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UT Psych

Total questions: 201

Worksheet time: 2hrs 41mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The first psychology laboratory was established in _____ by _____.

a)

the United States; William James

b)

Germany; Wilhelm Wundt

c)

Greece; Aristotle

d)

Austria; Sigmund Freud

2.

Psychology today would be best defined as 

a)

  observable responses to the environment

b)

  the scientific study of behavior and mental processes

c)

  consciousness

d)

  mental illness

3.

The neuroscience perspective would be most likely to emphasize that behavior is influenced by–

a)

  our thoughts.

b)

biology.

c)

  our motivations.

d)

  our society.

4.

Clinical psychologists are required to have a medical degree

a)

True

b)

False

5.

Dr. Adams administers tests to determine traits that are unique to the individual. The test asks questions on preferences such as enjoying the indoors or outdoors better. What subfield does Dr. Adams most likely work in?

a)

  social psychology

b)

  industrial/ organizational psychology

c)

  developmental psychology

d)

  personality psychology

6.

Dr. Sutton wants to research what the most popular ways of communication among teens, ages 13-18. Which of the following research methods would be most appropriate?

a)

  case study

b)

survey

c)

  experiment

d)

  naturalistic observation

7.

Dr. Tanner wants to research how children interact socially, which research method would be most appropriate?

a)

  correlational method

b)

  case study

c)

experiment

d)

  naturalistic observation

8.

Dr. Mitchell is interested in finding how a new drug affects patient's energy levels. Which research method would be most appropriate?

a)

  case study

b)

experiment

c)

  naturalistic observation

d)

survey

9.

A teacher wants to find out how student's test grades compare to each other, which of the following methods would be most helpful?

a)

  a case study

b)

  central measures of tendency

c)

  naturalistic observation

d)

  a survey

10.

Which of the following best describes a weakness of a case study?

a)

  The participant's behavior may not apply to a larger population.

b)

  They are always in a laboratory.

c)

  Case studies are expensive and take a long time.

d)

  They do not give enough details about the participant.

11.

Which of the following research methods shows cause and effect?

a)

  naturalistic observation

b)

  case study

c)

experiment

d)

survey

12.

Every time Joe wears his lucky red socks to his basketball game; his team wins a game. While Joe might think that wearing the socks contributes to the team winning, this is actually an example of —

a)

  an experiment

b)

  the placebo effect

c)

  an illusory correlation

d)

  hindsight bias

13.

Which of the following best describes why researchers use the double-blind method?

a)

  It allows participants to have a choice in their group.

b)

  In order to determine the mean of a set scores.

c)

  In order to increase the possibility of the placebo effect.

d)

  In order to avoid researcher and participant bias.

14.

Approximately what percentage of scores in a normal distribution fall within one standard deviation from the mean?

a)

  99%

b)

  1%

c)

  68%

d)

  95%

15.

In a scatter plot graph, if the correlation coefficient is zero, then —

a)

  the scores have a normal curve.

b)

  the scores have a positive correlation.

c)

  the scores have no relation.

d)

  the scores have a negative correlation.

16.

Which of the following is the tail-like portion of a neuron upon which electrical signals are carried?

a)

  myelin sheath

b)

  dendrite

c)

synapse

d)

axon

17.

What autoimmune disorder causes the deterioration of the myelin sheath?

a)

  Down syndrome

b)

  Parkinson's

c)

Alzheimer's

d)

  multiple sclerosis

18.

Marcus is a football player. Even though Marcus was exhausted from practice and a lack of sleep, he still managed to play well at the Friday night game. He even broke a finger during the game, but did not even feel the pain and was still in a good mood. What neurotransmitter was released to alleviate Marcus' pain?

a)

melatonin

b)

endorphins

c)

serotonin

d)

acetylcholine

19.

What mental disorder is correlated with over activity of dopamine in the brain?

a)

Alzheimer's

b)

  multiple sclerosis

c)

schizophrenia

d)

Parkinson's

20.

What is a common side effect of split brain surgery?

a)

  inability to identify objects in the left field of vision

b)

  inability to fall asleep

c)

  inability to speak

d)

inability to identify objects in the right field of vision

21.

Which of the following are characteristics of the sympathetic nervous system?

a)

  reduced control of bladder contraction and stimulation of tear glands

b)

  reduced control of bladder contraction and inhibition of salvation and digestion

c)

  stimulation of tear glands and decreased heart rate

d)

  constriction of the pupils and stimulation of digestion

22.

John was in a car accident and had trauma to his brain. Currently John is having trouble speaking. He cannot seem to form the words correctly. Which areas of the brain could have been affected by his accident?

a)

  Broca's and Wernicke's areas

b)

  the cerebellum and medulla

c)

  the visual and auditory cortex

d)

  the motor and somatosensory cortex

23.

Which is the oldest part of the brain?

a)

midbrain

b)

  hindbrain

c)

  temporal lobe

d)

forebrain

24.

Franz Gall was a scientist in the 19th century who studied the bumps on the skull which came to be known as–

a)

biopsychology

b)

  gestalt psychology.

c)

phrenology

d)

neuroscience

25.

A brief electrical charge that travels down the axon of a neuron is called the–

a)

  refractory period.

b)

  action potential.

c)

  synaptic gap.

d)

  myelin sheath.

26.

Where do endocrine glands secrete hormones?

a)

  the reproductive system

b)

  the nervous system

c)

  the limbic system

d)

  the bloodstream

27.

At the age of 18, Eric was only 4 feet tall. Which area of the brain would have influenced his lack of growth hormones?

a)

  the pancreas

b)

  the pituitary gland

c)

  the thyroid gland

d)

  the adrenal glands

28.

Which of the following hormones would most likely be released in the case of a stressful situation?

a)

  insulin

b)

estrogen

c)

epinephrine

d)

  endorphins

29.

