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OCR A level computer science

Total questions: 200

Worksheet time: 2hrs 53mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Select the 'real' methodologies:

a)

Agile

b)

XP (extreme programming)

c)

XD

d)

Spiral

e)

Waterfall

2.

Iterative development methodology which values end-user input:

a)

Agile

b)

Waterfall

c)

Spiral

d)

RAD (rapid application development)

3.

Iterative development methodology which values code quality:

a)

XP

b)

Agile

c)

Waterfall

d)

Spiral

e)

RAD

4.

Iterative development methodology which values speed of development:

a)

XP

b)

Agile

c)

Waterfall

d)

Spiral

e)

RAD (rapid application development)

5.

Iterative development methodology which focuses on risk-management:

a)

XP

b)

Agile

c)

Waterfall

d)

Spiral

e)

RAD

6.

Sequential development methodology which focuses on comprehensive documentation:

a)

XP

b)

Agile

c)

Waterfall

d)

Spiral

e)

RAD

7.

A large company who want to develop their software so people actually want to use it should use:

a)

XP

b)

Agile

c)

Waterfall

d)

Spiral

e)

RAD

8.

A processor company who need to develop high-quality code with minimal errors should use:

a)

XP

b)

Agile

c)

Waterfall

d)

Spiral

e)

RAD

9.

A company who need to manage a lot of risk should use:

a)

XP

b)

Agile

c)

Waterfall

d)

Spiral

e)

RAD

10.

This methodology is:

a)

XP

b)

Agile

c)

Waterfall

d)

Spiral

e)

RAD

11.

This methodology is:

a)

XP

b)

Agile

c)

Waterfall

d)

Spiral

e)

RAD

12.

A translator for high level code that translates code all at once into machine code

a)

Assembler

b)

Compiler

c)

Interpreter

d)

Programmer

13.

A translator for high level code that translate codes as the program is being run.

a)

Compiler

b)

Interpreter

c)

Assembler

d)

Programmer

14.

A translator used to convert a low level language into machine code

a)

Compiler

b)

Interpreter

c)

Assembler

d)

Programmer

15.

Text area used to enter code in an IDE.

a)

Breakpoints

b)

Code Editor

c)

Error Diagnostics

d)

Run time environment

16.

These are tools provided by IDE's which give detailed feedback on errors in your code.

a)

Breakpoints

b)

Code Editor

c)

Error diagnostics

d)

Run time environment

17.

Enables the program to be run in an IDE to test the program

a)

Breakpoints

b)

Code Editor

c)

Error diagnostics

d)

Run time environment

18.

Colours command words in different colours to make code more readable

a)

Error diagnostics

b)

Run time environment

c)

Syntax completion

d)

Keyword highlighting

19.

A programming language like Python that is designed to be easy for humans to read and write and uses English command words and needs to be translated using a compiler or interpreter

a)

Translator

b)

High level language

c)

Low level language

d)

Machine code

20.

A programming language that is uses mnemonics, is harder for a human to understand and needs to be translated using an assembler.

a)

Translator

b)

High level language

c)

Low level language

d)

Machine code

21.

Converts either a high level language or a low level language into machine code

a)

Translator

b)

High level language

c)

Low level language

d)

Machine code

22.

Binary code that can be directly run by a computer without being translated

a)

Python Code

b)

High Level Code

c)

Low Level Code

d)

Machine Code

23.

Mouse

a)

Input

b)

Output

c)

Storage

d)

None of the Above

24.

Foot pedal

a)

Input

b)

Output

c)

Storage

d)

None of the Above

25.

Braille Printer

a)

Input

b)

Output

c)

Storage

d)

None of the Above

26.

Microphone

a)

Input

b)

Output

c)

Storage

d)

None of the Above

27.

CD

a)

Input

b)

Output

c)

Storage

d)

None of the Above

28.

What type of memory is an HDD?

a)

Optical

b)

Magnetic

c)

Flash

d)

ROM

29.

What are the 2 types of processors?

a)

usable processors and unusable processors

b)

CISC and RISC

c)

RISC and BISC

d)

RISC and BISC

30.

How can multiple tasks be completed simultaneously?

a)

with the use of threading

b)

by having multiple core CPUs

c)

by having parallel systems

31.

What data type should be used to store phone numbers eg. 01724 282998?

a)

Integer

b)

String

c)

Character

d)

Long

32.

