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Navigation book 3

Total questions: 92

Worksheet time: 2hrs 32mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What type of turbulence has not detectable associated phenomena?

a)

Clear air

b)

Convective

c)

Radiated

2.

C-band frequencies are in what range?

a)

4000-8000MHz

b)

8000-12500MHz

c)

2000-4000MHz

3.

X band frequencies are in what range?

a)

4000-8000MHz

b)

8000-12500MHz

c)

2000-4000MHz

4.

Precipitation scatters RF energy, speed of propagation of RF wave in known and RF can be channelled into hight directional beam are all principles of?

a)

Weather radar

b)

Radio Altimeter

c)

DME

5.

What will an increase in frequency do to the back scatter of a pulse weather radar?

a)

larger backscatter

b)

smaller backscatter

c)

same backscatter

6.

What type of beam width is always preferred in a weather radar system?

a)

Narrow

b)

Wide

c)

Single

7.

Stabilisation holds the beam with resect to where for the weather radar?

a)

Horizion

b)

Nose of aircraft

c)

No reference point

8.

What is the peak power in modern weather radars?

a)

10kW

b)

50kW

c)

100kW

9.

What type of beam width is always preferred since the net effect is to increase range and improve bearing resolution for weather radar?

a)

Narrow

b)

Thin

c)

Wide

10.

Which type of transfer of RF energy from antenna to receiver has a large surface area, low dielectric losses and radiation losses are negligible in weather radar systems?

a)

Coax cable

b)

Waveguides

c)

Two-wire lines

11.

What is a disadvantage of waveguides?

a)

Copper losses

b)

Practical only at high frequencies

c)

Radiation losses

12.

What frequency range are waveguides impractical below?

a)

1000 MHz

b)

2000 MHz

c)

3000 MHz

13.

The wide dimension of a waveguide called the 'a' dimension determines?

a)

Range of operating frequencies

b)

Power handling capabilities

c)

Current handling capabilities

14.

The narrow dimension is called the 'b' dimension of a waveguide which determines?

a)

Range of operating frequencies

b)

Power handing capabilities

c)

Current handing capabilities

15.

Where is the most efficient place to locate the probe in a waveguide for coupling?

a)

Centre of 'a' wall, parallel to 'b' wall and 1/4 λ from the shorted end of the waveguide

b)

Centre of 'b' wall, parallel to 'a' wall and 1/4 λ from the shorted end of the waveguide

c)

Centre of 'a' wall, parallel to 'b' wall and 1/2 λ from the shorted end of the waveguide

16.

Why are waveguides pressurised?

a)

Prevent ingress of dust and moisture

b)

Prevent temperature changes

c)

Increase lifespan

17.

What resistive load serves the purpose of absorbing all the energy in a waveguide without causing standing waves in a waveguide?

a)

Dummy load

b)

Capacitors

c)

Inductors

18.

The E bent of a waveguide must have a radius greater than what to prevent reflections?

a)

2 λ

b)

λ

c)

1/2 λ

19.

Why are power losses greater in flexible waveguides?

a)

Inner surfaces are not perfectly smooth

b)

Attenuation values are higher

c)

Larger internal reflection

20.

A waveguide joint where it must be taken apart for maintenance and repair, also known as a choke joint is called a?

a)

Semi-permanent

b)

Permanent

c)

Rotating joint

21.

Whenever a stationary rectangular waveguide is to be connected to a rotating antenna, what type of waveguide joint is used?

a)

Rotating joint

b)

Permanent

c)

Semi-permanent

22.

What is the benefit to having a ridge in a waveguide?

a)

Increase useful frequency range of waveguide (wider range and bandwidth)

b)

Less attenuation

c)

Increases use for longer length applications

23.

What is used for microwave transmission because conventional tubes are not practical at frequencies and power levels required for radar applications?

a)

Magnetrons

b)

Travelling wave tube

c)

Gunn diode

24.

What is used to produce a microwave frequency output within its enclosure without external use of component such as crystals, inductors, etc?

a)

Magnetrons

b)

Travelling wave tube

c)

Gunn diodes

25.

The primary use for the Travelling wave tube is?

a)

Voltage

b)

Current

c)

Resistance

26.

