mist, etc.

a)

precipitation

b)

codensation

c)

transpiration

d)

evaporation

424.

the process of a gas changing to a liquid (gas to liquid) as it cools

a)

precipitation

b)

codensation

c)

transpiration

d)

evaporation

425.

the process of a liquid changing to a gas at the surface of a liquid (liquid to gas)

a)

precipitation

b)

codensation

c)

water cycle

d)

evaporation

426.

evaporation of water from plants (plants sweating)

a)

precipitation

b)

codensation

c)

transpiration

d)

evaporation

427.

the process in which water pools in large bodies like oceans, seas, and lakes

a)

surface runoff

b)

groundwater

c)

accumulation

d)

subsurface runoff

428.

water from precipitation that flows over Earth’s surface

a)

surface runoff

b)

groundwater

c)

accumulation

d)

subsurface runoff

429.

water from precipitation that flows in underground streams, drains, or sewers

a)

surface runoff

b)

groundwater

c)

accumulation

d)

subsurface runoff

430.

frozen water turns directly into water vapor (ice to gas), skipping the melting phase into a liquid

a)

sublimation

b)

infiltration

c)

percolation

431.

water that seeps down into the soil

a)

sublimation

b)

infiltration

c)

percolation

432.

water that filters through holes in the soil due to gravity

a)

sublimation

b)

infiltration

c)

percolation

433.

a material not allowing liquid to flow through

a)

pervious surface

b)

impervious surface

434.

a material that allows liquid to pass through it

a)

pervious surface

b)

impervious surface

435.

area where the zone of aeration and zone of saturation meet

a)

water cycle

b)

recharge zone

c)

water table

436.

an area where surface water from streams, ponds, or lakes enters into an aquifer

a)

zone of saturation

b)

recharge zone

c)

zone of aeration

437.

an area underground with water filled pores

a)

zone of saturation

b)

recharge zone

c)

zone of aeration

438.

an area underground with air filled pores

a)

zone of saturation

b)

recharge zone

c)

zone of aeration

439.

underground rock layers that store and allow the flow of water

a)

permeability

b)

aquifer

c)

porosity

440.

rocks ability to let water pass through it

a)

permeability

b)

aquifer

c)

porosity

441.

Which of the following are some of the major mineral resources of Virginia? (Released VA DOE SOL Question)

a)

Diamonds, sapphires, and rubies

b)

Coal, granite, and limestone

c)

Sulfur, fluorite, and cobalt

d)

Gold, silver, and copper

442.

In which province would clay, sand, and gravel deposits be found? (Released VA DOE SOL Question)

a)

Appalachian Plateau

b)

Valley and Ridge

c)

Blue Ridge

d)

Coastal Plain

443.

Caves are found in Virginia's Valley and Ridge province because the area is underlain by - (Released VA DOE SOL Question)

a)

granite

b)

shale

c)

gneiss

d)

limestone

444.

The folding and faulting found in the rocks of the Blue Ridge Mountains of Virginia were created by - (Released VA DOE SOL Question)

a)

collisions of continental plates

b)

wave action of prehistoric ocean

c)

the Coriolis effect

d)

heating and cooling of the prehistoric atmosphere

445.

Which region of Virginia is classified as the Piedmont? (Released VA DOE SOL Question)

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

446.

From the Piedmont province to the Coastal Plain, the land drops as much as several hundred feet. This drop, which is abrupt in some places and gradual in others, is known as the Fall Line. What features(s) would rivers exhibit when they cross the Fall Line? (Released VA DOE SOL Question)

a)

Waterfalls and rapids

b)

Sudden increases in water volume

c)

Significantly higher water temperatures

d)

Shallow beds and slow currents

447.

The fossil fuel found in greatest abundance in Virginia is - (Released VA DOE SOL Question)

a)

oil

b)

coal

c)

natural gas

d)

methane

448.

Many quarries in Virginia produce crushed stone. What industry uses the most crushed stone? (Released VA DOE SOL Question)

a)

Plastics

b)

Construction

c)

Electronics

d)

Steel

449.