Perform a logical shift right by three places on the binary number 010101100 and convert to decimal?

a)

3.5

b)

18.25

c)

21.5

d)

30.5

33.

In what form of memory management is a process address broken down into fixed sized blocks?

a)

Segmentation

b)

Paging

c)

Virtual memory

d)

Partitioned 

34.

In which form of scheduling is processor time divided equally amongst all running tasks?

a)

First come, first serve

b)

Shortest job first

c)

Multi-level feedback queue

d)

Round robin

35.

What is the role of the compiler?

a)

Translate high-level code into machine code all at once, after carrying out a number of checks and reporting back any errors.

b)

Translates machine code into high-level code all at once, after carrying out a number of checks and reporting back any errors.

c)

Makes sure that the code has the correct syntax and variables have been assigned correctly

d)

Runs low-level code and reports back any errors

36.

What does the I in ACID stand for?

a)

Integrity

b)

Isolation

c)

Integrated

d)

Internal

37.

Which of these is not in the SQL syntax?

a)

LIKE

b)

AND

c)

UPDATE

d)

WHEN

38.

The control unit has many jobs, please select all which apply

a)

Decoding instructions

b)

Store results from calculations

c)

Performs an interrupt request

d)

Managing the flow of data between the CPU and other devices

39.

Inside the processor, there is a multitude of parts. Please select all which are found inside the processor

a)

Processor connection wire

b)

Connection Bus

c)

Data Bus

d)

Interrupter

40.

What does the operand always do?

a)

Specifies the instruction to be performed

b)

Holds an address related to where this data is stored

c)

Holds a value which is related to the data on which the instruction is to be performed

d)

It is a particular instance of a class

41.

The register which holds the address of the location to or from which data are to be transferred is called

a)

Index Register

b)

Instruction Register

c)

Memory Address Register

d)

Memory Data Register

42.

The register used as a working area in CPU is

a)

Program Counter

b)

Instruction Register

c)

Instruction Decoder

d)

Accumualtor

43.

Which of the following register is used in the control unit of the CPU to indicate the next instruction which is to be executed ?

a)

Accumulator

b)

Index Register

c)

Instruction Decoder

d)

Program Counter

44.

The function of program counter (PC) holds

a)

Temporary

b)

Address for Memory

c)

memory Operand

d)

Address of Instruction

45.

Which of the following is not part of the CPU?

a)

ALU

b)

CU

c)

MAR

d)

ROM

46.

The purpose of ROM is to...

a)

Provide backup storage

b)

Store application files

c)

Acts as a fast type of memory for the CPU

d)

Store the BIOS instructions

47.

Volatile memory that runs the Operating System and other applications

a)

Virtual Memory

b)

Registers

c)

RAM

d)

ROM

48.

Extremely fast memory that is built into the CPU. Used as temporary stores for data and instructions.

a)

Cache Memory

b)

Flash Memory

c)

Registers

d)

Virtual Memory

49.

The computer uses the _________ to start the computer and launch the operating system

a)

RAM

b)

BIOS

c)

HDD

d)

DVD

50.

Which statement best describes RAM?

a)

Fast, permanent storage

b)

Fast, volatile storage

c)

Slow, volatile storage

d)

Slow, permanent storage

51.

What is usually held in the contents of RAM?

a)

BIOS and Boot sequence needed to start the computer

b)

Software programs stored within the computer

c)

Operating System and currently running programs

d)

Recently executed instructions in case they are needed again

52.

The Control Unit

a)

Controls the flow of data around the CPU and also decodes instructions

b)

Only controls the flow of data around the CPU

c)

Controls how much power is directed to all components within the computer

d)

Only decodes instructions

53.

What is the purpose of Cache?

a)

Performs Arithmetic and Logical operations

b)

Decodes and directs instructions to be carried out

c)

Processes graphical functions

d)

Stores frequently used data and instructions

54.

Which of the following operating systems is free and open-source?

a)

Windows

b)

Mac OS X

c)

Linux

d)

UNIX

55.

It uses the same physical memory address for instructions and data

a)

Von Neumann Architecture

b)

Harvard Architecture

56.

It uses separate memory address for instructions and data

a)

Von Neumann Architecture

b)

Harvard Architecture

57.

Simpler control unit design and development of one is cheaper and faster

a)

Von Neumann Architecture

b)

Harvard Architecture

58.