Which weather radar antenna has higher gain/narrower beam/least side lobe power but is most expensive?

a)

Flat plate planar

b)

Parabolic reflector

c)

Long wire

27.

The tilt control function of a weather radar permits tilt of?

a)

+/- 15 degrees

b)

+/- 25 degrees

c)

+/- 10 degrees

28.

What is the transmitter frequency of WRX R/T?

a)

9.3 GHz (X-band 8-12.5 GHz)

b)

6.3 GHz (C-band 4-8 GHz)

c)

10.3 GHz (X-band 8-12.5 GHz)

29.

What is the purpose of the duplexer in a WRX?

a)

Allows common aerial working, protecting the receiver

b)

Reduce the LO noise

c)

Initiates the start of the time base and gate waveforms

30.

What is a method for checking internal damage on a waveguide?

a)

Gently flexing the waveguide while listening and feeling for clicks

b)

Carrying out a X-ray scan

c)

Shining a UV light

31.

When checking the condition of a waveguide, what is the minimum requirements?

a)

No more than minor bends on H plane, radius of bends in E plane greater than 2 1/2 inch.

b)

No more than minor bends on E plane, radius of bends in H plane greater than 2 1/2 inch.

c)

No more than minor bends on E plane, radius of bends in H plane greater than 4 inch.

32.

If internal inspection using a probe light revels dirt or moisture on a waveguide, what can be used to clean it?

a)

Soft cloth or blowing out with air pressure line

b)

Wetting a cloth in an ethanol based solvent

c)

Blowing hot air to evaporate the moisture and remove the dirt

33.

If the filter on a waveguide is pink, what does this indicate?

a)

Filter is unserviceable

b)

Filter is serviceable

c)

Filter is past its expiry date

34.

When carrying out weather radar scanner inspection, what should be adhered to?

a)

The plate should not be turned directly by hand but through gearing.

b)

Heavily apply forward and backward movement to the edge of the dish in pitch directions

c)

Correct amount of lubrication is present on the gear mesh

35.

What is the maximum permissible exposure level of a WRX?

a)

10mW per square centimetre

b)

15mW per square centimetre

c)

5mW per square centimetre

36.

What is the distance and range of the maximum permissible exposure level of WRX?

a)

13.4 ft (4.03m) and 240 degrees

b)

6.5 ft (1.98m) and 240 degrees

c)

13.4 ft (4.03m) and 180 degrees

37.

What can affect the serviceability of a weather radar?

a)

Very strong returns if the radar is operated close to reflecting objects, burning out the receiver crystals

b)

Operating during refuelling or defueling

c)

Operating the antenna while on ground

38.

A rule to follow when operating weather radar is?

a)

Never transmit from a stationary scanner

b)

Do not operate with an open waveguide unless RF power is on

c)

Do not operate in open airspace on ground incase transmission may interfere with other systems

39.

A pair of beams pointing forwards and down, and another pair of beams pointing rearward and down in a doppler system is known as?

a)

Janus antenna system

b)

Doppler shift system

c)

Doppler navigation aid

40.

In a doppler system, if the aircraft is experiencing a strong cross wind, what will happen to the heading and track?

a)

They would be different

b)

Remain the same

c)

Heading would becoming invalid

41.

Doppler systems employ a rotating antenna. What direction will the antenna be pointing when in operation?

a)

Ground track of aircraft

b)

Heading of aircraft

c)

The drift angle of the aircraft

42.

How is stabilisation achieved in a doppler system to drive the antenna so as to equalise doppler shifts?

a)

Servo loops

b)

Rotating antennas

c)

Janus system

43.

Each line of equal doppler shift is called?

a)

Isodops

b)

Drift angle

c)

Vertical stabilisation

44.

What must the doppler antenna be aligned with for accuracy?

a)

Aircraft longitudinal axis

b)

Aircraft vertical axis

c)

Aircraft lateral axis

45.

What is use for the alignment procedure of a doppler antenna?

a)

sighting rods

b)

handheld compass

c)

tape measure

46.

Which RADALT system determines height by measuring the time delay between the transmission of a pulse and its reception back at the aircraft after reflection from the surface of the earth?

a)

Pulsed system

b)

Frequency modulated continuous wave system

c)

Filtering system

47.

