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Iowa Pesticide Core Practice

Total questions: 75

Worksheet time: 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

On September 15th, Joe takes and passes the Core exam and the Public Health pest control category exam. He plans on recertifying by attending a continuing instructional course (CIC) in the future because he does not want to have to retest. When does Joe need to attend his first Public Health pest control CIC?

a)

Anytime within the next 3 years

b)

By December 31st of this year

c)

During the next calendar year

2.

Match the following definition with an applicator type: You apply fungicides to corn on your farm

a)

Commercial applicator

b)

Private Applicator

c)

Certified Handler

d)

Public Applicator

3.

Match the following definition with an applicator type: You mix and load pesticides for a pesticide dealer

a)

Commercial applicator

b)

Private Applicator

c)

Certified Handler

d)

Public Applicator

4.

Match the following definition with an applicator type: You apply insecticides for termite control as part of your job at ABC Pest Control

a)

Commercial applicator

b)

Private Applicator

c)

Certified Handler

d)

Public Applicator

5.

Match the following definition with an applicator type: You apply insecticides for termite control as part of your job at ABC Pest Control

a)

Commercial applicator

b)

Private Applicator

c)

Certified Handler

d)

Public Applicator

6.

Match the following definition with an applicator type: You apply herbicides on right-of-ways as part of your job with Des Moines County

a)

Commercial applicator

b)

Private Applicator

c)

Certified Handler

d)

Public Applicator

7.

Restricted use pesticides can be used by any person at any time, as long as they are purchased by a certified applicator.

a)

True

b)

False

8.

Both civil and criminal penalties can be assessed for FIFRA violations?

a)

True

b)

False

9.

Why does EPA set tolerances for pesticides used in food production?

a)

to reduce the risk of injuries to agricultural workers and handlers

b)

To determine whether the product affects the environment by inducing unnatural changes

c)

The treated commodity cannot be sold if residues exceed the tolerance levels

10.

Match the following description to an abbreviation: Governs the establishment of pesticide tolerances for food and feed products

a)

FIFRA Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act

b)

FFDCA Federal Food Drug and Cosmetic Act

c)

EPA Environmental Protection Agency

d)

WPS Workers Protection Standard

11.

Match the following description to an abbreviation: Protects employees on farms, forests, nurseries, and greenhouse from exposure to agricultural chemicals

a)

FIFRA Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act

b)

FFDCA Federal Food Drug and Cosmetic Act

c)

EPA Environmental Protection Agency

d)

WPS Workers Protection Standard

12.

Match the following description to an abbreviation: Registers or licenses pesticides for use in the U.S.

a)

FIFRA Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act

b)

FFDCA Federal Food Drug and Cosmetic Act

c)

EPA Environmental Protection Agency

d)

WPS Workers Protection Standard

13.

Match the following description to an abbreviation: Regulates pesticide distribution, sale, and use

a)

FIFRA Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act

b)

FFDCA Federal Food Drug and Cosmetic Act

c)

EPA Environmental Protection Agency

d)

WPS Workers Protection Standard

14.

Match the following description to an abbreviation: Manages hazardous wastes from the point of generation until final disposal

a)

ESA

b)

RCRA

c)

FQPA

15.

Match the following description to an abbreviation: Protects and recovers imperiled species and their ecosystems

a)

ESA

b)

RCRA

c)

FQPA

16.

Match the following description to an abbreviation: Sets more rigid standards for pesticide residues on food

a)

ESA

b)

RCRA

c)

FQPA

17.

EPA has the authority to stop the sale or use of any pesticide

a)

True

b)

False

18.

Which statement about FIFRA is false?

a)

Approved pesticide labels have the force of law

b)

The EPA has the authority to remove pesticide products from the market

c)

State restrictions on pesticides can be more liberal than those of FIFRA

19.

According to the Pesticide Act of Iowa, pesticide records must include which of the following?

a)

Time pesticide application begins and ends

b)

Tank size

c)

EPA registration number

d)

REI

20.

Which statement about containment pads is true?

a)

Pads should be used where large quantities of pesticides are handled or mixes

b)

Pads make spill cleanup more difficult

c)

Pads should be made of permeable materials

21.

Iowa's state pesticide regulatory agency is the Iowa Department of Agriculture and Land Stewardship.

a)

True

b)

False

22.

FieldWatch is an online registry that you can use to identify locations of pesticide-sensitive individuals and crops.

a)

True

b)

False

23.

According to the Iowa Bee Rule, applications of pesticides labeled as toxic to bees (when the application is located within 1 miles of a registered apiary) must occur prior to 8:00am or after 6:00pm.

a)

True

b)

False

24.