Control unit for two buses is more complicated which adds to the development cost

a)

Von Neumann Architecture

b)

Harvard Architecture

59.

Data transfers and instruction fetches cannot be performed simultaneously

a)

Von Neumann Architecture

b)

Harvard Architecture

60.

Used in personal computers, laptops and workstations

a)

Von Neumann Architecture

b)

Harvard Architecture

61.

Used in microcontrollers and signal processing

a)

Von Neumann Architecture

b)

Harvard Architecture

62.

Physically large in size and require more silicon to make thus more expensive

a)

CISC

b)

RISC

63.

Used in smartphones and tablets, based around ARM processor

a)

CISC

b)

RISC

64.

Multiple machine cycles per instruction 

a)

CISC

b)

RISC

65.

Greater energy consumption

a)

CISC

b)

RISC

66.

Smaller in size as less complex circuitry required, less silicon needed to make thus cheaper

a)

CISC

b)

RISC

67.

Used in laptops and desktop computers, made by Intel or AMD

a)

CISC

b)

RISC

68.

Has more complex hardware

a)

CISC

b)

RISC

69.

Can support pipelining

a)

CISC

b)

RISC

70.

Has simpler hardware

a)

CISC

b)

RISC

71.

Cannot support pipelining

a)

CISC

b)

RISC

72.

Uniform instruction format, using a single word with the opcode in the same bit positions in every instruction = easier decoding.

a)

CISC

b)

RISC

73.
Full name for CPU is :
a)
Central Processing Unit
b)
Control Processing Unit
c)
Central Progressing Unit
d)
Control Progressing Unit
74.

Which speed of CPU would process instructions the fastest?

a)

2.4 GHz

b)

1.2 MHz

c)

48 KHz

d)

1000 Hz

75.

What is the speed of a CPU measured in?

a)

Bytes

b)

RAM

c)

Hertz

d)

Flops

76.

Which of the following units of storage holds the most data?

a)

Gigabyte

b)

Kilobyte

c)

Byte

d)

Megabyte

77.

GPUs ...

a)

Are efficient at manipulating computer graphics and image processing

b)

Can speed up edit render times

c)

Can decrease render times of programs

d)

Only manipulate computer graphics

78.

GPUs are better than CPUs at ...

a)

Processing commands such as basic word processing

b)

Processing lots of smaller more efficient cores to handle multiple tasks simultaneously

c)

Processing large blocks of visual data simultaneously (in parallel)

d)

Processing lots of larger blocks of non visual data

79.

A parallel system is ...

a)

Where a process is split 2 parts, which are executed simultaneously on different processors attached to the same computer

b)

Where a process is split into parts, which are executed simultaneously on the same processor attached to the same computer

c)

Where a process is split into 2 parts, which are executed simultaneously on the same processor attached to the same computer

d)

Where a process is split into parts, which are executed simultaneously on different processors attached to the same computer

80.
Virtual memory is used
a)
when the RAM is not enough to contain all of the programs and data currently being used
b)
every other time a program is used
c)
as a secondary storage medium for long term storage of documents
d)
when the CPU is getting overheated
81.
Virtual memory typically uses two storage devices, RAM and ______________.
a)
the hard drive
b)
ROM
c)
a secondary piece of RAM
d)
a CD-ROM
82.
A program stored in virtual memory may run slower than a program stored on the RAM
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
83.
Allocating time on the processor to individual processes is known as...
a)
CPU Scheduling
b)
CPU Timing
c)
CPU Clocking
d)
CPU Sorting
84.
A process is a...
a)
program in execution
b)
program on the hard drive
c)
high level program
d)
low level program 
85.
What is defragmentation?
a)
Rearranging files to occupy contiguous space.
b)
Speeding up processing.
c)
Rearranging the RAM.
d)
Rearranging processes queued for processing.
86.
When the OS creates temporary RAM on the Hard Drive it is known as...
a)
Virtual Memory
b)
Cache
c)
Registering
d)
Defragmenting
87.
Which of the following is not systems software?
a)
Web Browser
b)
Anti Virus
c)
Firewall
d)
Zip Compression
88.
The OS provides a platform that enables what to be run?
a)
Applications
b)
Hardware
c)
Cache
d)
Processes
89.
Most modern OS integrate what into the kernel?
a)
GUI
b)
Hardware
c)
Processes
d)
Cache
90.
A message sent by the OS to change the CPU schedule is known as...
a)
Interupt
b)
Poll
c)
Cache
d)
Defrag
91.
A network OS will provide user user names to identify users and and passwords to...
a)
Authenticate Users
b)
Validate Users
c)
Scan Users
d)
Secure Users
92.
Keeping track of the location of processes in memory and allocating space to new processes is known as...
a)
Memory Management
b)
Process Management
c)
Memory Scheduling
d)
Process Scheduling
93.
Keep track of where a program is in the Fetch-Decode-Execute cycle is...  
a)
Process Management
b)
CPU Scheduling
c)
Process Scheduling
d)
CPU Management
94.