Dr. Jones is developing a sleep study. Which brain imaging technique would be most useful for her study?

a)

  PET scan

b)

  CT scan

c)

fMRI

d)

EEG

30.

Women produce more _____ than men, and men produce more _____ than women.

a)

  estrogen; epinephrine

b)

  testosterone; hormones

c)

  estrogen; testosterone

d)

  testosterone; estrogen

31.

Which brain structure is most responsible for the control of the endocrine system through the pituitary gland?

a)

hypothalamus

b)

cerebellum

c)

amygdala

d)

  thyroid gland

32.

Allen is overweight despite maintaining a healthy diet and exercise routine. Which gland might be responsible for his inability to lose weight?

a)

pancreas

b)

  thyroid gland

c)

  pituitary gland

d)

  adrenal glands

33.

The blind spot in our eye is caused by _____.

a)

  protein collected behind the lens

b)

  retinal damage caused by overexposure to light.

c)

  the lack of receptors at the spot where the optic nerve connects to the retina

d)

  the overabundance of receptors at the spot where the optic nerve connects to the retina

34.

Which feature of the eye allows in light?

a)

  pupil

b)

lens

c)

retina

d)

  cornea

35.

Ron and Arnold are watching television and playing with loud toys while their father reads a book in the same room. How is their father able to concentrate on the book while also taking in all the other senses?

a)

  phi phenomemon

b)

  sensory interaction

c)

  selective attention

d)

  sensory adaptation

36.

Sarah damaged a part of her basilar membrane and can't seem to hear high pitched sounds as much as she used to. Which theory best explain's Sarah's hearing loss?

a)

  place theory

b)

  opponent process theory

c)

  Young-Helmholtz trichromatic theory

d)

  frequency theory

37.

While Tara was performing in a ballet recital, she broke a toe during the performance, but didn't feel the pain until after the show. Which theory best explains Tara's lack of pain during the recital?

a)

  Weber's law

b)

  opponent process theory

c)

  gate-control theory

d)

  place theory

38.

David lives near an airport and hears airplanes travel over his house every day. When his friends come over to visit they are shocked by the noise, but David doesn't even seem to notice. Which of the following best explains David's behavior?

a)

  signal detection theory

b)

  vestibular sense

c)

  sensory interaction

d)

  sensory adaptation

39.

Which theory best explains why people who are red and green colorblind still have the ability to see yellow?

a)

  opponent-process theory

b)

  Weber's law

c)

  Young Helmholtz trichromatic theory

d)

  signal detection theory

40.

Which device collects sound?

a)

pinna

b)

  vestibular sacs

c)

cochlea

d)

  auditory nerve

41.

Michael has been practicing baseball for eight years. When he goes up to bat, he knows exactly how to hold the bat and how much to tilt his head. Which senses does Michael rely the most on when he is taking his position at bat?

a)

  vestibular and kinesthetic senses

b)

  auditory and gustatory senses

c)

  gustatory and olfactory senses

d)

  auditory and vision senses

42.

Francesca is walking down the hallway at school when her best friend sneaks up behind her and puts a letter in her backpack. Francesca does not notice the letter until she arrives in class and opens her backpack. Why didn't Francesca notice the letter?

a)

  the weight of the letter was less than 1 pound

b)

  the weight of the letter was greater than 2% of the weight of her backpack

c)

  the weight of the letter more than 1 pound

d)

  the weight of the letter was less than 2% of the weight of her backpack

43.

Lauren has loved roses every since she was a kid and had a rose bush. Amy hates flowers because she is allergic to them. Lauren and Amy have different feelings towards flowers, because of their _____.

a)

  perceptual set

b)

  frequency theory

c)

  perceptual constancy

d)

  stroboscopic effect

44.

Winston is looking at his phone while waiting in a busy line at the airport next to a talkative couple. He hears his friend call his name despite the distractions around him. Which theory best explains why Winston can detect the sound of his name?

a)

  signal detection theory

b)

  place theory

c)

  sensory adaptation

d)

  frequency theory

45.

Winston is looking at his phone while waiting in a busy line at the airport next to a talkative couple. He hears his friend call his name despite the distractions around him. Which theory best explains why Winston can detect the sound of his name?

a)

  signal detection theory

b)

  place theory

c)

  sensory adaptation

d)

  frequency theory

46.

Which branch of psychology studies telepathy, clairvoyance, and precognition?

a)

  gestalt psychology

b)

parapsychology

c)

  cognitive psychology

d)

psychophysics

47.

When looking at a piece of art, Julia first notices that the image is a group of people at a park. She then notices that the artwork is made out of tiny dots, a technique known as pointillism. Which type of processing did Julia first use?

a)

  bottom-up processing

b)

  figure-ground

c)

  top-down processing

d)

  parallel processing

48.

While James is sleeping his younger sister comes by and tells him to "wake up" multiple times. James does not wake up because the volume of his sister's voice was ______.

a)

  twice as loud as the room.

b)

  not a subliminal message.

c)

  below the absolute threshold of hearing.

d)

  above the absolute threshold of hearing.

49.

Dane moved to Texas from New York. He asked a student how to get to the library. The student told him the library was 10 minutes to the right. Dane was confused because expected her to tell him how many blocks away the library is. Dane's predisposition to describe directions in distance instead of time is due to his _____. 

a)

  parallel processing

b)

  perceptual constancy

c)

  gestalt psychology

d)

  perceptual set

50.

According to gestalt psychology, objects that are close together are viewed as a singular group. Which of the following best represents this concept?

a)

  A mother and daughter holding hands.

b)

  A bundle of wires spread out on the floor.

c)

  A group of people standing close together.

d)

  A group of teens wearing identical shirts.

51.

