Wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Windows Server

Total questions: 134

Worksheet time: 4hrs 28mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

There are 3 main size and format type of servers. (Choose 3)

a)

Rack Mountable

b)

Blade

c)

Tower

d)

box

2.

3 editions of windows Server 2016

a)

Datacenter

b)

Standard

c)

Essentials

d)

Enterprise

3.

Minimum processor requirement to run windows server 2016?

a)

1.2GHz

b)

1.4GHz

c)

1.6GHz

d)

1.8GHZ

e)

2.0GHz

4.

Minimum RAM requirement to run windows server 2016?

a)

32MB

b)

512MB

c)

1024MB

d)

2048MB

5.

Minimum HDD requirement to run windows server 2016?

a)

16GB

b)

32GB

c)

64GB

d)

128GB

6.

Recommended processor to run windows server 2016?

a)

1.4GHz or higher

b)

1.6GHz or Higher

c)

1.8GHz or higher

d)

2.0 GHz or higher

e)

2.2GHz or higher

7.

Recommended RAM to run windows server 2016?

a)

4GB

b)

8GB

c)

16GB

d)

32GB

e)

64GB

8.

Recommended HDD to run windows server 2016?

a)

512MB

b)

1TB

c)

2TB

d)

4TB

e)

8TB

9.

________ is any device which can generate, receive, and transmit the networking resources on the computer network.

a)

Node

b)

Server

c)

Master Boot Record

d)

BIOS

10.

__________ networking is a computer network in which the participating computers do not have predefined roles in the network.

a)

Peer to Peer

b)

Client/Server

c)

Printer

d)

Spider

11.

________ networking is a computer network in which participating computers have predefined roles.

a)

Client/Sever

b)

Node

c)

Peer to Peer

d)

Blade

12.

Expand NOS

a)

Network Operating System

b)

Nodes Over Servers

c)

Network Operating Server

d)

Neon Oxide

13.

IPv4 Class A Default subnet mask

a)

255.0.0.0

b)

255.255.0.0

c)

255.255.255.0

d)

255.255.255.255

e)

225.255.0.0

14.

IPv4 Class B Default subnet mask

a)

255.0.0.0

b)

255.255.0.0

c)

255.255.0.255

d)

255.225.0.0

e)

255.255.255.255

15.

IPv4 Class C Default subnet mask

a)

255.0.0.0

b)

255.255.0.0

c)

255.255.255.0

d)

255.255.255.255

e)

255.225.255.0

16.

What NOS (Network Operating System) is this?

a)

Linux

b)

MacOS

c)

Microsoft

d)

Windows

e)

UniX

17.

Which of the following is not a Boot option?

(Choose all that apply)

a)

DVD

b)

USB FLash

c)

Network

d)

iSCSC

e)

Wireless

18.

Server Installation. _______ replaces your existing OS with a new one.

a)

upgrade

b)

Clean Installation

c)

Unattended Installation

d)

Migration

e)

WDS

19.

Server Installation. _______ takes place when you bring in a new machine and want to move the roles, features, apps ,and settings into it.

a)

upgrade

b)

migration

c)

clean installation

d)

WDS

e)

unattended installation

20.

server installation. __________ has little or no interactivity with the OS installation.

a)

upgrade

b)

migration

c)

WDS

d)

Clean installation

e)

unattended installation

21.

Server installation. _________ overwrites the existing OS on a HDD.

a)

upgrade

b)

migration

c)

WDS

d)

Clean installation

e)

unattended installation

22.

Server Installation. _____ Server enables installation over a network.

a)

upgrade

b)

Migration

c)

WDS

d)

Clean installation

e)

unattended installation

23.

Expand WDS

a)

Windows Deployment server

b)

Wireless distribution Server

c)

Windows

d)

Windows Deployment Services

e)

Windows Download System

24.

_______ device is any device that is located inside the computer's case.

a)

internal

b)

External

c)

Peripheral

d)

Endoscope

25.

_______ device is any device attached to a computer's case, and as such constitutes the whole computer system.

a)

internal

b)

External

c)

Peripheral

d)

Endoscope

26.

_______ device is considered to be any device that is geographically located near a computer, and as such is not an essential part of the computer system.

a)

internal

b)

external

c)

Peripheral

d)

Endoscope

27.

A network device is actually a _______ device connected to a computer by a network cable.

a)

internal

b)

External

c)

Peripheral

d)

Endoscope

28.