What is ISR

a)

Interrupt service Register

b)

Interrupt Service Routine

c)

Interrupt Stock Register

95.
A message sent by the OS to change the CPU schedule is known as...
a)
Interupt
b)
Poll
c)
Cache
d)
Defrag
96.
Processor scheduling is one of the functions managed by the OS.  Which one is a scheduling method used by the scheduler
a)
Round To It
b)
Round Table
c)

Round Robin

97.
Which of the following is a segment of memory or storage, such as the disk in the accompanying figure, in which items are placed while waiting to be transferred from an input device or to an output device?
a)
Process
b)
Index
c)
Buffer
d)
Throttle
98.
What is the purpose of memory management?
a)
To store data in the most efficient manner
b)
To optimize the use of RAM
c)
To start the computer and operating system quickly
d)
To allocate system resources stored in ROM
99.

what is the main part of the operating system

a)

user interface

b)

kernel

c)

system utilities

d)

device drivers

100.
What does BIOS stand for?
a)
Bonus Input/Output System
b)
Basic Interface Output System
c)
Basic Input/Output System
d)
Basic Input/Outsource Shape
101.
What type of computer does BIOS run on?
a)
MAC
b)
Windows
c)
Chromebook
102.
Where is BIOS stored?
a)
On the RAM
b)
On the Motherboard ROM
c)
On the GPU
d)
in the CPU
103.
A scheduling algorithm that deals with each user or task in the order in which they arrive
a)
Round Robin
b)
First Come First Serve
c)
Multi-Level Feedback Queue
d)
Shortest Job First
104.
The splitting of a large program into a number of smaller programs
a)
Paging
b)
Segmentation
c)
Virtual Memory
105.
A complex scheduling algorithm that deals with tasks based on a set of priorities and rules
a)
Round Robin
b)
First Come First Serve
c)
Multi-Level Feedback Queue
d)
Shortest Job First
106.
A scheduling algorithm that deals with each user or task based on the getting the smaller ones out of the way
a)
Shortest Remaining Time
b)
First Come First Serve
c)
Multi-Level Feedback Queue
d)
Shortest Job First
107.
A scheduling algorithm that deals with each user or task based on a calculating an estimated time remaking to complete
a)
Shortest Remaining Time
b)
First Come First Serve
c)
Multi-Level Feedback Queue
d)
Shortest Job First
108.
A highly specialised, often quite limited and cut down operating system design to fit inside a certain type of machine
a)
Distributed OS
b)
Embedded OS
c)
Multi-tasking OS
d)
Multi-user OS
109.
Any type of system that is capable of running or appearing to run more than one program at a time
a)
Distributed OS
b)
Real-Time OS
c)
Multi-tasking OS
d)
Multi-user OS
110.
An operating system where input acts without delay within a guaranteed amount of time
a)
Distributed OS
b)
Real-Time OS
c)
Multi-tasking OS
d)
Multi-user OS
111.
Multiple users can access different resources using different locations/machines at the same time
a)
Distributed OS
b)
Real-Time OS
c)
Multi-tasking OS
d)
Multi-user OS
112.
An emulator of a particular computer system.
a)
BIOS
b)
Devices Drivers
c)
Virtual Machine
d)
Intermediate Code
113.
Half-way type of code which is standard across machine types.  Runs on a virtual machine.
a)
BIOS
b)
Devices Drivers
c)
Virtual Machine
d)
Intermediate Code
114.
A computer program that operates or controls a particular type of device that is attached to a computer.
a)
BIOS
b)
Devices Drivers
c)
Virtual Machine
d)
Intermediate Code
115.