Airline RADALT systems measure up to what height and power output?

a)

2500ft, 5W

b)

5000ft, 100W

c)

1500ft, 2W

48.

What is the frequency operation of RADALT?

a)

4.3 GHz

b)

3.4GHz

c)

2.4GHz

49.

What distance apart should RADALT antennas be spaced?

a)

0.6-2m

b)

0.2-1m

c)

1.2-3m

50.

What will happen to the RADALT indicator if radar altitude is lost?

a)

Energise fail flag

b)

Transmitter and receiver will turn off

c)

Circuit breaker will pop

51.

What is the accuracy of a radio altimeter?

a)

-20ft to to 500ft, greater of +/- 2ft or 2%

b)

Above 500ft, +/- 10% of altitude

c)

-20ft to to 500ft, greater of +/- 2ft or 4%

52.

What is the tolerance of the transmission line for RADALT?

a)

+/- 1 inch

b)

+/- 2 inch

c)

+/- 3 inch

53.

On a EADI, the indication of radio altitude is represented by what to display the final stages of an approach landing?

a)

Rising runway

b)

Red and white flag

c)

White horizontal line

54.

On a RADALT indicator, when there is an autopilot or AFCS disconnect, or loss of signal, the pointer is driven underneath a mask at what degree on the dial?

a)

340 degrees

b)

360 degrees

c)

300 degrees

55.

Frequency deviation is the measure of?

a)

The peak difference between instantaneous frequency of a modulated and the carrier frequency

b)

The difference between the frequency deviation and the frequency swing

c)

The modulating frequency and modulating index together

56.

What is the purpose of the mixer in a FMVW altimeter?

a)

Helps reduction of transmitter noise in the receiver

b)

Removes unwanted amplitude variations

c)

Gives suitable signal for the counter

57.

What is the purpose of the Limiter in a FMVW altimeter

a)

Removes unwanted amplitude variations and gives suitable signal for the counter

b)

Helps reduction of transmitter nose in the receiver

c)

Produce a beat frequency

58.

The elapsed time between transmit and receive when the aircraft is at touchdown and is due to the delay in the feeders and the height of the antennas above ground, in a RADALT system, is?

a)

Aircraft installation delay

b)

Transmitter leakage

c)

Frequency deviation

59.

How is calibration achieved in aircraft installation delay for RADALT?

a)

Cutting cables 20, 40 or 57ft.

b)

Data bus information from ARINC 552A

c)

Correct alignment of antennas with reference north

60.

A secondary surveillance radar for ATC can give what information?

a)

Range

b)

Bearing

c)

Range and bearing

61.

Mode A on interrogation pulse train for an ATC transponder is?

a)

Identification 8us

b)

Identification 17us

c)

Altitude 21us

62.

What is the maximum interrogation rate to avoid fruiting for an ATC transponder?

a)

450

b)

500

c)

400

63.

Which mode of ATC transponder was developed to eliminate heavy communication transmission traffic cause by all transponders in one area responding to an interrogation?

a)

Mode S

b)

Mode C

c)

Mode A

64.

What is the difference between a Mode S and a normal ATC interrogation?

a)

Addition of P4 pulse after 2us after P3 pulse

b)

Addition of P3 pulse after 2us after P2 pulse

c)

Addition of P2 pulse after 2us after P1 pulse

65.

What is the antenna polarization of an ATC transponder?

a)

Vertical

b)

Horizontal

c)

Direct

66.

An ATC transponder antenna should be specified to operate in which band?

a)

L-band

b)

X-band

c)

C-band

67.

If at any time the received P2 pulse has a larger magnitude than the P1/P3 pulses, what will a transponder do?

a)

Not respond as it is being interrogated by side lobe

b)

Accept the transmission and initiate a response

c)

Compare the inputs and trigger an ident

68.

What type of suppression circuit in an ATC transponder protects delicate receiver circuitry in ATC equipment and other L-band equipment?

a)

Mutual suppression

b)

Side lobe suppression

c)

Automatic overload control

69.

