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Worksheets

Quiz Test

Total questions: 195

Worksheet time: 2hrs 29mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
What is Equilibrium?
a)
Price that buyers & sellers will accept
b)
Price that equals Goods
2.
The airline industry is most likely in the market structure called
a)
perfect competition
b)
oligopoly
c)
monopolistic competition
d)
monopoly
3.

What is the Nash Equilibrium?

a)

Both fast-food restaurants should choose to concentrate on fries.

b)

Both fast-food restaurants should choose to concentrate on burgers.

c)

Brewer’s should choose to concentrate on fries, and Royal’s should choose to concentrate on burgers.

4.
The airline industry is most likely in the market structure called
a)
perfect competition
b)
oligopoly
c)
monopolistic competition
d)
monopoly
5.
Short run marginal costs eventually increase because of the effects of:
a)
increasing marginal product
b)
diminishing marginal product
c)
increasing fixed costs
d)
diseconomies of scale
6.

Marginal cost is

a)

Total cost

b)

minimum cost

c)

Change in TC

7.

Average cost is

a)

Total cost

b)

Cost per unit

c)

always zero

8.

Average revenue is equal to

a)

Price

b)

Total revenue

c)

Total cost

9.

Total revenue -total cost=

a)

average cost

b)

Profit

c)

Marginal cost

10.

The shape of Average cost is

a)

upward sloping

b)

downward sloping

c)

U shaped

11.

Total cost is a sum of Fixed cost and

a)

fixed revenue

b)

variable cost

c)

average cost

12.

What is the goal of a firm?

a)

to make profits

b)

to maximize profits

c)

to maximize revenue

d)

none of the above

13.

MR =

a)

MC

b)

NC

c)

WC

d)

KFC

14.

The image above shows a firm making

a)

Economic Profit

b)

Economic loss

c)

Breaking even

d)

Shutting down

15.

Should the following firm shutdown?

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

Not enough information present

16.

Identify the profit maximizing level of output for this monopoly firm.

4 lines
17.

Identify the profit maximizing level of price for this monopoly firm.

4 lines
18.

Collusion most frequently occurs in industries that are

a)

oligopolistic

b)

monopolistically competitive

c)

monopolistic

d)

perfectly competitive

19.

An oligopoly is a market structure in which many firms sell products that are similar but not identical

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

20.

Collusion is difficult for an oligopoly to maintain

a)

Because antitrust laws make collusion illegal

b)

Because, in the case of oligopoly, self-interest is in conflict with cooperation

c)

If additional firms enter of the oligopoly

d)

For all the above reasons

21.

Represents how goods, services, and money move through our economy.

a)

Circular Flow Diagram

b)

Supply Curve

c)

Demand Curve

d)

Supply and Demand Curve

22.

Consumers will buy more of a good when its prices is lower and less when its price is higher.

a)

Law of Demand

b)

Law of Supply

c)

Price Floor

d)

Price Ceiling

23.

The point at which the quantity demanded for a product or service is equal to the quantity supplied of that product or service.

a)

Equilibrium

b)

Price Stability

c)

Shortage

d)

Supply

24.

A market in which a single seller dominates.

a)

Monopolistic Competition

b)

Monopoly

c)

Oligopoly

d)

Perfect Competition

25.

A market structure in which a few large firms dominate a market.

a)

Oligopoly

b)

Monopoly

c)

Monopolistic Competition

d)

Perfect Competition

26.
The level of profit-maximizing output is reached when marginal cost is
a)
double marginal revenue
b)
one-half of marginal revenue
c)
less than marginal revenue
d)
equal to marginal revenue
27.
Many businesses are engaging in e-commerce because
a)
subsidies are available to many e-commerce businesses.
b)
they are able to save on fixed and variable costs.
c)
operating costs never increase.
d)
variable costs can be almost eliminated.
28.
In a market economy, a high price is a signal for
a)
producers to supply more and consumers to buy less.
b)
producers to supply less and consumers to buy more.
c)
government to intervene to protect consumers.
d)
producers to supply less and consumers to buy less.
29.
The federal minimum wage law demonstrates
a)
a price ceiling
b)
a price floor
c)
a price equilibrium
d)
a market price
30.