True or False: Closed Source software is sold without usage restrictions

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

116.
What is another name given to 'proprietary software'?
a)
Open source software
b)
Bespoke software
c)
Tailor Made software
d)
Closed source software
117.
What is meant by 'open source' software?
a)
Software owned by an organisation, you may need to buy a license for
b)
Freely available, constantly upgraded by users.  No fee. 
118.
What is meant by 'proprietary' software?
a)
Software owned by an organisation, you may need to buy a license for.
b)
Freely available, constantly upgraded by users.  No fee. 
119.
Which of the following is an advantage of 'open source' software?
a)
You can edit the source code to customise it
b)
You need to be an expert to edit code
c)
You have to pay
d)
Can sometimes be too generic for specialist purposes
120.
Which of the following is an advantage of 'open source' software?
a)
The software must be paid for.
b)
It’s often free.
c)
The produces provide regular updates.
d)
Not as customisable
121.
Which of the following is a disadvantage of 'open source' software?
a)
High quality software with lots of features
b)
Not as customisable
c)
May not have been tested as much as proprietary software, so might have bugs.
d)
You can edit the source code to customise it
122.
Which of the following is an advantage of 'proprietary' software?
a)
It is usually free.
b)
Thoroughly tested because people are paying to use it.
c)
Not as customisable
d)
Can sometimes be too generic for specialist purposes
123.
Assembly language has mnemonics.
a)
True
b)
False
124.
Compilers translate high-level language into machine code.
a)
True
b)
False
125.
Machine code uses the binary number system.
a)
True
b)
False
126.
High-level languages need to be compiled into machine code before they can be used by a computer.
a)
True
b)
False
127.
Machine code is easy to understand by a human.
a)
False
b)
True
128.

Which of the following is NOT a translator?

a)

Assembler

b)

Compiler

c)

Interpreter

d)

Executable

129.
Difficult to write in (but easier than Machine code)
a)
Interpreter
b)
Translator
c)
Compiler
d)
Assembly Langauge
130.

Original data ready to be encrypted is called

a)

Plaintext

b)

Ciphertext

c)

Cipher

d)

Key

131.

Encrypted data is called

a)

Plaintext

b)

Ciphertext

c)

Cipher

d)

Key

132.

Algorithms used to encrypt data is called

a)

Plaintext

b)

Ciphertext

c)

Cipher

d)

Key

133.

Hashing is ...

a)

The interception of a key that is used to decrypt data

b)

The transformation of a string of characters into a fixed length value or key that represents the original input string

c)

When data from a database is mismanaged

d)

When minor changes in the original string can completely change the hash value

134.

Hashing is ...

a)

Changes data before it reaches the spreadsheet records to be compared to

b)

Is very secure

c)

Is not very secure

d)

Changes data before it reaches the database records to be compared to

135.

Hashing ...

a)

Changes data before it reaches the spreadsheet records to be compared to

b)

Never stores sensitive data as plain text

c)

Is not very secure

d)

Stops hackers being able to see data and they will only see the hashed values

136.
What is E-R model used for?
a)
To extract content  from the database
b)
To design and visualize database
c)
To create a graphical user interface
137.
What should a primary key contain?
a)
A lot of different values
b)
A null value
c)
An unique value
138.
What is the correct way to begin your SQL query if you want to displays data that is stored in a specific table?
a)
COLLECT
b)
COMBINE
c)
SELECT
d)
CHOOSE
139.
What is the expected output from following SQL Query:
SELECT title
FROM videogames
WHERE title LIKE  '%2'
a)
It will only show video games which contains the character 2 somewhere in the title
b)
It will only show  videogames which begins with the character 2 in the title
c)
It will only show videogames which ends with the character 2 in the title
140.
What is a relational database?
a)
A relational database organizes data into tables, and links them together, based on key-fields. These relationships enable you to retrieve and combine data from one or more tables with a single query
b)
A relational database arranges data into a tree structure, which is similar to folders and files on a computer. 
141.
Which SQL reserved keyword do you use to combine data from two or more tables, based on a common field between them?
a)
using SELECT
b)
using JOIN
c)
using WHERE
d)
using GET
142.
What is the expected output from following SQL Query:
SELECT title
FROM videogames
WHERE title LIKE  '4%'
a)
It will only show video games which contains the character 4 somewhere in the title
b)
It will only show video games which begins with character 4 in the title
c)
It will only show video games which ends on the character 4  in the title
143.