In Desktop Experience, the initial server configuration can be accomplished using ______?

a)

Server Manager

b)

Task Manager

c)

Computer Manager

d)

Football Manager

29.

______ stores information on the installed applications and their extensions

a)

HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT

b)

HKEY_CURRENT_USER

c)

HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE

d)

HKEY_USERS

e)

HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIG

30.

______ stores information on the user that is currently logged in.

a)

HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT

b)

HKEY_CURRENT USER

c)

HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE

d)

HKEY_USER

e)

HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIG

31.

_______ stores information specific to the local computer

a)

HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT

b)

HKEY_CURRENT_USER

c)

HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE

d)

HKEY-USERS

e)

HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIG

32.

______ contains information on the logged user profiles

a)

HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT

b)

HKEY_CURRENT_USER

c)

HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE

d)

HKEY_USERS

e)

HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIG

33.

_______ contains information gathered during the boot process

a)

HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT

b)

HKEY_CURRENT_USER

c)

HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE

d)

HKEY_USERS

e)

HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIG

34.

Active Directory: Which of the following protocols authenticates and proves identity between users and server?

a)

Kerberos

b)

LDAP

c)

DNS

d)

ADDT

e)

ADSS

35.

Active Directory: which of the following protocols is used to access the directory services data?

a)

LDAP

b)

Kerberos

c)

DNS

d)

ADDT

e)

ADSS

36.

Active Directory: Which of the following protocols is used to translate domain names into IP Addrss

a)

LDAP

b)

Kerberos

c)

DNS

d)

ADDT

e)

ADSS

37.

Active Directory: It is the one-stop place that is used to manage windows server's directory services?

(dsac.exe)

a)

ADAC

b)

ADUC

c)

ADDT

d)

ADSS

e)

ADMWP

38.

Active directory: This console is used to manage users, computers, and relevant information?

(dsa.msc)

a)

ADAC

b)

ADUC

c)

ADDT

d)

ADSS

e)

ASMWP

39.

Active Directory: This console is used to manage domains, trusts and relevant information?

(domain.msc)

a)

ADAC

b)

ADUC

c)

ADDT

d)

ADSS

e)

ADWMP

40.

Active Directory: This console is used to manage the replication and services between sites?

a)

ADAC

b)

ADUC

c)

ADDT

d)

ADSS

e)

ADWMP

41.

Which of the following is NOT a DNS Zone?

a)

Primary

b)

Secondry

c)

Stub

d)

Tertiary

42.

Expand WINS

a)

Windows Internet Name Service

b)

Windows server

c)

Windows Internet Name Server

d)

Windows Information Network Server

e)

Windows Information Name Service

43.

______ Server maps the IP Addresses to NetBIOS names.

a)

WINS

b)

ADSS

c)

ADDT

d)

ISP

e)

RID

44.

A _____ in an AD structure is compromised of one or more Domains.

a)

Tree

b)

Forest

c)

Child domain

d)

Primary Domain Controller

45.

A collection of trees is known as what?

a)

Forest

b)

Wood

c)

Jungle

d)

Rainforest

e)

Orchard

46.

In AD, What are the Forest Wide operations master roles?

(Choose two)

a)

Master Schema

b)

Domain Naming Master

c)

Infrastucture Master

d)

Relitive Identifier

e)

Master Domain Emulator

47.

SMTP port number?

a)

25

b)

110

c)

143

d)

443

e)

21

48.

POP port number?

a)

25

b)

110

c)

143

d)

443

e)

80

49.

IMAP port number?

a)

25

b)

143

c)

110

d)

80

e)

443

50.

FTP port number?

a)

20

b)

25

c)

69

d)

80

e)

110

51.

HTTP Port number

a)

20

b)

25

c)

80

d)

110

e)

443

52.

HTTPS port number

a)

20

b)

25

c)

80

d)

3389

e)

443

53.

RDP port number?

a)

143

b)

443

c)

3389

d)

9100

e)

5900

54.

Mail Servers: MTA.....

a)

is responsible for transporting the mail between mail servers

b)

Is responsible for delivering the mail from the server into a user's inbox

c)

Is responsible for providing a platform for composing and reading emails

d)

Is responsible for auto-deleting old emails from the server

55.

Mail servers: MDA

a)

is responsible for transporting the mail between mail servers

b)

Is responsible for delivering the mail from the server into a user's inbox

c)

Is responsible for providing a platform for composing and reading emails

d)

Is responsible for auto-deleting old emails from the server

56.