While Frank while flying in a plane he noticed the houses getting smaller and smaller as they rose higher in altitude. Which best represents Frank's understanding that the houses were not actually getting smaller, but just appear to do so?

a)

  perceptual shape constancy

b)

  perceptual set

c)

  perceptual size constancy

d)

  perceptual constancy

52.

A segment of DNA which is capable of synthesizing a specific protein is called a–

a)

chromosome

b)

gene

c)

mutation

d)

hormone

53.

Human genetic diversity consists of the variations in the sequence of our–

a)

synapses

b)

mutations

c)

nucleotides

d)

chromosomes

54.

Evolutionary psychology is most relevant to a understanding of how behavior contributes to–

a)

  cultural diversity.

b)

  genetic mutations.

c)

  cognitions.

d)

  reproductive success.

55.

Which of the following is the source of genetic diversity?

a)

  autism

b)

eugenics

c)

mutations

d)

  Down syndrome

56.

A behavior geneticist would  be most interested in studying the hereditary influences on–

a)

  physical attractiveness.

b)

  variations of skin color.

c)

  personality traits.

d)

  lumps on the skull.

57.

Which of the following are identical twins who were reared apart most likely to have in common?

a)

  language

b)

  childhood memories

c)

  intelligence test scores

d)

  cultural customs

58.

Adopted children are least likely to have _____ that resemble those of their adoptive parents.

a)

  religious beliefs

b)

  political attitudes

c)

  moral values

d)

  personality traits

59.

Kara is from Germany, but moved to the United States when she was 7 years old. Kara doesn't have a German accent, even though her parents do. This is due to–

a)

  peer influence.

b)

  genetic predisposition.

c)

  gender identity.

d)

  socio-economic factors.

60.

Which of the following best describes a cluster of behaviors expected of those who occupy a particular social situation?

a)

  gene

b)

schema

c)

norm

d)

heritability

61.

Darcy is a ten year old girl who has a difficult time relating to other children her age. She cannot seem to read facial and social cues which impacts her ability to communicate and socialize. What issue does Darcy most likely have?

a)

AIDS

b)

  Down syndrome

c)

  autism spectrum disorder

d)

  sickle-cell anemia

62.

Dr. Krause is most interested in the long-term effects of child-rearing practices on children's behavior. What type of psychology does Dr. Krause most likely specialize in?

a)

cognitive

b)

developmental

c)

educational

d)

eugenics

63.

During prenatal development, a fertilized cell begins as a  _____ and then finally develops into a _____. 

a)

  fetus; zygote

b)

  embryo; fetus

c)

  zygote; embryo

d)

  zygote; fetus

64.

A substance, such as alcohol, which can cross the placental barrier and harm an unborn child is known as a–

a)

embryo

b)

habituation

c)

  teratogen

d)

attachment

65.

Which of the following best represents Piaget's understanding of childhood cognitive development?

a)

  Inattentive mothers create insecure attachments with their children.

b)

  Children develop strictly by means of their genetics.

c)

  Children develop by interacting with their social environment.

d)

  Children develop by interacting with their physical environment.

66.

Providing children with a safe haven in times of stress contributes most directly to which of the following?

a)

  secure attachment

b)

  stranger anxiety

c)

egocentrism

d)

  insecure attachment

67.

Authoritative parents are more likely to have children who–

a)

  have low self-esteem and are rebellious.

b)

  have low self-esteem and highly dependent.

c)

  have high self-esteem and are self-reliant.

d)

  have high self-esteem, but are very dependent.

68.

Which phase of life is characterized by surging physical growth and sexual maturation?

a)

  late adulthood

b)

  elementary age

c)

puberty

d)

  early adulthood

69.

According to Kohlberg, morality based on the avoidance of punishment and the attainment of concrete rewards represents a ______ morality.

a)

  postconventional

b)

preoperational

c)

conventional

d)

preconventional

70.

Erik Erikson suggested that the adolescent search for identity is followed by a developing capacity for–

a)

intimacy

b)

integrity

c)

autonomy

d)

trust

71.

Harry Harlow’s work with infant monkey’s and surrogate mothers suggests that–

a)

  inborn reflexes are more limited than was once thought.

b)

  even the simplest primates learn through observation.

c)

  when distressed, an infant will turn to a caregiver that offers food.

d)

  infants seek not simply a food source but also a source of contact comfort.

72.

When an animal learns to associate a squirt of water to electric shock, they demonstrate the process of _____.

a)

  observational learning

b)

  classical conditioning

c)

  prosocial behavior

d)

  operant conditioning

73.

In Ivan Pavlov's famous classical conditioning experiment on dogs, the bell, though initially neutral, became the ______.

a)

  unconditioned response

b)

  conditioned response

c)

  conditioned stimulus

d)

  unconditioned stimulus

74.

Extinction occurs when a conditioned stimulus is no longer paired with a _____.

a)

  unconditioned stimulus

b)

  unconditioned response

c)

  conditioned response

d)

  neutral stimulus

75.

A disorder which causes physical and cognitive abnormalities in children caused by a pregnant woman’s heavy drinking and in severe cases, symptoms include noticeable facial disproportions is known as _____.

a)

  fetal alcohol syndrome

b)

teratogens

c)

  AIDS

d)

  autism spectrum disorder

76.

What classical conditioning principle did John Watson's famous baby Albert experiment demonstrate?

a)

  acquisition

b)

  generalization of stimuli

c)

  spontaneous recovery

d)

discrimination

77.

Joe likes to play basketball. Joe's little brother, Jim, also likes to play basketball. Jim often dresses like his older brother Joe. Which of the following best explains Jim's behavior?

a)

  prosocial behavior

b)

  operant conditioning

c)

  classical conditioning

d)

  observation learning

78.

Mrs. Gilmore is a kindergarten teacher and gives stickers to her students whenever they raise their hand instead of shouting out. What are the stickers an example of?

a)

  positive reinforcement

b)

punishment

c)

  time out

d)

  negative reinforcement

79.

