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Marketing Applications Final Exam Review

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 51mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

When customers have low involvement with a product and there is little difference among brands, what type of buying behavior are they exhibiting?

a)

Habitual

b)

Variety

c)

Complex

d)

Basic

2.

Complex buying behavior is most likely involved when the customer is purchasing which items?

a)

Cars

b)

Meals

c)

Socks

d)

Gasoline

3.

Morgan Health Supply Company wants to expand its product line this year. It uses its budget surplus to invest in new products rather than to remodel its offices. This is an example of which positive action?

a)

Provide excellent customer service

b)

Align strategies and activities with goals

c)

Demonstrate corporate responsibility

d)

Utilize touch points to reinforce company image

4.

Motives, perception, attitude, lifestyle, personality, and abilities are which factors influencing consumer behavior?

a)

Economic

b)

Social

c)

Political

d)

Psychological

5.

What type of buying behavior includes low customer involvement, significant brand awareness, and a desire for change?

a)

Status-oriented

b)

Risk-taking

c)

Variety-seeking

d)

Brand-insisted

6.

An energy company has misrepresented its financial status on its latest accounting reports. This is an example of which negative action?

a)

Failing to provide what customers want

b)

Not keeping promises

c)

Responding inappropriately to crises

d)

Acting unethically

7.

Positive and negative results can often be directly related to which factors about a company?

a)

Its taxes

b)

Its actions

c)

Is customers

d)

Its locations

8.

Customers are more likely to spend a lot of time evaluating several options before buying a product during which situation?

a)

When the product is perishable

b)

When the product is expensive

c)

When the need is immediate

d)

When brand insistence is a factor

9.

Technological advances can help companies provide more customer service with fewer employees, but why must the companies be careful?

a)

Technology cannot provide 24-7 service.

b)

Computers and telephones break down regularly.

c)

Current employees may go on strike.

d)

Customers may feel they are losing the human touch.

10.

If a business lowers the price of a product for the purpose of taking business away from its competitors, which action is often the result?

a)

A decrease in cost

b)

An increase in profit

c)

A gain in market share

d)

A reduction in staff

11.

When conducting an external environmental analysis, businesses often focus on which factor or factors?

a)

Previous demand

b)

Industry growth

c)

Marketing goals

d)

Financial costs

12.

One of the main reasons for developing a marketing plan is to identify the strategies necessary to achieve which component or components of marketing?

a)

Functions

b)

Objectives

c)

Mix

d)

Share

13.

Which is an example of an internal change that could affect a sales forecast?

a)

A direct competitor is planning a new promotional campaign.

b)

The birth rate increased following a war.

c)

A new product line is to be offered by the business.

d)

The economy is struggling with a major drop in stock market prices.

14.

To convince someone to use quantitative sales forecasting, which factor should be stressed?

a)

Variety of opinions

b)

Factual basis

c)

Minimal cost

d)

Ease with which findings are understood

15.

A manufacturer expects product sales to increase during the coming year. How does this information affect product production?

a)

Production should decrease.

b)

Production should increase.

c)

Production should remain stable.

d)

Production should not be affected.

16.

What type of information do businesses include in their marketing plans?

a)

Billing methods

b)

Pricing strategies

c)

Payroll systems

d)

Accounting procedures

17.

An international soft-drink company that wants to add bottled spring water to its product mix has determined that there are four major brands that hold the majority of the market share for that product. The strengths and weaknesses of each potential competitor have been examined. This is an example of what factor?

a)

The action plan

b)

The marketing strategy

c)

The situation analysis

d)

The purpose and mission

18.

The purpose of the marketing planning process is to balance the internal strengths and weaknesses of a company with which external factors?

a)

Costs and expenses

b)

Products and resources

c)

Opportunities and threats

d)

Goals and objectives

19.

The financial component of a marketing plan helps a business to compare the projected costs of implementing the plan with which expected factors?

a)

Benefits

b)

Expenses

c)

Losses

d)

Strategies

20.