Anne, a commercial pest control operator, plans to apply a termiticide in a Des Moines apartment complex. Does she need to post or affix notification signs before she begins the application?

a)

No

b)

Yes

25.

Which of the following describes a pest?

a)

Competes for food supply

b)

Destroys structures

c)

Reduces recreational value of landscape

d)

Transmits disease

e)

All of the answers listed

26.

Which statement is TRUE about action thresholds?

a)

The action threshold for a pest may be set at a zero pest population density

b)

You should implement control measures below the action threshold level

c)

In an urban landscape, action thresholds are usually more related to economics than aesthetics

27.

Which statement is true about pest management strategies in IPM?

a)

The goal is often to maintain pest damage at economically acceptable levels

b)

Pesticides are not included in an IPM program

c)

Eradication is never the goal of an IPM program

28.

Sealing cracks and crevices and small openings in buildings is an example of

a)

Mechanical control

b)

Chemical control

c)

Biological control

29.

Lowering the humidity of stored grain and other food products to reduce damage from mold is an example of which type of pest management method?

a)

Mechanical control

b)

Biological control

c)

Physical/environmental modification

30.

Non-selective herbicide kills

a)

Any insect it touches when mixed at the proper rate

b)

Only one specific weed

c)

All plant life it comes in contact with

31.

Systemic insecticides kill insects by

a)

drying out the insect's body

b)

acting as a repellant

c)

being absorbed by a plant and then killing the insect after it eats the plant

d)

plugging the inspects spiracles

32.

One Pest management strategy that can be used to prevent or delay pesticide resistance is

a)

Apply pesticides at the highest label rates

b)

apply pesticides that are persistent

c)

apply pesticides with differing modes of action

d)

repeat an application as soon as the control failure is recognized

33.

IPM is a single control method

a)

True

b)

False

34.

What statement is true about replacing reusable PPE?

a)

Gloves generally last longer than footwear, aprons, headgear, and protective suits

b)

If PPE is starting to thin out, it can be reused as long as there are no holes

c)

Reusable items need to be replaced only at the end of the work season

d)

Glove replacement is a high priority

35.

Which signal word has the highest toxicity?

a)

Caution

b)

Warning

c)

Danger-Poison

36.

All labels must state:

a)

Protective clothing you should wear during application

b)

DANGER or CAUTION

c)

Oral LD50

d)

Keep out of reach of children

37.

What is REI?

a)

The time before you can enter a treated area

b)

The time before you can harvest the crop in a treated area

38.

What is a disadvantage of both EC and ULV formulations?

a)

Solvents may cause rubber or plastic hoses to deteriorate

b)

Require constant agitation to keep in suspension

c)

Contribute to abrasive wear of nozzles and pumps

39.

Are pesticides more or less likely to move into the groundwater if they have strong soil adsorption characteristics

a)

More

b)

Less

40.

The directions for use on a pesticide label indicate

a)

The environmental, physical, and chemical hazards

b)

The recycling or disposal of pesticide waste

c)

The crops or areas on which the pesticide may be used

41.

The route of entry statement on a label "Extremely hazardous by skin contact- rapidly absorbed through the skin" would most likely appear with which signal word?

a)

Warning

b)

Caution

c)

Danger

42.

A practical temperature range to maintain inside pesticide storage facilities is Fahrenheit

a)

40-100 degrees Fahrenheit

b)

10-35 degrees Fahrenheit

c)

100-130 degrees Farenheit

d)

40-100 degrees Celcius

43.

How can you tell that a pesticide product has been registered with the EPA

a)

EPA establishment number

b)

signal word

c)

EPA registration number

d)

Restricted Use Pesticide classification

44.

The name PEST-O 5G on a pesticide label indicates

a)

a gel pesticide with 5 percent inert ingredients

b)

a granular pesticide with 5 percent active ingredients

c)

a gel pesticide with 5 percent active ingredients

d)

a granular pesticide with 5 percent inert ingredients

45.

Adjuvants have no pesticide activity

a)

True

b)

False

46.

Which liquid pesticide formulation may approach 100 percent active ingredient?

a)

ULV

b)

A

c)

EC

d)

G

47.

A living species is considered a pest only when it causes economic losses

a)

True

b)

False

48.

Which type of dry/solid pesticide formulation consists of particles that are the same weight and shape?

a)

Dusts

b)

Granules

c)

Pellets

49.

What is the pesticide formulation by which solid particles are dispersed in a liquid?

a)

Solution

b)

Suspension

c)

Emulsion

50.