Sometimes when Jessica visits the bakery, the baker gives her a cookie, but only if they have been freshly baked. Which type of reinforcement schedule does this demonstrate?

a)

  partial reinforcement

b)

  fixed interval schedule

c)

  fixed ratio schedule

d)

  continuous reinforcement

80.

Mr. Washington is a physical education teacher. Whenever he is teaching a new sport he demonstrates the behavior for his students. What method of learning is Mr. Washington using?

a)

shaping

b)

  latent learning

c)

modeling

d)

insight

81.

Tolman's work with rats in mazes led to the discovery of _____.

a)

  social learning

b)

  observational learning

c)

  latent learning

d)

  classical conditioning

82.

Motivation is defined by psychologists as–

a)

  the cause of behavior.

b)

  an unlearned instinct.

c)

  an impulse to accomplish something of significance.

d)

  a need or desire that energizes and directs behavior towards a goal.

83.

It is characteristic of bears to hibernates. What is this behavior is an example of?

a)

  an instinct

b)

  an incentive

c)

homeostasis

d)

  intrinsic motivation

84.

What is an aroused or activated state that is often triggered by physiological need?

a)

  a reflex

b)

  an incentive

c)

  a drive

d)

  an instinct

85.

Which of the following best describes homeostasis?

a)

  A desire to perform a behavior for one’s own sake.

b)

  The body’s tendency to maintain a constant internal state.

c)

  The body's tendency to maintain a fixed weight.

d)

  An unlearned, complex behavior.

86.

According to Maslow, our need for _____ must be met before we are prompted to satisfy our need for _____.

a)

  love; food

b)

  self-actualization; self esteem

c)

  adequate clothing; self esteem

d)

  shelter; food

87.

The level of serotonin in the brain is _____ by a diet high in _____.

a)

  Increased; carbohydrates

b)

  Decreased; salt

c)

  Decreased; protein

d)

  Increased; proteins

88.

The brain structure that detects sex hormone levels and activates sexual arousal is the–

a)

cerebellum

b)

amygdala

c)

  hypothalamus

d)

medulla

89.

Ted is an amateur golfer who has a high need for achievement. According to Yerkes and Dodson, Ted most likely prefers playing golf on courses that for him are–

a)

  excessively time consuming.

b)

  extremely easy.

c)

  extremely difficult.

d)

  moderately difficult.

90.

Theory Y managers are more likely than Theory X managers to assume that employee are motivated by a–

a)

  fear of losing their jobs.

b)

  need for self esteem.

c)

  desire for higher wages.

d)

  desire for safer working conditions.

91.

Tanya wants to win the spelling bee because the first place winner gets a trophy. What type of motivation is Tanya exhibiting?

a)

  social motivation

b)

  hunger motivation

c)

  incentive motivation

d)

  intrinsic motivation

92.

Contemporary psychologists would agree that the basic components of emotion are –

a)

  general arousal and cognitive label.

b)

  expressive behaviors, physiological arousal, and conscious experience.

c)

  bodily responses.

d)

  bodily responses and subjective experience.

93.

The fact that facial expressions of emotion tend to intensify the experience of emotion serves to support the–

a)

  Yerkes-Dodson law.

b)

  James-Lange theory.

c)

  Schachter-Singer theory.

d)

  Cannon- Bard theory.

94.

Which theory would support that you would be able to experience emotion in the absence of any sympathetic nervous arousal?

a)

  Cannon-Bard theory

b)

  Schacter-Singer theory

c)

  Yerkes-Dodson law

d)

  James-Lange theory

95.

In the Schachter and Singer experiment, subjects were injected with epinephrine prior to spending time with a person who acted either euphoric or irritated. Which individuals in this experiment were least likely to experience the emotion demonstrated by the experimenter's accomplice?

a)

  Only those who experienced irritation.

b)

  Those that were told that the injection would not work.

c)

  Those who were not told about the effects of the injection.

d)

  Only those who experienced euphoria.

96.

A hormone that increases heart rate, blood pressure, and blood sugar levels in times of emergency is–

a)

  acetylcholine

b)

epinephrine

c)

insulin

d)

testosterone

97.

Though Donald was in a bad mood, a peer made a joke that made him smile. As he continued to smile, his mood began to change. This reaction is best described by–

a)

  the facial feedback effect.

b)

  the Garcia effect.

c)

  tend and befriend response.

d)

  Schachter-Singer theory.

98.

Lucille went to a local restaurant and ate under cooked chicken which led to food poisoning. Several weeks later when she went back to the restaurant she felt nausea as soon as she smelled the chicken. Which of the following best describes her reaction?

a)

  Cannon-Bard theory

b)

  the sympathetic nervous system

c)

  the parasympathetic nervous system

d)

  the Garcia effect

99.

What does a polygraph measure?

a)

  truth

b)

  facial expressions

c)

  nonverbal gestures

d)

  physiological arousal

100.

Which of the following is an example of cognitive appraisal?

a)

  Thomas is scared while walking down a dark alley.

b)

  Thomas is happy as he remembers his favorite pet dog.

c)

  Thomas labels the arousal he is feeling as attraction, in the presence of a pretty woman.

d)

  Thomas is frustrated because traffic made him late to work.

101.

A perceived control over a stressful event tends to result in–

a)

  less reported stress.

b)

  higher heart and respiration rates.

c)

  more motivation to solve the problem.

d)

  more frustration regarding the stressful event.

102.

What was the purpose of the creation of the Stanford-Binet test?

a)

  To assess the motivation of the child.

b)

  To distinguish between academic and practical skills.

c)

  To assess the likelihood for particular careers.

d)

  To identify children that likely have a difficulty learning in schools.

103.