What is the difference between Accounting (Normal) Profit and Economic Profit?

a)

Merchandise Costs

b)

Opportunity Cost

c)

Labor Cost

d)

Expenses

31.

According to the Profit Maximizing Formula, how many units should this firm produce?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

32.

Labor, utilities, and raw materials are an example of which of these?

a)

Fixed Costs

b)

Variable Costs

33.

Does an increase in Fixed Costs affect a firm's output?

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

Maybe

34.

With which worker does this firm begin to experience Diminishing Marginal Returns?

a)

First

b)

Second

c)

Third

d)

Fourth

35.

What is the best definition for Short Run?

a)

A period of time in which at lease one resource is fixed

b)

A period of time in which all resources can change

c)

A period of 1 to 5 years

d)

A period of 5 or more years

36.

Which of these is NOT a characteristic of Perfectly Competitive markets?

a)

Many small firms

b)

Virtually identical products

c)

High barriers to entry

d)

No need to advertise

37.

Which of these best explains why Mr. Darp is horizontal?

a)

Demand in that market is perfectly elastic

b)

Demand in that market is perfectly inelastic

c)

Firms can sell as many units as they want for the same price

d)

Mr. Darp is taking a nap

38.

If a firm's Marginal Costs increase, its output will...

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

c)

Stay the Same

d)

Shut down

39.

In the long run, a Perfectly Competitive Firm will..

a)

Earn zero economic profit

b)

Earn an economic profit

c)

Make an economic loss

d)

Shut down

40.
The marginal cost curve typically does which of the following?
a)
Increases at a fixed rate.
b)
Decreases and eventually increases.
c)
Decreases at a decreasing rate.
d)
Increases and eventually decreases.
41.
What is the only curve that continues to fall as output increases?
a)
Average Fixed Cost
b)
Average Variable Cost
c)
Average Total Cost
d)
Marginal Cost
42.
Which of the following statements correctly identifies a difference between perfect competition and monopolistic competition? 
a)
In perfect competition there are no barriers to entry, but there are strong barriers in monopolistic competition. 
b)
In perfect competition there are many firms, but in monopolistic competition there are only a few firms. 
c)
In perfect competition the firms all sell products that are exactly the same, but in monopolistic competition each firm sells a slightly differentiated product. 
d)
In perfect competition there are few consumers, but in monopolistic competition there are many consumers. 
43.

A monopoly can price discriminate between two groups of consumers if each group has

a)

a large consumer surplus.

b)

a different willingness to pay.

c)

the same willingness to pay.

d)

the ability to resell the good to the other group.

44.

Sue's Surfboards is the sole renter of surfboards on Big Wave Island. Sues demand and marginal revenue curves are illustrated in the figure above. Sue's Surfboards currently rents 15 surfboards an hour. Sue's total revenue from the 15 surfboards is

a)

$300

b)

$220

c)

$150

d)

$100

45.

For the unregulated, single-price monopoly shown in the figure above, when its profit is maximized, output will be

a)

4 units per year and the price will be $6.

b)

4 units per year and the price will be $4.

c)

6 units per year and the price will be $4.

d)

None of the above answers is correct.

46.
For this monopolist, what is the area of consumer surplus?
a)
ABHJ
b)
AJGC
c)
ARJ
d)
ARJE
47.
Total revenue for this monopoly is represented by area:
a)
0CGE
b)
0AJE
c)
AJHB
d)
BAJH
48.

If this monopolist is given a lump-sum subsidy its output would

a)

increase to M. A lump-sum subsidy shifts the firm's MC curve to the right.

b)

increase to L. A lump-sum subsidy shifts the firm's MC curve to the left.

c)

decrease by the amount of the subsidy.

d)

remain at E. A lump-sum subsidy does not shift the firm's MC curve.

e)

There is not enough information to answer the question.