What progressively reduces the receiver sensitivity after the reply rate exceeds 1200 grounds per second in an ATC transponder?

a)

Automatic overload control

b)

Mutual suppression

c)

Side lobe suppression

70.

What is the action is the 0.3us delay spike eliminator and AND gate?

a)

Prevent any pulses less than 0.3us in duration being passed to the decoder

b)

Ensures only the leading edge of P1 triggers the mode A and C delay circuits

c)

Allow any pulses less than 0.3us in duration being passed to the decoder

71.

Which TCAS system provides advice of nearby aircraft only and must be fitted to an aircraft with 10 to 30 passengers?

a)

TCAS I

b)

TCAS II

c)

TCAS III

72.

Which TCAS system provides position advice and can give instructions to the pilot to ascend or descend in order to avoid a probable collision and must be fitted to an aircraft carrying over 30 people?

a)

TCAS I

b)

TCAS II

c)

TCAS III

73.

Which type of TCAS warning gives visual and aural instructions to the flight crew to ascend or descend in order to avoid probable collision?

a)

Resolution advisory

b)

Traffic advisory

c)

Mode S alert

74.

If TCAS II direction finding techniques fail to locate the azimuth of another aircraft, what will the screens show?

a)

No bearing

b)

No altitude

c)

No distance

75.

What does an open white diamond indicate on a TCAS system?

a)

Intruder's relative altitude is greater than +/- 1200 ft or beyond 6NM range, not a threat

b)

Intruding aircraft is within +/- 1200 ft and 6NM, not a threat

c)

Intruding aircraft is to be potentially hazardous

76.

Aircraft in the traffic advisory level are shown on a TCAS as?

a)

Solid amber circle

b)

Solid white diamond

c)

Open white diamond

77.

A threat aircraft in the vicinity on a TCAS system is shown as?

a)

Solid amber circle

b)

Solid white diamond

c)

Open diamond

78.

How many antennas are required in a TCAS system for space diversity and to prevent signal fading due to shadowing by changes in aircraft attitude?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

4

79.

The bottom antenna on a TCAS system is switched to which transmission/receive signal when the landing gear lever is selected DOWN?

a)

Omnidirectional

b)

Single beam

c)

Off

80.

The TCAS receiver/transmitter transmits interrogations at what frequency to other transponders?

a)

1030MHz

b)

1090MHz

c)

1060MHz

81.

When is mode S data link capabilities required for TCAS?

a)

When two TCAS equip aircraft approach each other to coordinate a manoeuvre

b)

All TCAS system require it

c)

Mode S is not a requirement for TCAS

82.

Which system provides slant range to a beacon at a fixed point on the ground?

a)

DME

b)

RADALT

c)

WRX

83.

Which DME system is a military system which gives both range and bearing with respect to a fixed beacon?

a)

TACAN

b)

ICAO

c)

Rho-theta

84.

What is the frequency of the audio tone given out from DME beacons?

a)

1350MHz

b)

1200MHz

c)

1100MHz

85.

What is the concept used to identify which replies are as a result of its transmission, deliberately varying the time between transmitted pulse pairs for DME?

a)

Jittering

b)

Automatic standby

c)

Squitter

86.

What is used to prevent airborne interrogator transmitting when out of range ground beacons in DME?

a)

Jittering

b)

Automatic standby

c)

Squitter

87.

What ensures the airborne interrogator is not transmitting unless it is receiving replies from a ground beacon in DME?

a)

Jittering

b)

Automatic standby

c)

Squitter

88.

Random transmit pulse pairs from a DME beacon during the absence of interrogations is called?

a)

Jittering

b)

Automatic standby

c)

Squitter

89.

How far apart do the transponder and DME antennas have to be for suppression to not be necessary?

a)

3 feet

b)

1 foot

c)

2 feet

90.

What time period is the pulse spacing on channel X spacing?

a)

12 us

b)

36 us

c)

88 us

91.

What frequency band does the DME antenna operate on?

a)

L band

b)

X band

c)

C band

92.

What is the interrogation rate of DME?

a)

Less than 30, assuming on track 95 percent of time, searching 5 percent of time.

b)

Less than 30, assuming on track 5 percent of time, searching 95 percent of time.

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