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Q.E REVIEWER PART 2

Total questions: 81

Worksheet time: 41mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

an attempt at character reading through the pattern of fingerprints.

a)

Dactyloscopy

b)

Dactylography

c)

Dactylomancy

d)

Poroscopy

2.

scientific examination of the palm of the hand

a)

Chriroscopy

b)

Podoscopy

c)

Poroscopy

d)

Dactyloscopy

3.

the earliest and simplest single lens microscope.

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Maybe

d)

None of the above

4.

carry respiratory gases and give it its red color because they contain hemoglobin - an iron-containing protein that binds oxygen in the lungs and transport it too tissues in the body

a)

Red Blood Cell

b)

White Blood Cell

c)

Plasma

d)

Saliva

5.

is the remaining pale-yellowish liquid when the clotted material where removed from the blood.

a)

Antigen

b)

Antibodies

c)

Serum

d)

None of the above

6.

defined as substances recognized by the body to produce an antibody to react specially to it

a)

Antigens

b)

Antibodies

c)

Serum

d)

None of the above

7.

It is an area or vicinity of occurrence of physical evidence.

a)

Crime Scene

b)

Venue

c)

Juriadiction

d)

Place

8.

He is the father of Criminalistics

a)

Cesare Lombroso

b)

Hans Gross

c)

Sherlock Holmes

d)

Alphonse Bertillion

9.

It is a small, homogenous (same throughout) sample whose composition is representative of the larger/ real object.

a)

Sampling

b)

Sample

c)

Probability Sampling

d)

Non-Probability Sampling

10.

ensures that the sampling scheme is developed in such a manner that will yield samples that are highly indicative of the properties in the bulk ensemble.

a)

Probability Sampling

b)

Sample

c)

Non-Probability Sampling

d)

Non-Sample

11.

He is considered as the Father of Forensic Science.

a)

Sherlock Holmes

b)

Dr. Hans Gross

c)

Edmund Locard

d)

Edward Ford

12.

Subacute Exposure involves repeated daily exposure of the animal to the chemical for less than one month (usually 21 days) by a specific route.

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Maybe

d)

None of the above

13.

It is a science which deals with the study of the dosage of medicine to be administered within a certain period.

a)

Posology

b)

Toxicology

c)

Cathartics

d)

None of the above

14.

involves in decisions, based on data provided by descriptive and mechanistic toxicology, whether a chemical poses a sufficiency low risk capable for consumers for stated purposes.

a)

Mechanistic Toxicology

b)

Regulatory Toxicology

c)

Descriptive Toxicology

d)

Forensic Toxicology

15.

It is the use of toxicology to aid medico-legal investigation of death and poisoning.

a)

Forensic Chemistry

b)

Forensic Toxicology

c)

Descriptive Toxicology

d)

Regulatory Toxicology

16.

high alcoholic content

a)

Fermented

b)

Wine

c)

Distilled

d)

None of the above

17.

Evidence that obtained from an examination of the tissues and organs after death. There are many poisons, however, that do not produce characteristic findings. In addition, the findings may be the same as those produced by diseases.

a)

Circumstantial Evidence

b)

Postmortem Evidence

c)

Chemical Evidence

d)

Circumstantial or Moral Evidence

18.

this include the symptoms observed during the poisoning. This is not conclusive for some diseases may present similar symptoms as those of poisoning.

a)

Circumstantial or Moral Evidence

b)

Symptomatic Evidence

c)

Chemical Evidence

d)

Material Evidence

19.

Refers to the specific kind of alcohol normally diluted with water and consumed as beverages.

a)

Toxin

b)

Alcohol

c)

Ethanol

d)

None of the above

20.