Which of the following best defines intelligence?

a)

  An inherited trait to perform well on tests.

b)

  A drive to perform well in front of others.

c)

  An ability to learn from experience.

d)

  An ability to express and understand emotions.

104.

George takes a test in the army to see if he would make a good engineer. This type of test is called–

a)

  an aptitude test.

b)

  a Stanford-Binet test.

c)

  an achievement test.

d)

  .an IQ test

105.

Kathy does has average grades at school, but excels at tending to her family's farm. She is especially good at growing plants and herbs. Which theory would argue that Kathy's ability to tend plants is an intelligence?

a)

  Spearman's general intelligence

b)

  Goleman's emotional intelligence

c)

  Gardner's theory of multiple intelligences

106.

Joshua has limited intellectual abilities and has difficulty socializing with other children his age, but he has a remarkable talent for playing the piano. Joshua most likely has–

a)

  fluid intelligence.

b)

  emotional intelligence.

c)

  Downs syndrome.

d)

  savant syndrome.

107.

If a test that is administered to a sample representative group gets similar results as the a group a few weeks later, then the test is considered to be–.

a)

  standardized.

b)

  valid.

c)

  reliable.

d)

  predictable.

108.

Spearman's g factor refers to–

a)

  a general underlying intelligence.

b)

  accumulated knowledge.

c)

  a highly developed skill.

d)

  aptitude for a career.

109.

Which of the following best describes the components of Sternberg's triarchic theory?

a)

  perceiving, understanding, and managing emotions

b)

  linguistic, interpersonal, and intrapersonal

c)

  word fluency, verbal comprehension, and perceptual speed

d)

  analytical, practical, and creative

110.

Which of the following best describes the purpose of the aptitude test?

a)

  To identify clusters of related items on a test.

b)

  To predict an individual’s ability to learn particular skills.

c)

  To measure skills or knowledge of a particular topic.

d)

  To test a pool of items and then select those that discriminate between groups

111.

Which of the following scores would a person with average intelligence most score on the WAIS test?

a)

140

b)

120

c)

70

d)

100

112.

Which of the following best defines personality?

a)

  enduring patterns of thoughts, behaviors, and attitudes

b)

  there are 16 personality types

c)

  a single defining trait

d)

  all people are divided between Type A and Type B personalities

113.

According to Freud, during the period between age 6 and puberty, children–

a)

  experience very little sexual interest.

b)

  direct their sexual interest toward their opposite-sex parent.t

c)

  experience intense sexual feelings for peers of both sexes.

d)

  direct their sexual interest towards their mouth.

114.

Parents who disguise hostility toward their children by becoming overly protective of them are very likely using the defense mechanism of–

a)

  reaction formation.

b)

  sublimation.

c)

  repression.

d)

  rationalization.

115.

Montgomery was asked by his psychotherapist to look at some ambiguous pictures and make up a story about each. Mr. Montgomery was most likely taking the–

a)

  Rorshach inkblot test.

b)

  Stanford-Binet test.

c)

  MMPI-2.

d)

  thematic apperception test.

116.

Neo-Freudian personality theorists were most likely to disagree with Freud about the importance of–

a)

  the unconscious dynamics underlying behavior.

b)

  anxiety and defense mechanisms.

c)

  childhood sexual instincts.

d)

  distinguishing between id, ego, and superego.

117.

Projective tests such as the Rorschach inkblot test has been criticized because–

a)

  they were standardized with unrepresentative samples.

b)

  they have low reliability and low validity.

c)

  it is easy for people to fake answers in order to appear healthy.

d)

  their scoring system is too rigid and leads to unfair labeling.

118.

They Myers-Briggs Type Indicator classifies people according to personality types identified by–

a)

  Gordon Allport.

b)

  Sigmund Freud.

c)

  Carl Jung.

d)

  Albert Bandura.

119.

Coretta is quiet, pessimistic, anxious, and moody. In terms of Eysenck’s basic personality dimensions she would be classified as–

a)

  manic-depressive.

b)

  unstable-introverted.

c)

  internal-impulsive.

d)

  external-dependent.

120.

Abraham Maslow studied the lives of Abraham Lincoln, Thomas Jefferson, and Eleanor Roosevelt in order to understand the nature of–

a)

  reciprocal determinism.

b)

  personality traits.

c)

  unconditional positive regard.

d)

  self-actualization.

121.

The perception that one’s fate is determined by luck reflects which of the following?

a)

  the Barnum effect

b)

  reciprocal determinism

c)

  internal locus of control

d)

  external locus of control

122.

Mr. Vale is frustrated because he cannot find his hammer and only needs to hammer one nail. He overlooks the fact that he can use an old trophy sitting nearby due to–

a)

  availability heuristics.

b)

  functional fixedness.

c)

  trial and error.

d)

  representative heuristics.

123.

Derek had a difficult time understanding that a seahorse is a fish, because of his _____ of a fish.

a)

  algorithm

b)

insight

c)

  mental set

d)

prototype

124.

Even after being shown dinosaur fossils, Ingrid refused to believe that dinosaurs ever existed. This is an example of–

a)

  overconfidence.

b)

  belief perserverance.

c)

  framing.

d)

  fixation.

125.

John was walking down the street when he suddenly understood a joke that was told to him earlier that day. This is an example of–

a)

  trial and error.

b)

  insight.

c)

  algorithms.

d)

  heuristics.

126.

Which psychology field studies how we think?

a)

  social psychology

b)

  cognitive psychology

c)

  Industrial-Organizational psychology

d)

  behavioral psychology

127.

A computer's hard drive mimics the brain's –

a)

  hearing.

b)

  processing speed.

c)

  memory.

d)

  sight.

128.

Elizabeth was suffering from symptoms associated with pregnancy, and concluded that she was pregnant, even though she actually had the flu. Elizabeth's readiness to assume she was pregnant illustrates the influence of –

a)

  a representative heuristic.

b)

  an availability heuristic.

c)

  functional fixedness.

d)

  an algorithm.