49.
Economic profits for this monopoly are represented by area:
a)
0CGE
b)
0AJE
c)
AJHB
d)
BAJN
50.
This monopoly will maximize profits at what price?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
R
51.
A monopolist introduces a technological innovation that lowers the marginal cost and average cost of production. The price of the good and the quantity are most likely to change in which of the following ways? 
a)
P=Decrease; Q=Increase
b)
P=Decrease; Q=Decrease
c)
P=Increase; Q=Increase
d)
P=Increase; Q=Decrease
52.
For an unregulated monopolist, the profit-maximizing quantity will always be:
a)
in the elastic region of the demand curve 
b)
where marginal revenue equals price 
c)
where price equals average total cost 
d)
where the marginal cost curve intersects the demand curve 
53.
For the firm shown in the graph above, the short- run, profit-maximizing strategy would be to set output at:
a)
Q1, price at P3, and earn an economic profit 
b)
Q1, price at P1, and suffer a loss 
c)
Q2, price at P2, and earn an economic profit 
d)
Q2, price at P2, and earn only a normal profit 
54.
A firm with market power engages in price discrimination to:
a)
earn a higher profit
b)
increase consumer surplus
c)
decrease deadweight loss
d)
make its demand more elastic 
55.

If the monopolist were to produce at the socially optimal output, quantity and price would be

a)
Q1 & P1
b)
Q2 & P3
c)
Q1 & P2
d)
Q3 & P2
e)

Q1, P4

56.
The profit-maximizing combination of output and price for a single-price monopoly is:
a)
Q1 & P1
b)
Q2 & P3
c)
Q1 & P4
d)
Q3 & P2
57.
A single-price monopolist is currently producing in the inelastic portion of its market demand curve. In order to maximize profits, the monopolist should change the price and quantity in which of the following ways? 
a)
P=Increase; Q=Increase
b)
P=Increase; Q=Decrease
c)
P=Decrease; Q=Decrease
d)
P=No Change; Q=Increase
58.

For the graph shown here, what quantity will this firm produce and what price will it charge?

a)

Q2 ; P2

b)

Q2 ; P3

c)

Q1 ; P1

d)

Q1 ; P2

e)

Q1 ; P4

59.

All of the following are imperfectly competitive markets EXCEPT:

a)

monopolistic competition

b)

pure competition

c)

monopoly

d)

oligopoly

e)

monopsony

60.

Priya’s Party Supplies sells cake toppers in a market with many other sellers, but each seller has their own version of cake toppers.


Which of the following statements is true based on this information?

a)

Priya produces a socially optimal quantity.

b)

Priya produces in a perfectly competitive industry.

c)

Priya’s marginal revenue curve is less than her demand curve.

d)

Priya can charge whatever price she wants to for her cake toppers.

e)

Priya’s average total cost curve is below her average variable cost curve.

61.

Which of the following is true about production in an imperfectly competitive market?

Choose 1 answer:

a)

The amount produced minimizes marginal cost.

b)

Less is produced than is socially optimal.

c)

The amount produced minimizes average total cost.

d)

More is produced than is socially optimal.

e)

The amount produced is the same as in perfect competition.

62.

Firms in monopolistic competition do not attain allocative efficiency because at the long-run equilibrium

output, which of the following is true?

a)

Price is greater than marginal cost.

b)

Marginal cost is greater than minimum average total cost.

c)

Marginal revenue is greater than marginal cost.

d)

Products are homogeneous.

e)

There is an overallocation of resources to the market.

63.

Which of the following is true about an imperfectly competitive firm’s marginal revenue (MR) curve if it has a linear and downward-sloping demand curve?

a)

MR decreases at an increasing rate.

b)

MR increases at first, then decreases.

c)

MR is constant.

d)

MR decreases and is less than demand.

e)

MR is greater than demand.

64.
In this market structure there are many buyers and sellers with identical products
a)
perfect competition
b)
monopolistic competition
c)
monopoly
d)
oligopoly
65.

Price leadership and collusion often occur in this type of market structure

a)
monopoly
b)
oligipoly
c)
perfect competition
d)
monopolistic competition
66.

Laws that are meant to stop monopolies from forming are called?

a)

Anti-Monopoly Laws

b)

Anti-Trust Laws

67.

When there is only one seller of a good or service, they are said to have a?

a)

Monopoly

b)

Oligarchy

c)

Monopolistic Competition

d)

Perfect Competition

68.