German-Swiss physician/ alchemist and Father of Modern Toxicology. The first one who studied chemical nature of poison and introduce dose concept.

a)

Hans Gross

b)

Paracelcus

c)

Prof. Mattheiu Orfilia

d)

Edmund Locard

21.

policemen shall recognize the fact that they are public servants and not the masters of the people and toward this end, they should perform their duties without arrogance.

a)

Morality

b)

Moral

c)

Humility

d)

Honesty

22.

policemen shall perform their duties with devotion, and manifest concern for public welfare, and shall refrain from engaging in any activity which shall be in conflict with their duties as public servants.

a)

Devotion to Duty

b)

Obedience to Superior

c)

Proper Care and Use of Public Property

d)

None of the above

23.

this is to be considered part of po lice working environment, like for example in a discreet operation.

a)

Brutality

b)

Deviant Lying

c)

Accepted Lying

d)

None of the above

24.

These policemen are straightforward fellow.

a)

Straight Shooters

b)

White Knight

c)

Deviant Lying

d)

Accepted Lying

25.

trainees' obedience to legal orders is indispensable in undergoing the training.

a)

Response to Training

b)

Determination

c)

Ability to Rise when fall

d)

Both A & B

26.

It is the omission of some act, which ought to be performed. It is the omission or refusal without sufficient excuse, to perform an act or duty, which as a peace officer's legal obligation to perform.

a)

Nonfeasance

b)

Misfeasance

c)

Malfeasance

d)

None of the above

27.

It is the performance of some act which ought not to be done. It is the doing either through ignorance, inattention or malice, of that which the officer had no legal right to do at all, as when he acts without any authority whatsoever, or exceeds, ignores, or abuses his powers.

a)

Nonfeasance

b)

Misfeasance

c)

Malfeasance

d)

None of the above

28.

It is said to be the backbone of the police unit.

a)

Traffic Control

b)

Patrol

c)

Investigation

d)

None of the above

29.

values and standards are written into the legal systems and enforceable in the courts.

a)

Domain of Codified Law

b)

Domain of Ethics

c)

Domain of Free Choice

d)

Chain of Domain

30.

"RES NULLIUS" means:

a)

Things speaks for itself

b)

For the greater good of the many

c)

A thing without an owner

d)

None of the above

31.

A threat of sensitive information which intercepting from two lines.

a)

Telephone Eavesdropping

b)

Wire Tapping

c)

Eavesdropping

d)

Pen Register

32.

He shall know the location of the alarm box near his post and sound alarm in case of fire or disorder.

a)

Code of Conduct 5

b)

Code of Conduct 4

c)

Code of Conduct 3

d)

Code of Conduct 6

33.

To call the superior in any case not covered by the instructions.

a)

General Order 8

b)

General Order 9

c)

General Order 10

d)

General Order 11

34.

shall be responsible for inspecting the entire area covered by the detachment.

a)

Security Guard

b)

Chief Inspector

c)

Inspector

d)

all of the above

35.

This part of security plan will explain the historical background of the organization of its security picture.

a)

Situation

b)

Mission

c)

Execution

d)

Administration and Logistics

36.

It is the process of conducting a physical examination and thorough inspection of all operation system and procedures of a facility.

a)

Security Training

b)

Security Inspection

c)

Security Survey

d)

None of the above

37.

A threat of sensitive information which unauthorized listening

a)

Telephone Eavesdropping

b)

Eavesdropping

c)

Wire Taping

d)

Bugging

38.

A medium or structures which define the physical limits of an installation or area to restrict or impede access thereto.

a)

Perimeter Barrier

b)

Building Exterior

c)

Structural Barrier

d)

Human Barrier

39.

an electrical or electronic devises used to provide assistance to guard personnel like lighting and alarm system.

a)

Structural Barrier

b)

Natural Barrier

c)

Energy Barrier

d)

Human Barrier

40.

Any structure capable of restricting, deterring, delaying illegal access to an installation.

a)

Barrier

b)

Fence

c)

Security

d)

All of the above

41.

is the first line in the defense to detect an intruder.

a)

Space Protection

b)

Perimeter Protection

c)

Spot Protection

d)

None of the above

42.

This is common type consisting of series of fixed luminaries to light given area continuously

a)

Emergency Lightning

b)

Movable Lightning

c)

Stationary Luminary

d)

Standby Lightning

43.

This pertains to the channel of communication needed when implementing the project until in full operation.

a)

Situation

b)

Mission

c)

Execution

d)

Command and Signal

44.