Mail Servers: MUA

a)

is responsible for transporting the mail between mail servers

b)

Is responsible for delivering the mail from the server into a user's inbox

c)

Is responsible for providing a platform for composing and reading emails

d)

Is responsible for auto-deleting old emails from the server

57.

IIS Is?

a)

Microsoft's Web server

b)

Protocol for DNS Authentication

c)

Interoperable Internet Script for different OS

d)

Roaming profile Server

58.

SSH Port number

a)

20

b)

21

c)

22

d)

23

e)

25

59.

Telnet port number

a)

20

b)

21

c)

22

d)

23

e)

25

60.

Expand SSL

a)

Secure Socket Layer

b)

Secure Serial Layer

c)

Secure server Layer

d)

Secure Service Layer

e)

Secure software LAyer

61.

_____ Is a communication technology that encrypts the communication channel a website server and a computer browser

a)

SSL

b)

RDS

c)

PDS

d)

IIS

e)

FTP

62.

_____ is any logical endpoint where applications from your computer communicate with other applications on other computers (both LAN and Wan).

a)

Hardware port

b)

Software port

c)

Port Stanley

d)

Access Port

63.

______ Is any physical interface in a computer, peripheral device, or network device that allows interconnection for communication purposes

a)

Hardware Port

b)

Software Port

c)

IIS

d)

RDP

e)

ADDT

64.

Which of the following are NTFS permissions in windows server 2016?

(Choose three)

a)

modify

b)

write

c)

change

d)

read

e)

partial access

65.

Which of the following are share permissions?

(choose three)

a)

Full Control

b)

Change

c)

Read

d)

Write

e)

Modify

66.

____ is a combination of an IP address and a port number and tells an application where data should be sent.

a)

IP Socket

b)

IP Network

c)

IP Pooling

d)

IP Plug

e)

IP Book

67.

What do you use to set up a print server in Windows server 2016

a)

PDS

b)

PDC

c)

IIS

d)

PKI

e)

PCI

68.

_____ Is an option to tat helps configure two or more physical printers into one logical printer

a)

Printer pooling

b)

Printer Sharing

c)

Printer Spooling

d)

Printer IP Addressing

69.

Printer Pooling configuration is done through...?

a)

Print management Console

b)

Print management Service

c)

Print management tool

70.

Processing GPO's takes place in this order?

a)

Local, Site, Domain, OU

b)

OU, Site, Domain, Local

c)

Domain, Local, OU, Site

d)

OU, Domain, Local, Site

71.

The computer on which the GPO is applied through Active Directory?

a)

Non-Domain Computer

b)

Domain Computer

72.

_____ Binds the physical network adapter so that the virtual machines can access a physical network?

a)

External Switch

b)

Internal Switch

c)

Private Switch

d)

Public Switch

73.

______ can be used only by VM's that run on the physical server, and between VM's and the physical server?

a)

external

b)

internal

c)

private

d)

public

74.

_____ can be used only by the VM's that run on the physical server?

a)

internal

b)

external

c)

private

d)

public

75.

______ is a network appliance that connects to computers and servers through the switch and acts as a dedicated storage in an organisations network?

a)

NAS

b)

SAN

c)

DAS

d)

ExFAT

76.

_______ is a group of disks that are directly attached to a computer or server?

a)

DAS

b)

SAN

c)

NAS

d)

NTFS

77.

RAID _ is just striping?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

5

d)

10

78.

Raid _ is just Mirrored?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

5

d)

10

79.

RAID _ is striping with parity?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

5

d)

10

80.

Raid _ is mirroring and striping?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

5

d)

10

e)

6

81.

RAID _ is dual Parity?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

5

d)

10

e)

6

82.

ReFS is the successor to NTFS.

True/False?

a)

True

b)

False

83.

What is the latest version of File Allocation Table (FAT)

a)

4

b)

8

c)

16

d)

32

e)

64

84.

exFAT was designed for Flash drives and SD cards. Is it Platform independent? (Restricted to one OS)

If yes which one?

a)

No

b)

Windows

c)

Mac

d)

Linux

85.

Distributed File System (DFS) enables sharing sharing of data from your server in an unauthorised and uncontrolled way?