If every consumers needs are being met perfectly and every good that is being made is being sold, what type of efficiency is being achieved?

a)

Productive Efficiency

b)

Allocative Efficiency

69.

The amounts in the matrix represent potential profits to each player. What of the following correctly represents that game's nash equilibrium?

a)
A,X
b)
A,Y
c)
B,X
d)
B,Y
70.
Assume that Alpha and Beta are the only sellers of a product and they do not cooperate. Each firm has to decide whether to raise the product price. The payoff matrix gives the profits, in dollars, associated with each pair of pricing strategies. The first entry in each cell shows the profits to Alpha, and the second, the profits to Beta. What is the dominant strategy for each firm?
a)
Alpha: Do Not Raise; Beta: Do Not Raise
b)
Alpha: Do Not Raise; Beta: Raise
c)
Alpha: No Dominant Strategy; Beta: Raise
d)
Alpha: Raise; Beta: Do Not Raise
71.
The following table shows the profits associated with the pricing strategies of two oligopolistic firms, Agronomia and Farmingdale. Each firm has two possible strategies: to charge a low price or a high price. The first entry in each cell shows the profits to Agronomia and the second the profits to Farmingdale. If the two firms do not cooperate, what will be the profit for each firm?
a)
Agronomia = $50; Farmingdale = $100
b)
Agronomia = $150; Farmingdale = $150
c)
Agronomia = $300; Farmindale = $50
d)
Agronomia = $100; Farmingdale = $100
72.

The cartel model of oligopoly predicts that

a)

all firms in the industry act in unison to set monopoly price

b)

each producer acts independently of others

c)

firms follow the low-price firm in the industry

d)

differences in cost of production discourage individual firms from cheating

e)

the markup on marginal cost should be the same for all firms

73.

If this graph is for a monopolistically competitive firm, it best represents

a)

short run economic loss.

b)

short run extra-normal profit.

c)

long run economic profit.

d)

long run equilibrium at normal profit.

e)

short run accounting loss.

74.

In the above figure, the monopolistically competitive will experience what change into the long run?

a)

a right shift of it's demand curve.

b)

a left shift of it's demand curve.

c)

a right shift of it's supply curve.

d)

a left shift of it's supply curve.

75.

A monopolistically competitive firm maximizes profits or minimizes losses in the short run by

a)

Setting price equal to marginal cost.

b)

Producing at the output level where ATC is minimized.

c)

Producing at the output level where MR equals MC.

d)

Producing at the output level where MC equals ATC.

76.

Which of the following characterizes monopolistic competition?

a)

Price leadership.

b)

Zero long-run profit.

c)

Retaliation.

d)

Marginal cost pricing.

77.

If profits are negative in a monopolistically competitive market, then:

a)

new firms will enter until profit returns to the optimal positive level.

b)

new firms will enter the market until economic profits are zero.

c)

firms will exit the market until economic profit returns to the optimal positive level.

d)

firms will exit the market until economic profit returns to zero.

78.

Game theory is used to explain

a)

why firms price discriminate

b)

how monopolies evolve into oligopolies

c)

strategic behavior of firms in oligopoly

d)

profit maximization in monopoly

e)

price leadership of monopolistic competition

79.

For the graph shown here, if the firm were regulated to the socially optimal / allocatively efficiency output and price the firm would produce at ___ and charge ___

a)

Q2 ; P2

b)

Q2 ; P3

c)

Q1 ; P1

d)

Q1 ; P2

e)

Q1 ; P4

80.

For the graph shown here, if this single price monopolist could now perfectly price discriminate the frim would produce at ___ and charge ___

a)

Q2 ; P2

b)

Q2 ; P3

c)

Q1 ; P1

d)

Q1 ; P2

e)

Q1 ; P4

81.

If this monopolist is given a per unit subsidy, what would happen to amount of consumer surplus?

a)

increase due to MC shifting right and price falling

b)

decrease due to MC shifting right and price rising

c)

increase due to ATC shifting right and price falling

d)

decrease due to ATC shifting right and price rising

e)

not change

82.