How does a marketing plan affect the way the marketing team plans its strategies?

a)

The team has more difficulty planning strategies.

b)

The team can plan strategies up to 10 years in advance.

c)

The team can plan strategies with more precision.

d)

The team can plan strategies more quickly.

21.

What should Jason avoid doing to shorten his sales cycles?

a)

Avoid answering objections

b)

Rely on other team members for product knowledge

c)

Always use the same sales presentation

d)

Improve the qualification process

22.

While reviewing financial information, Troy noted that the company earned $245,956 in January, $248,122 in February, and $252,878 in March. Which most likely summarizes the financial situation?

a)

Capital assets are depreciating at a slower rate.

b)

Cash flow continues to be tight.

c)

Accounts receivable exceed accounts payable.

d)

Sales are steadily increasing.

23.

The price of raw materials used in manufacturing a product doubled what had been projected for the year. What can the business determine by analyzing its financial information?

a)

Supply and demand

b)

Equipment costs

c)

Variances

d)

Errors in forecasting

24.

A manager is most likely to use financial information for which situation?

a)

In determining resources available to fund a new project

b)

For researching the demographics of a new target market

c)

For calculating the number of on-the-job injuries in the past year

d)

In establishing lines of authority within an organization

25.

Emma is reviewing the sales budget in relation to the actual sales generated for a set time frame. How is Emma using financial information in this situation?

a)

To analyze the impact of aging accounts

b)

To establish new quality standards and benchmarks

c)

To identify external economic trends

d)

To compare estimated performance with actual performance

26.

During its 20 years of operation, the Normandy Company has made very few changes to its accounting methods and system. As a result, its financial information is likely to be in which condition?

a)

Comparable

b)

Consistent

c)

Reliable

d)

Conservative

27.

Which is a way a business can use financial information?

a)

To identify trends

b)

To select selling strategies

c)

To conduct focus groups

d)

To create an economic system

28.

A business estimates that its cash flow from sales during the upcoming season will be higher than it was for the same period last year. The estimate is possible based on this financial information and which other sources?

a)

Realistic goals

b)

Future earnings

c)

Potential costs

d)

Industry trends

29.

By comparing the categories in an income statement, a business will be able to determine which situation?

a)

If it is earning too much income

b)

If it is paying too little for supplies

c)

If it is spending too much on expenses

d)

If it is acquiring goods for too low a price

30.

What are the categories that a business uses to summarize information on their balance sheets?

a)

Cash, budget, and credit

b)

Equity, budget, and cash

c)

Liabilities, equipment, and sales

d)

Assets, liabilities, and equity

31.

Why would a company need a flow of money?

a)

To borrow

b)

To exist

c)

To sell

d)

To invest

32.

One reason why a business compares its income statement figures with those of competitors is to find out how it is doing in relation to which factors?

a)

Industry standards

b)

Research projections

c)

Economic forecasts

d)

Marketing procedures

33.

What are often the largest sources of money flowing out of a business?

a)

Payroll and benefits

b)

Accounts receivable

c)

Profit and loss

d)

Goods and services

34.

An established business receives its primary flow of money from which source or sources?

a)

Loans

b)

Credit

c)

Fees

d)

Sales

35.

Which category of an income statement indicates total profit?

a)

Gross profit

b)

Bottom line

c)

Cash flow

d)

Net profit

36.

The reason why a business prepares a balance sheet is to determine which factor?

a)

The estimated annual income

b)

The average cash flow

c)

The current financial situation

d)

The future sales goal

37.

During economic fluctuations, taxes serve which purpose for the economy?

a)

Destroying

b)

Reducing

c)

Expanding

d)

Stabilizing

38.

Gary believes that the upper class should pay a higher income tax rate than the middle and lower classes. What tax structure does Gary favor?

a)

Proportional

b)

Regressive

c)

Progressive

d)

Exclusive

39.

Which is a function of some taxes?

a)

Decrease employee liability

b)

Limit business profit

c)

Control employee compensation

d)

Regulate business activity

40.