The presence of many metamorphic rocks in Virginia is an indication that the area has been subjected to - (Released VA DOE SOL Question)

a)

intense heat and pressure

b)

limited volcanic activity

c)

deep ocean venting

d)

massive solar bombardment

450.

amount of open space between rock particles

a)

permeability

b)

aquifer

c)

porosity

451.
What is A?
a)
Evaporation
b)
Condensation
c)
Precipitation
d)
Runoff
452.
What is B?
a)
Evaporation
b)
Condensation
c)
Precipitation
d)
Runoff
453.
What is C?
a)
Evaporation
b)
Condensation
c)
Precipitation
d)
Runoff
454.
Where is most of the freshwater found on Earth?
a)
lakes
b)

ice and glaciers

c)
oceans
d)
rivers
455.
Approximately what percentage of the water on Earth is freshwater?
a)
0.1%
b)
3%
c)
50%
d)
97%
456.
The release of moisture by living plants.
a)
evaporation
b)
precipitation
c)
condensation
d)
transpiration
457.
What is NOT an example of freshwater?
a)
Rivers
b)
Lakes
c)
Oceans
d)
Groundwater
458.
Ponds are _______ and ________ than lakes?
a)
smaller and shallower
b)
fatter and larger
c)
wider and larger
d)
longer and wider
459.

area where the saturation zone and unsaturation zone meet

a)

water cycle

b)

recharge zone

c)

water table

460.

an area underground with water filled pores

a)

saturation zone

b)

recharge zone

c)

unsaturation zone

461.

underground rock layers that store and allow the flow of water

a)

permeability

b)

aquifer

c)

porosity

462.
These are the three main jobs of wetlands.
a)

provide habitats, help control floods, purify water

b)
provide habitats, store plant life, purify water
c)
purify water, store wildlife, provide habitats
d)

purify the land, help control flood, provide habitats

463.

Wetlands help control flood. How is this beneficial? Choose the best answer.

a)

Its not really beneficial because this may flood peoples homes.

b)

It releases the water is increments which will really increase the wildlife in that area.

c)

Absorbs waters from heavy rains.

d)

Its really not beneficial because this will flood the habitats of the wildlife living there.

464.
What are the 3 types of wetlands?
a)
swamp, ocean, river
b)
pond, river, marsh
c)
marsh, marsh, marsh
d)
swamp, marsh, bog
465.

Pollution that cannot be traced to a single point because comes from many sources

a)

estuary

b)

water shed

c)

non point source pollution

d)

point source pollution

466.

A _____ is an artificial lake built for storage of water fpr human use

a)

running water

b)

reservoir

c)

storage

467.
The sun will cause water in the puddle to change from
a)
a gas to a liquid
b)
a liquid to a gas
c)
solid to a liquid
d)
a liquid to a solid
468.

What is the energy source for the water cycle?

a)

sun

b)

wind

c)

rain

d)

oceans

469.

Which of the following is an example of precipitation?

a)

sleet

b)

hail

c)

snow

d)

all of the above

470.

What percent of the earth is covered by water?

a)

20%

b)

50%

c)

70%

d)

85%

471.

The edge of highland that surrounds a drainage basin is:

a)

A Meander

b)

The Watershed

c)

A Waterfall

d)

The Bank

472.

The flood plain of a river is:

a)

Very hilly

b)

Steep sloping

c)

In the mountains

d)

Generally flat

473.

A stream or river that joins the main river is:

a)

A tributary

b)

A confluence

c)

The mouth

d)

A Canyon

474.

The point at which two rivers or streams meet is called:

a)

A tributary

b)

A coincidence

c)

A confluence

d)

A delta

475.

Rivers erode the land to make what shaped valleys?

a)

U shaped

b)

C shaped

c)

T shaped

d)

V shaped

476.

Flood plains and Deltas are found in which part of a river system?

a)

Upper course

b)

Lower course

c)

Middle course

d)

Every part/course

477.