When two or more pesticides mixed together form a putty or paste, separate into layers, or look like cottage cheese it is an example of

a)

Chemical Incompatibility

b)

Physical Incompatibility

c)

Placement Incompatibility

51.

What type of adjuvant increases the viscosity of spray mixtures?

a)

Sticker

b)

Thickener

c)

Extender

52.

A tank mix resulting in lumps or gelling is compatible

a)

True

b)

False

53.

When applying herbicide to a landscape bed

a)

Gloves should go inside sleeves

b)

Gloves should be outside of the sleeves and rolled if too long

54.

What statement is true about potential problems from pesticide fires?

a)

Runoff from a pesticide fire may contain highly toxic materials

b)

Pesticides containing oils or petroleum products are the least flammable

c)

Pesticides may be flammable but are never explosive

d)

Vapors or smoke from pesticide fires may be harmful to animals but not to plants

55.

A formulation contains both active and inactive ingredients

a)

True

b)

False

56.

Which equation reflects the relationship between pesticide safety concerns?

a)

Toxicity = hazard x exposure

b)

Hazard = toxicity x exposure

c)

Exposure = hazard x toxicity

d)

Hazard = exposure x risk

57.

If dermal exposure to a pesticide has occurred, what should be done first?

a)

Administer artificial respiration

b)

Get the victim fresh air immediately

c)

Rinse the pesticide off to prevent absorption

d)

Apply a first aid ointment to the affected area

58.

What statement is true about respiratory protection?

a)

Fit tests and fit checks should be conducted yearly

b)

Air-purifying respirators supply an independent source of air

c)

Filters are classified by resistance to oil and filter efficiency

d)

All respirators are approved by the EPA

59.

What statement about transporting pesticides is true?

a)

Carry hazardous pesticides in the passenger compartment of a vehicle to prevent unauthorized access

b)

Operators transporting hazardous materials are not required to have special training, only a CDL

c)

Enclosed cargo boxes offer the greatest protection, but are not always practical

60.

You can reduce the vapor drift of a pesticide by choosing low-volatility pesticides, especially in hot weather

a)

True

b)

False

61.

A pesticide storage facility should be

a)

At least 150 feet from a private well

b)

Located upwind from animal feeding stations

c)

Always located at the top of a hill to prevent flooding

62.

What is the first thing you should do if you notice a damaged pesticide container?

a)

Transfer the contents into another sturdy container than can be tightly closed

b)

Use the pesticide immediately at a site and at a rate allowed by the label

c)

Put on the appropriate PPE

63.

What is the backbone of any emergency response plan?

a)

Having pesticide inventory readily available

b)

Knowing where copues of the SDS and labels are kept

c)

Outlining the sequence of actions to take in a crisis

64.

To quickly clean up pesticide spills, hose down the site with water

a)

False

b)

True

65.

Under what soil conditions are pesticides more likely to leach through the soil?

a)

A heavy clay soil, low in organic matter, where groundwater is shallow

b)

A sandy soil, low in organic matter, where groundwater is shallow

c)

A sandy soil, high in organic matter, where groundwater is deep

66.

What property of a pesticide would make it more likely to move with water in surface runoff?

a)

High adsorption

b)

High solubility

c)

High volatility

67.

One method to reduce pesticide drift is

a)

Set boom close to the target

b)

Increase sprayer pressure

c)

Install check valves

d)

Increase sprayer speed

68.

Grass buffers established along field borders

a)

are high maintenance areas

b)

provide no benefits

c)

reduce pesticide use

d)

trap containments

69.

Calibrating pesticide application equipment

a)

could cause back flow

b)

reduces drift

c)

tests the pesticide mixture

d)

sets the spray rate

70.

Following the use of an avicide, several dead pigeons were inadvertently left in a corn field. Multiple dead hawks are found in the area. What is this called?

a)

Endangered species

b)

Secondary poisoning

c)

Directed spraying

d)

Chronic toxicity

71.

When talking about pesticides, what is meant by half-life?

a)

The amount of time a pesticide will be effective once applied

b)

How long it takes for half of the original amount of pesticide to break down

c)

How long a chemical can stay on the shelf and remain effective

72.

What two things should you be MOST aware of to avoid spray drift?

a)

Droplet size and wind speed

b)

Air stability and temperature

c)

Pesticide volatility and temperature

73.

To double the sprayer output, you must increase the pressure how many times?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

1

74.

An EC generally has no odor

a)

True

b)

False

75.

Which application method refers to the application of a pesticide only to a limited area surround a target such as a weed, tree, shrub, or other areas where pests reside?

a)

Confined space application

b)

Spot treatment

c)

Broadcast application

d)

Band application