Which of the following 2 options should be included in a conceptual data model?

a)

Table names

b)

Entity names

c)

Entity Relationships

d)

Attributes

144.

Complete the sentence below.

A database that is a quality, effective & appropriate solution must be normalised to _____ normal form.

a)

1st

b)

2nd

c)

3rd

d)

4th

145.

Normalisation is:

a)

Removing all necessary data from a database

b)

Organising a database to remove repeated entries and increase the accuracy of the data

c)

Putting fields from different tables into one big database

146.

Which of the following statements fully describes data in 2NF:

a)

When any repeating fields have been removed and the table is given a primary key

b)

When all repeating entries of data are removed and the fields in each table are directly related to the primary key and no fields are present that are not related to each other

c)

When all the fields in each table are directly related to the primary key

147.

An advantage of normalisation is:

a)

The storage space needed for a normalised database is likely to be smaller

b)

The process of normalising a database is very easy and doesn’t require any skill

c)

It is possible to see previous details that have been changed, such as a customer’s address, as we can look back at an older entry

148.

What is an atomic field?

a)

A field that contains multiple items of data

b)

A field that is repeated

c)

A field that contains only one item of data

149.

What is a foreign key?

a)

A unique identifier in a database

b)

A primary key of one table that appears in another table

c)

A field that should not be in a table and needs removing

150.

A relation is in 1NF if it doesn't contain any ____________?

a)

Determinants

b)

Repeating groups

c)

Null values in primary key fields

d)

Functional dependencies

151.

A table is in 2NF if the table is in 1NF and what other condition is met?

a)

There are no functional dependencies.

b)

There are no null values in primary key fields.

c)

There are no repeating groups.

d)

There are no attributes that are not functionally dependent on the relation's primary key.

152.

When you normalize a relation by breaking it into two smaller relations, what must you do to maintain data integrity?

a)

Remove any functional dependencies from both relations

b)

Assign both relations the same primary key field(s)

c)

Create a primary key(s) for the new relation

153.

Tables in ____ will perform suitably in business transactional databases.

a)

0NF

b)

1NF

c)

2NF

d)

3NF

154.

A table in ____ contains no transitive dependencies.

a)

1NF

b)

2NF

c)

3NF

d)

none of the above

155.

When is a table is said to be 3NF

a)

Normalization improves performance by reducing redundancy.

b)

If and only if it is in 2NF and every non key attribute is Non-transitively dependent on the primary key

c)

It involves introduction of redundancy in data

d)

None of the above

156.

To remove a record from a table which SQL statement would you use?

a)

Remove

b)

Cancel

c)

Delete

d)

Eradicate

157.

Which statement is used to extract data from a database?

a)

Extract

b)

Get

c)

Open

d)

Select

158.

Less than or equal to?

a)

>=

b)

=>

c)

=<

d)

<=

159.

Which word is missing from the following SQL statement?


Select * table_name

a)

With

b)

Where

c)

From

d)

And

160.

With SQL, how do you select all the records from a table named “Persons” where the value of the column “FirstName” ends with an “a”?

a)

SELECT * FROM Persons WHERE FirstName=’a’

b)

SELECT * FROM Persons WHERE FirstName LIKE ‘a%’

c)

SELECT * FROM Persons WHERE FirstName LIKE ‘%a’

d)

SELECT * FROM Persons WHERE FirstName=’%a%’

161.

SQL query to find all the cities whose humidity is 95.

a)

SELECT city WHERE humidity = 95

b)

SELECT city FROM weather WHERE humidity = 95

c)

SELECT humidity = 89 FROM weather

d)

SELECT city FROM weather

162.

SQL query to find the temperature in increasing order of all cities.

a)

SELECT city FROM weather ORDER BY temperature

b)

SELECT city, temperature FROM weather

c)

SELECT city, temperature FROM weather ORDER BY temperature

d)

SELECT city, temperature FROM weather ORDER BY city

163.

... states that database modifications must follow an “all or nothing” rule.

a)

Consistency

b)

Atomicity

c)

Durability

d)

Isolation

164.

... states that only valid data will be written to the database.

a)

Consistency

b)

Atomicity

c)

Durability

d)

Isolation

165.

... requires that multiple transactions occurring at the same time do not impact each other’s execution.

a)

Consistency

b)

Atomicity

c)

Durability

d)

Isolation

166.