Assume the single price monopolist is producing at its profit maximizing output and price. If the monopolist raised its price, what would happen to its total revenues?

a)

Total revenues would increase. The monopolist is producing in the inelastic portion of the demand curve.

b)

Total revenues would increase. The monopolist is producing in the elastic portion of the demand curve.

c)

Total revenues would decrease. The monopolist is producing in the elastic portion of the demand curve.

d)

Total revenues would decrease. The monopolist is producing in the inelastic portion of the demand curve.

e)

Total revenues would not change.

83.

Firms in perfect and monopolistic competition will continue to produce in short run as long as

a)

Price is greater than min ATC

b)

Price is greater than min MC

c)

Price is greater than min AVC

d)

Price is greater than AVC

e)

Price is greater than ATC

84.

Consumers will buy more of a good when its price is lower and less when its price is higher.

a)

Law of Demand

b)

Law of Supply

c)

Price Floor

d)

Price Ceiling

85.

The point at which the quantity demanded for a product or service is equal to the quantity supplied of that product or service.

a)

Equilibrium

b)

Price Stability

c)

Shortage

d)

Supply

86.

A minimum price consumers are required to pay for a good or service.

a)

Price Ceiling

b)

Market Clearing Price

c)

Equilibrium

d)

Price Floor

87.

A maximum price consumers are required to pay for a good or service.

a)

Price Ceiling

b)

Equilibrium

c)

Market Clearing Price

d)

Price Floor

88.

A market in which a single seller dominates.

a)

Monopolistic Competition

b)

Monopoly

c)

Oligopoly

d)

Perfect Competition

89.

A market structure in which a large number of firms all produce the same product and no single seller controls supply or prices.

a)

Monopoly

b)

Monopolistic Comeptition

c)

Oligopoly

d)

Perfect Competition

90.
An increase in the price of milk causes a decrease in the demand for cereal. The two products are
a)
substitutes
b)
complements
c)
unrelated
d)
demand elastic
91.
Rent payments and property taxes would be counted as
a)
total cost
b)
variable costs
c)
fixed costs
d)
marginal costs
92.
Profits will be maximized when marginal revenue
a)
is double marginal cost
b)
equals marginal cost
c)
is one-half marginal cost
d)
exceeds marginal cost
93.

What is the Profit Maximizing Formula?

a)

Revenue > Expenses

b)

MR > ATC

c)

MR = MC

d)

AFC + AVC = ATC

94.

What is the difference between Accounting (Normal) Profit and Economic Profit?

a)

Merchandise Costs

b)

Opportunity Cost

c)

Labor Cost

d)

Expenses

95.

According to the Profit Maximizing Formula, how many units should this firm produce?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

96.

Which of the following is the best definition for Marginal Cost?

a)

The cost of producing more units

b)

The cost of producing one additional unit

c)

Fixed costs

d)

Variable Costs

97.

A change in Fixed Costs affect which of the following? (check all that apply)

a)

AFC

b)

AVC

c)

ATC

d)

MC

98.

Does an increase in Fixed Costs affect a firm's output?

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

Maybe

99.

Does an increase in Variable Costs affect a firm's output?

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

Maybe

100.

With which worker does this firm begin to experience Diminishing Marginal Returns?

a)

First

b)

Second

c)

Third

d)

Fourth

101.

What is the best definition for Short Run?

a)

A period of time in which at lease one resource is fixed

b)

A period of time in which all resources can change

c)

A period of 1 to 5 years

d)

A period of 5 or more years

102.

A firm expands its fixed resources and its overall costs of production go down. It is experiencing...

a)

Increasing returns to scale

b)

Constant returns to scale

c)

Negative returns to scale

103.

Which of these is NOT a characteristic of Perfectly Competitive markets?

a)

Many small firms

b)

Virtually identical products

c)

High barriers to entry

d)

No need to advertise

104.

If a firm's Marginal Costs increase, its output will...

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

c)

Stay the Same

d)

Shut down

105.

In the long run, a Perfectly Competitive Firm will..

a)

Earn zero economic profit

b)

Earn an economic profit

c)

Make an economic loss

d)

Shut down

106.

Which of the following best describes Allocative Efficiency?

a)

D = ATC

b)

D = AVC

c)

D = MC

d)

Run = DMC

107.