(True/False)

a)

True

b)

False

86.

basic disk configurations are organised into ____?

a)

Partitions

b)

Volumes

c)

Blocks

d)

Folders

87.

Dynamic disk configuration is organised into _____?

a)

Volumes

b)

Partitions

c)

Folders

d)

Blocks

88.

Processors: This cache ___ is the fastest?

a)

L1

b)

L2

c)

L3

d)

L4

89.

Processors: Cache ___ has a higher capacity but slower speed and is located inside the chip

a)

L1

b)

L2

c)

L3

d)

L4

90.

Processors: Cache ___ is located outside the processor?

a)

L1

b)

L2

c)

L3

d)

L4

91.

Processor: (Word size is the amount of data sent to the RAM n returned to CPU).

How many more times can 64 bit access physical memory over 32 bit?

a)

4

b)

4 Thousand

c)

4 Billion

d)

4 Octillion

92.

____ enables you to distribute network load across servers

a)

NLB

b)

ECC

c)

NLD

d)

NOS

e)

NLS

93.

Which two hardware items generate the most heat?

(Choose Two)

a)

CPU

b)

HDD

c)

RAM

d)

Graphics Card

e)

Network Interface Card

94.

Which of the following windows MMC are Monitor tools?

Click all that apply

a)

Performance Monitor

b)

Resource Monitor

c)

Server Monitor

d)

Device Monitor

e)

Task Monitor

95.

The main reason for a baseline is to collect the following performance information: (Choose four)

a)

Collecting processor utilization

b)

Collecting ROM utilization

c)

Collecting disk read-and-write operations

d)

Collecting RAM utilization

e)

Network connection utilization

96.

Because power supplies are considered to be a single point of failure, most servers are equipped with two or more Power Supply Units (PSUs).

(True/False)

a)

True

b)

False

97.

Which Installation option of Windows Server 2016 will provide a GUI?

a)

Global Server

b)

Standard Core

c)

Nano Server

d)

Desktop Experience

e)

Micro Server

98.

Master Boot Record (MBR) supports disks sizes up to?

a)

1TB

b)

2TB

c)

4TB

d)

100TB

e)

200TB

99.

To perform an unattended installation you will require which tools?

(Choose all that apply)

a)

Windows ADK

b)

Windows PE

c)

MDT

d)

RATR

e)

PAINT

100.

You are performing an unattended installation and have created a new Deployment share. What should you do next to create your answer file?

a)

Run the New Application wizard

b)

Run the Import Operating System wizard

c)

Run the Import OS Packages wizard

d)

Run the New Task Sequence wizard

101.

Direct Memory Access (DMA) is a number from 0 to ___. It is a system resource used by a device to bypass the processor whenever that device needs access to RAM.

a)

4

b)

8

c)

16

d)

32

e)

64

102.

Interrupt Request (IRQ) is a number from 0 to ___. It is a signal sent by a device to get the attention of the _____.

a)

31

Processor

b)

62

Processor

c)

31

RAM

d)

62

RAM

e)

31

NIC

103.

What uses Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) to authenticate corporate users so they can access web applications on the corporate intranet through an extranet?

a)

Web Application Proxy

b)

Direct Access Client

c)

Routing and Remote Access Service

104.

The Remote Desktop Services (RDS) role is not required to set up Remote Desktop Gateway (RDG) role services in Windows Server 2016.

(True/False)

a)

True

b)

False

105.

To set up a mail server in Windows Server 2016, you must add the SMTP server feature to your server.

(True/False)

a)

True

b)

False

106.

Which server acts as a router, firewall, antivirus program, VPN server, proxy server, and other threat management roles?

a)

Threat management server

b)

Web Server

c)

Monitor Server

d)

Traffic Server

e)

Network Monitor Server

107.

What is the default setting for the GPOs (Group Policy Objects)?

a)

Configured

b)

Not Configured

c)

Enabled

d)

Disabled

e)

Unconfigured

108.

which of the following are examples of the correct IP socket layout.

(IP first then Port or visa versa)

(Choose two)

a)

172.16.30.55:433

b)

192.168.110.250:8080

c)

443.192.168.110.250

d)

3389.172.16.30.55

109.

Usually, certificates (digital certificates) are issued by a secure entity known as a _______ (CA)

a)

Certificate Authority

b)

Certificate Acquiescence

c)

Certificate Allocator

d)

Certificate Approbation

e)

Certificate Approval

110.