129.

Which of the following is the best example of the use of an availability heuristic?

a)

  Janet is quiet, shy, and wears glasses, many people assume she is a librarian, when actually she is a race car driver.

b)

  Maria is Latina, so most people assume she speaks Spanish.

c)

  Marcus is over six feet tall, so many people think he is a basketball player, and he actually is.

d)

  Insurance companies have people imagine their house on fire to encourage insurance sales.

130.

Labeling a product "75% lean" rather than "25% fat" might change sales due to–

a)

  fixation.

b)

  availability heuristic.

c)

  representative heuristic.

d)

  framing.

131.

Natasha tried putting a puzzle together, but kept trying to put the same piece in the wrong spot. This is an example of–

a)

  functional fixedness.

b)

  fixation.

c)

  insight.

d)

  mental set.

132.

Morphemes are–

a)

  the smallest distinct sound unit.

b)

  individual letters.

c)

  the set of rules by which we derive meaning.

d)

  the smallest unit of speech that carries meaning.

133.

Grammar consists of two parts; _____ & _____.

a)

  phonemes & morphemes

b)

  semantics & morphemes

c)

  semantics & syntax

d)

  phonemes & syntax

134.

Children first begin to use sounds to communicate meaning during the _____ stage.

a)

telegraphic

b)

babbling

c)

  one-word

d)

  two-word

135.

Which of the following would be most characteristic of a two year old?

a)

  Give me a banana to eat.

b)

  na-na

c)

  eat banana

d)

  I would like a banana, please.

136.

Beatrice and Allen Gardner taught Washoe, a chimpanzee, to communicate by–

a)

writing

b)

  morse code.

c)

  sign language.

d)

  universal facial expressions.

137.

Whorf's linguistic relativity hypothesis emphasizes that–

a)

  infancy is a critical period for language development.

b)

  language includes gestures, vocal communication, and facial expressions.

c)

  language determines how we think.

d)

  language includes phonemes, morphemes, and grammar.

138.

Which of the following best defines language?

a)

  Language is vocal expression.

b)

  Language includes phonemes, morphemes, and grammar.

c)

  Language includes gestures, vocal communication, and facial expressions.

d)

  Language includes syntax and semantics.

139.

Which of the following best describes Chomsky's view of language development?

a)

  Language determines how we think.

b)

  Infancy is a critical period for language development.

c)

  Humans are biologically predisposed to acquire language.

d)

  Humans are biologically predisposed to acquire language.

140.

A person who uses "he" instead of "she" when referring to a stranger, is most likely–

a)

  a cognitive psychologist.

b)

  a man.

c)

  a linguist.

d)

  a woman.

141.

Which type of psychologist would most likely argue that language is developed through positive and negative reinforcements?

a)

  social psychologist

b)

  cognitive psychologist

c)

  behavioral psychologist

d)

  developmental psychologist

142.

A flashbulb memory is most likely stored in the _____ memory.

a)

  short-term

b)

  long-term

c)

  iconic memory

d)

  sensory memory

143.

Amber closes her eyes after staring at her phone, but can still see the image of her phone for about a second. This is due to her _____ memory.

a)

iconic

b)

echoic

c)

hepatic

d)

  long-term

144.

Dan is in an accident and has trauma to his brain. He can no longer remember faces of people he knew. Which part of his brain was most likely damaged?

a)

  Broca's area

b)

amygdala

c)

hippocampus

d)

medulla

145.

Which type of memory holds sensations accurately for about a second?

a)

  long-term memory

b)

  recognition

c)

  short-term memory

d)

  sensory memory

146.

Jane keeps putting in her old password on her laptop whenever she logs in. The fact that the old password is interfering with storing the new password in known as–

a)

  retrograde amnesia.

b)

  retroactive interference.

c)

  anterograde amnesia.

d)

  proactive interference.

147.

Arnold is asked the name of his favorite song by The Beatles, but he cannot remember it, but attempts several times to mention it because he feels like he is just about to remember it. What is this phenomenon is this?

a)

  proactive interference

b)

  retrograde amnesia

c)

  short-term memory

d)

  tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon

148.

Which of the following best defines memory?

a)

  The processing of briefly stored information.

b)

  The persistence of learning over time through the storage and retrieval of information.

c)

  Retention without conscious recollection.

d)

  A momentary sensory memory of visual stimuli.

149.

Recall is a more difficult process than recognition because–

a)

  recognition matches with something already in the memory.

b)

  recall is more affected by mood.

c)

  recognition involves learning material for a second time.

d)

  flashbulb memory is harder to retain.

150.

The process of encoding includes–

a)

  putting information into the brain.

b)

  misattribution

c)

forgetting

d)

  absent-mindedness

151.

Which of the following is an example of a retrieval failure?

a)

relearning

b)

  mood congruencies

c)

misinformation

d)

  mnemonic devices

152.

Which of the following best defines stress?

a)

  A person observes a situation as threatening or overwhelming and reacts to it.

b)

  Catastrophes such as war or natural disasters take place.

c)

  Significant life events, such as death or being fired, happen.

d)

  The body's flight or fight system is triggered.

153.

John is walking across the street when he looks up and sees a car coming right at him. Which of the following responses would be triggered to aid John in this situation?

a)

  resistance stage

b)

  flight or fight response

c)

  exhaustion stage

d)

  peripheral nervous system

154.

Courtney has been studying for five different finals for a week. She has stayed up late every night. After she is finished taking all her finals, she begins to get sick with a cold. According to Selye, which stage of stress is Courtney?

a)

  stress reaction

b)

  alarm reaction

c)

  resistance stage

d)

  exhaustion stage

155.