It is the process of conducting physical examination to determine compliance with establishment security policies

a)

Security Inspection

b)

Security Survey

c)

Security Training

d)

Security Personnel

45.

responsible for the security officer who is scheduled in a certain shift for the particular period.

a)

Shift in Charge

b)

Security Guard

c)

Security Inspector

d)

Security Guard 2

46.

This type of protective alarm that place on the floor in such a position that teller may activate the alarm by placing in front of their foot to engage the activation bar.

a)

Bail Trap

b)

Foot Rail Activator

c)

Knee Button

d)

Foot Button

47.

is a systematic program for gathering and analyzing information about the competitor's activities.

a)

Industrial Espionage

b)

Bugging

c)

Dial Number Recorder

d)

All of the above

48.

The sensitive information which relates to the status, operations and activities. In business and industry, it relates to the structure, products and methods of operations of the organization.

a)

Proprietary Information

b)

Trade Secret

c)

Operational Information

d)

Industrial Information

49.

is the work of a manager performs by arranging the work and the worker so as produce an effective and efficient performance.

a)

Planning

b)

Leading

c)

Organizing

d)

Controlling

50.

a line protection adjacent to protected area and passing through points of possible entry into the area such as doors, windows, tunnels

a)

Fence

b)

Outside Perimeter

c)

Inside Perimeter

d)

Solid Fence

51.

It is any systematic response to an unexpected or dangerous occurrence.

a)

Emergency Response

b)

Emergency Rescue

c)

Proper Response

d)

None of the above

52.

A police unit created primarily for the purpose of overseeing and enforcing traffic safety compliance on roads and highways, or a detail within an existing local or regional police agency that is primarily concerned with such duties.

a)

Highway Patrol

b)

Patrol

c)

Patrol Unit

d)

All of the above

53.

The word traffic originally meant.

a)

Trade

b)

Move

c)

Travel

d)

Pass

54.

The following choices are the advantage of Foot Patrol except:

a)

It can enter small alleys and side streets

b)

Investigating abandoned vehicles

c)

It provides closer observation of person and thing

d)

It maintain personal contact with citizen and developing community relations

55.

is used in checking residential building, business establishment, dark alley and parking lots.

a)

Fixed Foot Patrol

b)

Random Foot Patrol

c)

Line Beat Patrol

d)

Moving Foot Patrol

56.

is used when there is foot movement such as business, shopping center and family dwelling.

a)

Fixed Foot Patrol

b)

Moving Foot Patrol

c)

Line Beat Patrol

d)

Random Foot Patrol

57.

is used in securing certain portion of the road.

a)

Fixed Foot Patrol

b)

Moving Foot Patrol

c)

Line Beat Patrol

d)

Random Foot Patrol

58.

is used for traffic, surveillance, parades and special events.

a)

Fixed Foot Patrol

b)

Moving Foot Patrol

c)

Line Beat Patrol

d)

Random Foot Patrol

59.

is assigned to an area of crowded population such as downtown, heavy traffic congestion and other places.

a)

Foot Patrol

b)

Patrol

c)

Bicycle Patrol

d)

Motorcycle Patrol

60.

It created the POLCOM (Police Commission) as a supervisory agency to oversee the training and professionalization of the local police under the Officer of the President. Otherwise known as the Police Professionalization act of 1966, dated September 8, 1966. It was later renamed as the National Police Commission (NAPOLCOM).

a)

R.A 4864

b)

R.A 4865

c)

R.A 6448

d)

R.A 4486

61.

As an act that established the Integrated National Police (INP) composed of the PC as the nucleus and the Integrated local police forces as components, under the Ministry

a)

P.D 765

b)

P.D 675

c)

P.D 567

d)

None of the above

62.

In what date does the Act providing for the Organization and Government of an Insular Constabulary enacted?

a)

July 18 1901

b)

June 18 1901

c)

July 18 1910

d)

June 18 1910

63.

It is the forfeiture or loss of the right of the state to prosecute the offender after the lapse of a certain time.It is the forfeiture or loss of the right of the state to prosecute the offender after the lapse of a certain time.

a)

Prescription of the crime

b)

Prescription of the penalty

c)

Absolute Pardon

d)

Service of the sentence

64.