Waterfalls and rapids are found in which course of the river?

a)

Upper course

b)

Lower course

c)

Middle course

d)

All parts/courses

478.

Meanders are what type of feature?

a)

A steep bank

b)

Turbulent water

c)

Winding curve shapes

d)

A U shaped lake

479.

Which statements below are true about the source of a river? (more than one correct answer)

a)

Found in

b)

The start of a river

c)

A stream or spring often found in the mountains/highland

d)

Deposits sediment forming large deltas

480.

The Iguazu falls on the Brazil and Argentina boarder is an example of what type of river features?

a)

Large Deltas

b)

Large Mouths

c)

Large Waterfalls & Rapids

d)

Large Oxbow lakes

481.

What is an energy resource?

a)

a natural product that can be changed into other energy forms to do work

b)

something formed from buried plants and animals

c)

force that opposes motion

d)

resource that can never be replaced

482.

What are nonrenewable resources?

a)

energy sources that are replaced faster than they are used

b)

energy sources that can never be replaced or are replaced more slowly than they are used

c)

a natural product that can be changed into other forms of energy to do work

483.

What are fossil fuels?

a)

energy producers that comes from radioactive elements

b)

a natural product that can be changed into other energy forms to do work

c)

energy resources that formed from buried plants and animals that lived a very long time ago

d)

resources that are replaced faster than they are used

484.

All of the following are fossil fuels EXCEPT

a)

oil

b)

water

c)

coal

d)

natural gas

485.

All of the following are uses of fossil fuels EXCEPT

a)

to produce electrical energy

b)

gasoline

c)

to heat homes

d)

windmills

486.

What changes chemical energy from fossil fuels into electrical energy?

a)

electric generators

b)

nuclear fission

c)

power plants

d)

windmills

487.

Where does nuclear energy come from?

a)

Electric generators

b)

radioactive elements

c)

fossil fuels

d)

geothermal energy

488.

Nuclear fission is a process where the nucleus of an atom splits into two smaller nuclei.

a)

True

b)

False

489.

Splitting atoms creates nuclear energy and what other type of energy?

a)

electrical

b)

thermal

c)

sound

d)

light

490.

What is a renewable energy resource?

a)

an energy source that is replaced more slowly than they are used

b)

an energy source that can never be replaced

c)

an energy source that is replaced faster than they are used

d)

a fossil fuel

491.

What is a device that changes solar energy into electrical energy?

a)

wind turbine

b)

perpetual motion machine

c)

electric generator

d)

solar cell

492.

Geothermal energy is made from water being pumped underground near hot rock, turning it to steam.

a)

True

b)

False

493.

Biomass is nonorganic matter that gives off energy when burned.

a)

True

b)

False

494.

All are disadvantages of using Fossil Fuels EXCEPT

a)

Renewable resources

b)

Nonrenewable resources

c)

risk of oil spill

d)

produces acid precipitation

495.

All are advantages of using Nuclear energy EXCEPT

a)

no air pollution

b)

Renewable resource

c)

concentrated energy form

496.

All are disadvantages of Solar energy EXCEPT

a)

expensive

b)

Nonrenewable resource

c)

works best in sunny areas

497.

All are advantages of using Wind energy EXCEPT

a)

Renewable Resource

b)

Inexpensive

c)

Nonrenewable Resource

d)

no pollution

498.

All are disadvantages of using Water energy EXCEPT

a)

Nonrenewable resource

b)

needs dams that hurt the ecosystem

c)

needs rivers

499.

All are advantages of using Geothermal energy EXCEPT

a)

Nonrenewable resource

b)

Renewable resource

c)

almost endless source

d)

little land needed

500.

All are disadvantages of using Biomass as an energy source EXCEPT

a)

needs a lot of farmland

b)

Nonrenewable resource

c)

produces smoke

Similar Resources on Wayground

MEGA TEST

500 questions

MEGA TEST

quiz

Worksheet

•

KG - Professional Dev...