What is cash flow?

a)

The money a company generates

b)

The movement of funds into and out of a business

c)

The amount of money being paid out for employee salaries

d)

The transferring of money to different departments

41.

Sandy and members of her team took turns randomly sketching and doodling on a piece of paper. Now, they are studying the doodles, trying to identify the shapes, and determining how the shapes can be related to a particular product opportunity. Sandy and her team are using which creative-thinking technique?

a)

Synectics

b)

Braindrawing

c)

Free association

d)

Starbursting

42.

To generate innovative product ideas, a business often performs which activity?

a)

Evaluates traits

b)

Interprets laws

c)

Monitors trends

d)

Measures feedback

43.

What is the advantage to a business of having its employees generate product ideas as a group?

a)

More participants provide a variety of perspectives.

b)

It is easier to develop and implement a product concept.

c)

Group members tend to reach consensus quickly.

d)

Screening activities can be distributed among several people.

44.

Which is a source a business often consider when generating product ideas?

a)

Design costs

b)

Test results

c)

Customer complaints

d)

Promotional plans

45.

Which employee is a good source for obtaining new product ideas because he or she is in contact with customers on an ongoing basis?

a)

Graphic designer

b)

Tax auditor

c)

Sales representative

d)

Office manager

46.

Which is an example of a manager being unethical when communicating with employees?

a)

Explaining that some information is confidential

b)

Deliberately providing insufficient information

c)

Sending information in simple chart form

d)

Deliberately limiting the distribution of classified information

47.

What should an employee do if a coworker is spreading malicious gossip about another worker?

a)

Refuse to pass on the information

b)

Deny hearing the rumor

c)

Ask for supporting evidence

d)

Check out the accuracy of the message

48.

Which is confidential information that would be unethical for an employee to provide to others without permission from the business?

a)

Dates of an upcoming special sale

b)

Posting of available positions

c)

Well-publicized expansion plans

d)

List of employees who will be promoted

49.

Which is a type of a persuasive message?

a)

Requests for action

b)

Requests for ideas

c)

Presentations of ideas

d)

Request for claims or adjustments

50.

What are the main components of a budget?

a)

Cash flow and net worth

b)

Assets and liabilities

c)

Profit and loss

d)

Income and expense

51.

By regularly reviewing its budget, a business is able to determine if it is performing which activity?

a)

Offering loans to employees

b)

Paying interest to customers

c)

Following their financial plans

d)

Receiving discounts from vendors

52.

A business uses its budget to estimate how it will perform which activity?

a)

Spend their money

b)

File their taxes

c)

Calculate their assets

d)

Depreciate their assets

53.

A master budget is made up of information from

a)

the previous year’s budget, with a 10% increase.

b)

internal sales forecasts and the probable level of competition.

c)

specialized budgets that are handed down from top management.

d)

specialized budgets that are generated by individual departments.

54.

Budgets can be described in terms of

a)

money, maps, and management.

b)

account books, bills, and bankruptcy.

c)

desires, debt, and discipline.

d)

savings, sales, and success.

55.

In budgeting, utility bills, salaries, advertising, equipment purchases, taxes, and loans are examples of

a)

business income.

b)

financial goals.

c)

spending controls.

d)

business expense.

56.

A quality of all specialized budgets is that they are

a)

interrelated.

b)

created independently.

c)

driven by projected inventory.

d)

unrelated.

57.

Which is a social factor that often influences buying behavior?

a)

Individual beliefs

b)

Basic needs

c)

Personal attitude

d)

Marital status

58.

What is a characteristic of organizational buying behavior?

a)

Quick decision making

b)

Low levels of demand fluctuation

c)

Multiple buying influences

d)

Limited buyer-seller contact

59.

What does CRM mean?

a)

customer reliability measurement

b)

customer relationship management

c)

consumer relationship measurement

d)

consumer relations managers

60.

Which is a benefit of customer relationship management?

a)

The ability to double profits

b)

A work force that does not commit errors

c)

A decrease in customer advocacy

d)

The opportunity to create targeted marketing campaigns

61.