Which of the following types of volumes supported by dynamic disk uses a minimum of three disks for creating a fault-tolerant drive among the drives?

a)

RAID-5

b)

RAID-0

c)

RAID-1

d)

Spanned Volume

e)

Maximum Volume

111.

Disk striping occurs when data is:

a)

Duplicated on separate disks

b)

Duplicated on the same disk

c)

Shared between disks

d)

Written across multiple disks

112.

Which of the following refers to a digital storage system directly attached to a server or workstation, without a storage network in between?

a)

DAS

b)

SAN

c)

NAS

113.

Which of the following file systems centralizes data and can be used to replicate shared folders to other servers?

a)

ADFS

b)

FAT32

c)

DFS

d)

NTFS

114.

Which form of RAID is not fault tolerant?

a)

RAID 0

b)

RAID 1

c)

RAID 5

d)

RAID 6

e)

RAID 10

115.

Which file storage system can be used on a Windows Server?

a)

NFS

b)

NTFS

c)

EXT3

d)

FAT16

116.

Which RAID level can consist of two disks and provides redundancy?

a)

RAID 1

b)

RAID 0

c)

RAID 5

d)

RAID 6

e)

RAID 10

117.

An external storage unit that is self-contained and provides shared file-level access is referred to as:

a)

Small Computer System Interface (SCSI).

b)

Storage Area Network (SAN).

c)

Network Attached Storage (NAS).

d)

Direct Attached Storage (DAS).

118.

Disk mirroring occurs when data is:

a)

Duplicated on the same disk.

b)

Backed up by using parity.

c)

Duplicated on separate disks.

d)

Split between disks.

119.

To convert a disk from dynamic to basic, you must first:

a)

Mirror all disk volumes.

b)

Connect the disk to a different controller.

c)

Delete all disk volumes.

d)

Format all disk volumes in the NTFS file system.

120.

Which disk types can be used for internal storage?

a)

SAN/iSCSI

b)

NFS/Distributed File System (DFS)

c)

PATA/SATA/SCSI

d)

NAS/Fiber-channel

121.

What boot option starts Windows with a minimal set of drivers and services?

a)

Safe mode

b)

Last Known Good Configuration

c)

Directory Services Restore Mode

d)

Debugging Mode

122.

You need to make a share hidden. Which symbol should you append to the share name?

a)

#

b)

?

c)

!

d)

$

e)

£

123.

What is required to create a volume mount point?

a)

A dynamic disk

b)

Extended volumes

c)

An NTFS file system volume or partition

d)

RAID 1 implementation

124.

To change the boot device order of a computer, you should use:

a)

Device Manager.

b)

Disk Management.

c)

BIOS settings.

d)

Computer Policy.

125.

Discover, Evaluate, Track, Execute, Check, _____?

a)

Take

b)

Transfer

c)

Tipple

d)

Trouble

126.

Discover, _______, Track, Execute, Check, Take?

a)

Evolve

b)

Evaluate

c)

Execute

d)

Establish

e)

Endoscope

127.

Discover, Evaluate, ____, Execute, Check, Take?

a)

Track

b)

Take

c)

Transfer

d)

Troubleshoot

e)

Tartan

128.

In an Active Directory, which of the following represents a geographic location hosting networks?

a)

Site

b)

OU

c)

Domain

d)

Forest

129.

Settings from which group policy object are processed first during logon?

a)

Domain

b)

OU

c)

Site

d)

Local

130.

Which is used to verify that a secure Web site is legitimate?

a)

Active Directory

b)

Enterprise trust

c)

Private key

d)

Digital certificate

131.

What protocol is used to send mail between servers?

a)

FTP

b)

SMTP

c)

HTTP

d)

HTTPS

e)

SNMP

132.

What type of server serves HTML files to clients?

a)

web server

b)

FTP server

c)

SMB server

d)

application server

133.

What is the minimum share permission needed to modify files and its attributes?

a)

Full Control

b)

Change

c)

Write

d)

Read

134.

You want to receive a notification when your server's processor exceeds 80% utilization. You should create a:

a)

Performance Alert.

b)

Scheduled task.

c)

Performance Log.

d)

Performance counter.

e)

System Event.

Similar Resources on Wayground

2do Parcial de redes 1

139 questions

2do Parcial de redes 1

quiz

Worksheet

•

Professional Development

test tema 1 Introducción

131 questions

test tema 1 Introducción

quiz

Worksheet

•

Professional Development