... ensures that any transaction committed to the database will not be lost.

a)

Consistency

b)

Atomicity

c)

Durability

d)

Isolation

167.

5.23 would be stored as:

a)

Integer

b)

Real Number

c)

String

d)

Character

e)

Boolean

168.

What is an integer?

a)

A number

b)

A positive number

c)

A whole number

d)

A number with a decimal part

169.

Which of these cannot be accurately stored as a floating point number?

a)

1/8

b)

2/3

c)

4.00000000000000000001

d)

4/4

e)

17/9

170.

Which one of these binary numbers is the normalised form of 6.5?

6.5 = 00000110.1

a)

0.1011 0011

b)

0.1101 0011

c)

1.1001 0010

d)

1.1010 1010

171.

What does the number 10000001 represent when using two’s complement form?

a)

1

b)

-1

c)

-127

d)

-128

172.

How would -22 be represented with 6-bits in sign and magnitude form?

a)

010110

b)

110110

c)

101010

d)

10010110

e)

101110

173.

What is the major advantage of using Unicode over ASCII?

a)

It uses up more memory

b)

It can represent more characters

c)

It sounds much cooler

d)

67

174.

What value do you get when you use 00110001 as an XOR on the value 01101101?

a)

01111100

b)

01011100

c)

01010110

d)

01101101

175.

Write out the Boolean expression for this Karnaugh Map

a)

A^¬B

b)

A^B

c)

¬A^¬B

d)

¬A^B

176.

Write out the Boolean expression for this Karnaugh Map

a)

¬A^¬B

b)

A^¬B

c)

¬A^B

d)

A^B

177.

Identify the correct expression for this Karnaugh Map

a)

A v ¬B

b)

A ^ ¬B

c)

A ^ B

d)

A v B

178.

Select the simplest expression for this Karnaugh Map

a)

B ^ ¬ D v A ^ ¬ B

b)

A v B ^ ¬ D

179.

Identify the correct expression for this Karnaugh Map

a)

A ^ ¬ B v C ^ D

b)

A ^ B v C ^ ¬ D

180.

Identify the correct simplified expression using this Karnaugh Map

a)

¬A^B v A^C

b)

A v ¬B^C

181.

What type of logic gate is this table showing?

a)

AND

b)

OR

c)

NOT

182.

What type of logic is this table showing:

a)

AND

b)

OR

c)

NOR

d)

XOR

183.

Which logic gate is represented by this truth table?

a)
b)
c)
d)
184.

Which truth table is correct for this logic gate?

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
185.

"The burglar alarm will go off if either the door or the window or both are opened". This is an example of which type of Logic?

a)

AND

b)

OR

c)

NOT

d)

NOR

186.

Determine the output expression for output X if given

A =1

B = 0

C = 1

a)

X= 0

b)

X= 1

187.

What will the circuit's output be?

a)

1

b)

0

188.

Which of the following shows the commutative law?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

189.

Which of the following shows the associative law?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

190.

Which of the following shows the absorption law?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

191.

Which of the following shows the distributive law?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

192.

Which of the following shows the De Morgan’s law?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

193.

When adding two binary numbers, which logic gate is used to calculate the carry bit?

a)

an AND gate

b)

an OR gate

c)

a NAND gate

d)

an XOR gate

194.

In a full adder, which logic gate is used to check if either one of the carry bits is true?

a)

an OR gate

b)

an AND gate

c)

an XOR gate

d)

a NAND gate

195.

Which logic gate almost exactly describes the addition of two binary numbers (for sum)?

a)

an AND gate

b)

a NOR gate

c)

a NAND gate

d)

an XOR gate

196.

The circuit that sums A and B, and has two outputs, sum (S) and carry (C), is called ___

a)

a half adder

b)

a full adder

c)

a simple summer

d)

a digital combiner

197.

A digital circuit that sums two numbers, and includes a carry bit (C) as input is called ___

a)

a half adder

b)

a full adder

c)

a partial compiler

d)

a complete compiler

198.

Latches are used to

a)

store single bit

b)

store 2 bits

c)

store 1 byte

d)

none of the above

199.
This  flip-flop transitions on
a)
the falling clock edge.
b)
the rising clock edge.
c)
high clock level.
d)
low clock level.
200.

Which is a circuit that can be used to store the value of a single binary digit?

a)

Half adder

b)

Full adder

c)

D-type flip-flop