Many people make the mistake of thinking that customer relationship management refers solely to which factor?

a)

People

b)

Strategies

c)

Processes

d)

Technology

62.

What is an important aspect of a customer-centric business?

a)

Reducing the number of touch points with customers

b)

Limiting decision making for employees

c)

Being satisfied with the status quo

d)

Aligning business activities with customer needs

63.

A characteristic of product bundling is that the price of the bundle usually cause which situation?

a)

Adjusted based on the type of customers who purchase the bundle

b)

Intended to be the same as the prices set by competitors

c)

High to reflect the quality and status of each product

d)

Lower than the combined price of the products sold separately

64.

Which is NOT an advantage of product bundling?

a)

Increase profits of individual items

b)

Decrease marketing and distribution costs

c)

Reduce inventory waste

d)

Hiring less employees

65.

What is a brand personality?

a)

the experience customer receive every time they visit the business

b)

describes the organization as a whole

c)

set of human characteristics that describe a brand name

d)

the visible elements of the brand

66.

One reason why it is important for a business to coordinate the distribution and promotion of a new product is to make sure that the product has which characteristic?

a)

Attractive to all customers

b)

Designed to appeal to a target market

c)

Competitively priced

d)

Available when customers want it

67.

A business that effectively coordinates channel management with marketing activities is more likely to provide which component?

a)

Attractive product displays

b)

Good customer service

c)

Free delivery

d)

Flexible credit terms

68.

Which department would a marketing manager contact to make sure that enough products are on hand for an upcoming promotion?

a)

Shipping

b)

Purchasing

c)

Accounting

d)

Customer Service

69.

What might result if a manufacturer wants prompt payment for goods, but the intermediary wants to defer payment for as long as possible?

a)

Limited variety

b)

Increased risk

c)

Channel conflict

d)

Illegal activity

70.

Which is a true statement about channel-member relationships in the supply chain?

a)

Members can often reduce conflict by focusing on the common goal of customer satisfaction.

b)

Because the producers are the channel leaders, they usually have more negotiating power.

c)

Technological advancements have made interaction among channel members unnecessary.

d)

To minimize horizontal conflict, most wholesalers in the supply chain charge slotting fees.

71.

To maintain positive relationships, all distribution channel members must perform which activity?

a)

Limit ongoing communication

b)

Coordinate efforts

c)

Develop competing goals

d)

Have equal power

72.

Tyler is a sales representative for the Lombardo Company and is selling high-end products to a new purchasing agent. The purchasing agent asked a series of questions about the reliability of the products. What type of behavior strategy did the purchasing agent exhibit?

a)

Emotional

b)

Offensive

c)

Defensive

d)

Rational

73.

According to Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs Theory, buying behavior that involves the acquisition of goods and services to elevate a person's status or recognition is satisfying which type of need?

a)

Physiological

b)

Esteem

c)

Self-actualization

d)

Safety

74.

What affects the place decision?

a)

Product features and benefits

b)

Need for additional information

c)

Warranty

d)

Business loyalty

75.

Carlos considered the reliability ratings, gas-mileage savings, and warranty of a vehicle before deciding to purchase it. His motives were based on which factor or factors?

a)

His desire for status

b)

His loyalty to the brand

c)

Facts

d)

Intuition

76.

How do customers benefit from the effective use of buying motives in selling?

a)

They become repeat customers.

b)

They tell others about the business.

c)

Their needs and wants are satisfied.

d)

Their merchandise returns decrease.

77.

The salesperson should demonstrate to customers only those products that have which feature?

a)

Interest the customers

b)

Familiar to customers

c)

Easy to demonstrate

d)

Back up the sales dialog

78.

A good way to handle a customer objection is to perform which action?

a)

Turn the objection into a selling point

b)

Smile and walk away from the customer

c)

Show the customer a different product

d)

Strongly disagree with the objection

79.

Which action would be taken if a customer has a fact-finder personality?

a)

Emphasize the value of the product

b)

Consider the customer a challenge

c)

Suggest product care techniques

d)

Suggest substitutes with caution

80.