It looks forward and relieves the offender from the consequences of an offense of which he has been convicted.*

a)

Amnesty

b)

Pardon

c)

Commutation of Sentence

d)

Parole

65.

It is a single crime consisting of a series of acts arising from one criminal resolution, it is continuous, unlawful act or series of acts set on foot by a single impulse and operated by an unintermittent force however long a time it may occupy.

a)

Complex Crime Proper

b)

Compound Crime

c)

Composite Crime

d)

Continued Crime

66.

What is the duration of penalty if it is Prison correctional?

a)

20 years and 1 day to 40 years

b)

12 years and 1 day to 20 years

c)

6 years and 1 day to 12 years

d)

6 moths and 1 days to 6 years

67.

When an offense is a necessary means of committing the other

a)

Complex Crime Proper

b)

Compound Crime

c)

Composite Crime

d)

Continued Crime

68.

When a single act constitutes two or more grave or less grave felonies

a)

Complex Crime Proper

b)

Compound Crime

c)

Composite Crime

d)

Continued Crime

69.

Is the incarceration undergone by a person accused of a crime which is not bailable, or even if bailable, can not afford to post bond. During the trial of his case, he is detained in jail. He is called a detention prisoner.

a)

Preventive Imprisonment

b)

Subsidiary Imprisonment

c)

Temporary Imprisonment

d)

Provisional Imprisonment

70.

A legislative act which inflicts punishment without trial. Its essence is the substitution of a legislative act for a judicial determination of guilt.

a)

Pardon

b)

Bill of Attainder

c)

Ex Post Facto Law

d)

Legislative Prerogative

71.

Those who cooperate in the commission of the offense by another act without which it would not have been accomplished.

a)

Principals

b)

Accomplices

c)

Accessories

d)

Conspirator

72.

Is a circumstance pertaining to the moral order, which adds disgrace and obloquy to the material injury caused by the crime.

a)

Fraud

b)

Ignominy

c)

Cruelty

d)

Disguise

73.

When the offender commits any of the crime against the person, employing means, methods or forms in the execution thereof which tend directly and specially to insure its execution without risk to himself arising from the defense which the offended party might make.

a)

Evident Premeditation

b)

Craft

c)

Means be employed to weaken the defense

d)

Treachery

74.

One who the time of trial for one crime, shall have been previously convicted by final judgment of another crime embraced in the same title of the revised penal code.

a)

Reiteracion

b)

Habituality

c)

Recidivist

d)

Quasi-Recidivist

75.

Juan caught his wife and his friend in a compromising situation. Juan kills his friend the next day, what circumstances may consider?*

a)

Vindication of Grave Offense

b)

Passion and Obfuscation

c)

Exceptional Circumstance

d)

Aggravating because of evident premeditation

76.

The following does not admit of the frustrated stage except:*

a)

Rape

b)

Arson

c)

Physical Injury

d)

Homicide

77.

Hitting somebody other than the target due to lack of skill or fortuitous instances.

a)

Mistake of fact

b)

Mistake in identity of the victim

c)

Mistake in blow

d)

Praeter Intentionem

78.

Such crimes are triable in that country, unless they are merely affected things within the vessels or they refer to the internal management thereof.

a)

English Rule

b)

French Rule

c)

Canadian Rule

d)

Russian Rule

79.

Man is subdued occasionally by a strange and morbid phenomenon which conditions him to do wrong in spite of or contrary to his volition.

a)

Classical Theory

b)

Positivist Theory

c)

Eclectic or Mixed Philisophy

d)

Utilitarian Theory

80.

Generality of criminal law means that the criminal law of the country governs all persons within the country regardless of their race, belief, sex, or creed. However, it is subject to certain exceptions brought about by international agreement. The following are immune from the application of penal laws when they are in the country where they are assigned except:

a)

Ambassadors

b)

Chief of states

c)

Consuls

d)

Other diplomat officials

81.

What is the retirement age for PNP?

a)

60

b)

56

c)

55

d)

70