According to Hans Selye the three stages of stress are ordered as–

a)

  exhaustion, resistance, and alarm reaction.

b)

  alarm reaction, resistance, and exhaustion.

c)

  alarm reaction and exhaustion.

d)

  resistance, alarm reaction, and exhaustion.

156.

People who score very high on the social readjustment rating scale are more likely to have _____ that a person with a low score.

a)

  more anxiety

b)

  more stress related diseases

c)

  less stress related diseases

d)

  less anxiety

157.

Which of the following are a possibility of consequences for prolonged excessive stress?

a)

schizophrenia

b)

  Parkinson's disease

c)

depression

d)

  Alzheimer's disease

158.

Whether a person perceives a stressful situation as either threatening or a challenge is called–

a)

  stressor.

b)

  secondary appraisal.

c)

  stress.

d)

  exhaustion.

159.

Jacob begins to sweat and his heart races as his teacher hands him his test. Which of the following best describes Jacob's stage of stress?

a)

  alarm reaction

b)

  resistance stage

c)

  exhaustion stage

d)

  stress reaction

160.

Stressors are considered to be–

a)

  life events, such as divorce and death, and catastrophes.

b)

  daily hassles, catastrophes, and life events.

c)

  daily hassles, such as traffic and running errands.

d)

  catastrophes, such as war and natural disasters.

161.

Which of the following is an example of stress?

a)

  John is tense and anxious about an upcoming driving test.

b)

  Danny is assigned homework in his English class.

c)

  Kayla has to pay $10 for her lunch.

d)

  Melissa finds out she got a perfect score on her math test.

162.

Which of the following is the most common type of disorder?

a)

  dissociative identity disorder

b)

  bipolar disorder

c)

  schizophrenia

d)

depression

163.

Erin regularly experiences states of depression that last about a month, following by episodes of extremely excited, manic thoughts. Which disorder is Erin exhibiting symptoms of?

a)

  major depressive disorder

b)

  borderline personality disorder

c)

schizophrenia

d)

  bipolar disorder

164.

Mike has just returned from war and now has episodes where he hallucinates being back in battle. Which disorder does Mike most likely suffer from?

a)

schizophrenia

b)

  narcissistic personality disorder

c)

  attention deficit disorder

d)

  post traumatic stress disorder

165.

Which of the following best describes symptoms of narcissistic personality disorder?

a)

  An exaggerated sense of one’s own value and self-importance.

b)

  Persistent suspiciousness marked by a chronic sense of being observed and persecuted.

c)

  A few minutes-long episode of intense dead in which a person experiences terror and accompanying chest pain, choking, or other frightening sensations.

d)

  Persistent, irrational fear and avoidance of a specific object or situation.

166.

Julie has been experiencing auditory and visual hallucinations. She says that the government is spying on her and has become increasingly paranoid. Which disorder is Julie most likely showing symptoms of?

a)

schizophrenia

b)

  bipolar disorder

c)

  post traumatic stress disorder

d)

hypocondriasis

167.

David Rosenhan's study in mental hospitals shed light on the issue of–

a)

  the credibility of hypnosis as treatment.

b)

  labeling people's behavior as disorders.

c)

  the reliability of psychoanalysis as treatment.

d)

  the use of drugs to treat disorders.

168.

Tyler is 12 years old and has uncontrollable tics in which he shouts inappropriate words. Tyler most likely has–

a)

  bipolar disorder.

b)

  dissociative fugue.

c)

  panic disorder.

d)

  Tourette's syndrome.

169.

Which of the following best defines a psychological disorder?

a)

  A dysfunction in which behavior is judged to be atypical, disturbing, maladaptive, and unjustifiable.

b)

  A psychological disorders characterized by inflexible and enduring behavior patterns that impair social functioning.

c)

  An emotionally charged, confiding interaction between a trained therapist and someone who suffers from psychological difficulties.

d)

  A disorder in which a person loses contact with reality, experiencing irrational ideas and distorted perceptions.

170.

Somatoform disorders are ones marked with physical symptoms but no apparent physical cause. Which of the following is a type of somatoform disorder?

a)

  post traumatic stress disorder

b)

  bipolar disorder

c)

  conversion disorder

d)

  histrionic disorder

171.

Which of the following is a defining characteristic of antisocial personality disorder?

a)

  lack of conscience

b)

  unexplained physical symptoms

c)

  mood swings

d)

  hallucinations

172.

Which type of therapist is most likely to interpret a client's dreams?

a)

  cognitive-behavioral

b)

psychoanalytic

c)

behaviorist

d)

humanistic

173.

Brianna has a therapy session where her therapist has her use virtual reality for gradually longer periods of time to help with her agoraphobia, the fear of going out in public. Which technique is her therapist using?

a)

antipsychotics

b)

  client centered therapy

c)

  systematic desensitization

d)

  family therapy

174.

Donald attends a therapy session with eight other fathers who lost a child to drug abuse. Each member takes a turn discussing how they feel. Which type of therapy is he attending?

a)

  group therapy

b)

  aversive conditioning

c)

  cognitive-behavioral therapy

d)

  antianxiety drugs

175.

A side effect of long term use of antipsychotics, which produces tics, is called–

a)

  manic episode.

b)

  systematic desensitization.

c)

  seasonal affective disorder.

d)

  tardive dyskinesia.

176.

A therapist who uses aversive conditioning, cognitive therapy, and psychoanalysis with a given client is using the _____ approach.

a)

eclectic

b)

humanistic

c)

cognitive

d)

behavioral

177.

Which technique did humanistic psychologist, Carl Rogers, utilize to develop trust and self esteem in his clients?

a)

  aversive conditioning

b)

  unconditional positive regard

c)

  group therapy

d)

  electro-convulsive therapy

178.

Which type of therapy would be most likely to use a token economy?

a)

  group therapy

b)

  behavioral therapy

c)

  client-centered therapy

d)

  psychosurgery

179.