A guideline to follow in closing sales is to perform which action?

a)

Perfect and use one closing technique

b)

Pressure the customer to buy

c)

Maintain a positive attitude

d)

Leave the decision up to the customer

81.

The headline, graphics, signature, and copy of a print advertisement should coordinate with one another, so that the message has which feature?

a)

Clearness

b)

Humor

c)

Entertainment

d)

Uncertainty

82.

The part of a print advertisement that is often noticed first by readers is which component?

a)

The illustration

b)

The business identification

c)

The white space

d)

The copy

83.

The main purpose of the headline in a print advertisement is to perform which activity?

a)

Supply information

b)

Identify the business

c)

Attract attention

d)

Express the product's benefits

84.

Businesses often coordinate their promotional activities in order to attract customers and perform which other activity?

a)

Conduct research

b)

Survey opinions

c)

Collect data

d)

Increase sales

85.

Applied research is designed to do what?

a)

To expand knowledge

b)

To look at information on a deeper level

c)

To answer specific questions

d)

To learn a new concept

86.

An individual returns a marketing-research survey that contains unanswered questions. This is an example of what type of error?

a)

Mathematical miscalculation

b)

Interviewer oversight

c)

Non-response error

d)

Rating mistake

87.

What should researchers consider when evaluating the design of questionnaires?

a)

Name of developers

b)

Size of paper

c)

Types of questions

d)

Number of participants

88.

What should the first section of an executive summary contain?

a)

A letter of authorization

b)

A recommended course of action

c)

A statement of purpose

d)

An acknowledgement of the report's sponsors

89.

Lucille has created a six-page synopsis to include as a section in the beginning of her 224-page report. What should Lucille call this section when she creates the table of contents?

a)

Bibliography

b)

Executive summary

c)

Footnotes

d)

Results and recommendations

90.

The justification component of an executive summary should do what?

a)

Give an insight to what the summary is about.

b)

Provides adequate suggestions for improvement.

c)

Gives accurate financial feasibility.

d)

Gives data and information to support any recommendation given.

91.

To calculate total revenue, a business multiplies the number of units sold by which other component or components?

a)

Fixed costs

b)

Marginal revenue

c)

Average price per unit

d)

Marginal costs

92.

According to the law of diminishing returns, continuing to hire additional employees will eventually cause the production to change to which situation?

a)

Decrease

b)

Level off

c)

Increase

d)

Remain unchanged

93.

Major Company hired a fifth employee and production increased by 1,000units per week, so it hired a sixth employee and production increased by an additional 900 units per week. What should the company expect to happen if it continues to hire more employees and does nothing to the work environment?

a)

Level of production will increase proportionately.

b)

Production per employee will fluctuate.

c)

Production per employee will become more stable.

d)

Production per employee will decrease.

94.

The best time for a business to purchase new equipment is during which situation?

a)

When job growth declines.

b)

When consumer demand decreases.

c)

When interest rates are low.

d)

When the gross domestic product fails.

95.

A person who quits one job and spends a short amount of time out of work while looking for a new position is experiencing which type of unemployment?

a)

Seasonal

b)

Structural

c)

Cyclical

d)

Frictional

96.

Why should a businessperson understand business cycles?

a)

To prevent the cycles from happening

b)

To make plans that will help to level out cycles

c)

To determine the cause of each cycle

d)

To predict the exact beginning of cycles

97.

At what point can a company know when they will make the maximum amount of money?

a)

When marginal revenue equals marginal cost.

b)

When marginal cost and total revenue are the same.

c)

Marginal revenue and total revenue equal each other.

d)

The total product is sold out.

98.

Which of the following is one reason why GDP is calculated?

a)

To know current citizen population rate

b)

To compare with other countries

c)

To understand the price fluctuation

d)

To demonstrate a country's wealth

99.

Which type of unemployment is always present in the economy?

a)

Cyclical

b)

Seasonal

c)

Technological

d)

Frictional

100.

Which phase of a business cycle experiences demand for products that exceeds supply?

a)

Contraction

b)

Trough

c)

Expansion

d)

Peak