Which therapeutic approach emphasizes that people are often troubled by irrational interpretations of events?

a)

  humanistic approach

b)

  cognitive approach

c)

psychoanalysis

d)

  behavioral approach

180.

Which treatment involves a surgery which removes the connection between the prefrontal cortex and the frontal lobe?

a)

EMDR

b)

  light therapy

c)

ECT

d)

psychosurgery

181.

Psychopharmacology involves the study of how–

a)

  thoughts influence behavior.

b)

  drugs affect thoughts and behavior.

c)

  childhood experiences impact thoughts and behaviors.

d)

  diseases influence psychological well being.

182.

Jessica sees two teenagers racing down the sidewalk and assumes they are running from trouble because they are bad kids. Jessica's assumption that the teenager's were bad kids is known as the–

a)

  attribution theory.

b)

  fundamental attribution error.

c)

  peripheral route to persuasion.

d)

  central route to persuasion.

183.

The theory that we act to reduce the discomfort  we feel when two of our thoughts are inconsistent is known as–

a)

  attribution theory.

b)

  peripheral route to persuasion.

c)

  central route to persuasion.

d)

  cognitive dissonance theory.

184.

Which of the following describes a belief and feeling that predisposes one to respond in a particular way to objects, people, and events?

a)

  fundamental attribution error

b)

discrimination

c)

bias

d)

  attitude

185.

Marsha asks her little sister to go get her a glass of water. When her little sister returns with the water, Marsha asks her to then get her a snack. Marsha's little sister's willingness to comply with her sister's request is known as–

a)

  the cognitive dissonance theory.

b)

  the foot-in-the-door phenomenon.

c)

  a fundamental attribution error.

d)

  the central route to persuasion.

186.

Which of the following is an example of a social script?

a)

  Manuel brings a present to his cousin's birthday party.

b)

  Sarah shakes her new boss' hand when she meets her.

c)

  Mark and his wife are expecting a son.

d)

  Darla goes to the grocery store, puts food in her cart, and pays for her food in line.

187.

Which of the following is an example of a social role?

a)

  Ruth stands a reasonable distance from the person in front of her in line.

b)

  Miranda makes direct eye contact when her boss is talking to her.

c)

  Jerry listens to a friend's joke and then laughs.

d)

  Samantha is a soon to be bride.

188.

A toothpaste business uses facts about how the product helps prevent diseases. The business has chosen the–

a)

  central route to persuasion.

b)

  peripheral route to persuasion.

c)

  foot-in-the-door phenomenon.

d)

  cognitive dissonance.

189.

The theory that we tend to give a causal explanation for someone’s behavior, often by crediting either the situation or the person’s disposition is known as–

a)

  foot-in-the-door phenomenon.

b)

  social script.

c)

  social norm.

d)

  attribution theory.

190.

Which of the following best represents a culture which puts value on harmonious relationships over competition?

a)

  an individualistic culture

b)

  a familiar culture

c)

  a collectivist culture

d)

  a foreign culture

191.

Aggression always involves–

a)

  psychological harm.

b)

  the intent to harm.

c)

  physical harm.

d)

  anger and hostility.

192.

Which of the following is an example of altruism?

a)

  David prefers to walk in the park than go to the movies.

b)

  Samuel spends his Saturday afternoon repairing others' houses for free.

c)

  Javier goes to his best friend's party instead of his aunt's birthday party.

d)

  Jane gets paid to clean up the mall parking lot.

193.

Keith is a college freshman, majoring in mathematics, who has just moved into a dormitory. Keith is most likely to become friends with–

a)

  James, a quiet sophomore who lives in the dormitory down the street.

b)

  Bill, his assigned roommate, who is an engineering major.

c)

  Jill, a freshman theater major, who lives off campus.

d)

  Alphonso, a graduate student, who used to live in the same dorm as Keith.

194.

Which of the following expressions is best supported by research on social attraction?

a)

  You can't live with them, you can't live without them.

b)

  Absence makes the heart grow fonder.

c)

  Birds of a feather flock together.

d)

  Familiarity breeds contempt.

195.

Claire has been in the all the same classes as another classmate, Jordan. After several months and sitting next to Jordan in every class, Claire begins to develop a crush. Which of the following factors most likely influenced her attraction?

a)

similarity

b)

proximity

c)

  intellectual abilities

d)

  physical attractiveness

196.

The tragic murder of Kitty Genovese outside her New York apartment stimulated research on _____.

a)

conformity

b)

  physical attractiveness

c)

  mere-exposure effect

d)

altruism

197.

 When Marla repeatedly exposed to the same song on the radio, she begins to like it more and more. What is this effect known as?

a)

conformity

b)

  social loafing

c)

  social facilitation

d)

  mere exposure effect

198.

Monica and Nathaniel are on a blind date. Which factor is most likely to influence their first impressions of whether they like each other?

a)

similarity

b)

  physical attractiveness

c)

proximity

d)

  beliefs

199.

Nancy is unhappy with her relationship with her boyfriend. She feels like she always listens when he talks, but he doesn't listen when she is talking. Nancy issue is with–

a)

  physical attractiveness

b)

proximity

c)

  similar interests

d)

  reciprocity

200.

Which of the following describes self disclosure?

a)

  Influence resulting from one’s willingness to accept other’ opinions about reality.

b)

  Patterns of behavior that is expected of a person in a given setting or group.

c)

  Revealing intimate details about your life to someone else.

d)

  The tendency for people to believe the world is just and people get what they deserve.

201.

Andrew is a college sophomore majoring in engineering. Most of his friends are also engineering majors, but they mostly are seniors. Which factor most likely attributed to their friendship?

a)

proximity

b)

  mere exposure effect

c)

  physical attractiveness

d)

  similar interests