What will happen when there is short-term PROFIT in a market?

a)

Firms will enter the market, and prices will rise.

b)

Firms will enter the market, and prices will fall.

c)

Firms will leave the market, and prices will rise.

d)

Firms will leave the market, and prices will fall.

108.
At 100 units of output, a firm's total cost is $10,000. If the firm's total fixed cost is $4,000, its average variable cost is equal to:
a)
$140
b)
$100
c)
$60
d)
$40
109.

The image above shows a firm making

a)

Economic Profit

b)

Economic loss

c)

Breaking even

d)

Shutting down

110.

Should the following firm shutdown?

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

Not enough information present

111.

The above figure shows a perfectly competitive firm. If the market price is more than $20 per unit, the firm

a)

will definitely shut down to minimize its losses.

b)

will stay open to produce and will make zero economic profit.

c)

will stay open to produce and will incur an economic loss.

d)

will stay open to produce and will make an economic profit.

e)

might shut down but more information is needed about the fixed cost.

112.

Scarcity is best defined as

a)

the difference between limited wants and limited economic resources.

b)

the difference between the total benefit of an action and the total cost of that action.

c)

the difference between unlimited wants and limited economic resources.

d)

the opportunity cost of pursuing a given course of action.

e)

the difference between the marginal benefit and marginal cost of an action.

113.

A linear production possibilities curve indicates which of the following?

a)

Constant opportunity costs

b)

Decreasing opportunity costs

c)

Increasing opportunity costs

d)

Diminishing marginal returns

e)

Labor-intensive production

114.

According to the graph above, if a country is currently producing at point X, the opportunity cost of producing another consumer good is

a)

20 capital goods

b)

more than 20 capital goods

c)

fewer than 20 capital goods

d)

20 consumer goods

e)

fewer than 20 consumer goods

115.

Beef has been increasing in price. As a result, what will happen to the demand for hamburger buns?

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

116.

The solid line on the graph represents a _______________, which when implemented cause shortages.

a)

Price ceiling

b)

Price floor

117.

Total revenue -total cost=

a)

average cost

b)

Profit

c)

Marginal cost

118.

Perfectly Competitive, Normal Profit

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
119.

Single-Price Monopoly, Economic Profit

a)
b)
c)
d)
120.

Profit-Maximizing Quantity

a)

Qf

b)

Qa

121.

Based on the table above, what is the opportunity cost to Picnicland of increasing the production of hotdogs from 450 to 900?

a)

150 burgers

b)

225 burgers

c)

300 burgers

d)

450 burgers

122.

The production possibilities curve (PPC) is a graph that shows the various combinations of output that an economy

a)

should produce

b)

demands

c)

can produce

123.

Production Possibilities Curves (PPCs) are usually bowed outward. This is because...

a)

the more resources a society uses to produce one good, the fewer resources it has available to produce another good.

b)

the opportunity cost of producing a good decreases as more and more of that good is produced

c)

of the effects of technological change

d)

resources are specialized; that is, some are better at producing particular goods rather than other goods. (Apples & Carrots example)

124.

What is the opportunity cost to Footville of increasing production of shoes from 400 to 600?

a)

400 socks

b)

300 socks

c)

200 socks

d)

100 socks

125.

Which of the following points on the PPC above represents a combination of Steel & Wheat that this economy could NOT produce?

a)

A

b)

G

c)

D

d)

F

126.

Humphery Flobart is trying to decide whether to take a job as the manager at the local Wendy's (making $25,000/year) OR attend college. He cannot do both. For Humphery, the opportunity cost of attending college includes...

a)

The money he will spend on food whether or not he attends college.

b)

The money he will spend on dates with his girlfriend, whether or not he attends college.

c)

The $25,000 Humphery could make managing the local Wendy's next year if he didn't go to college.

d)

The cost that Humphery's college, Boptown University, just paid to construct a new International Studies building.

127.

Timmy the Eskimo currently makes $20,000/year working as an igloo salesman. He's considering taking a new job as a polar bear preservation guard, where he would be $25,000/year. He can only work one of the two jobs. Which of the following is an opportunity cost of taking the Polar Bear Guard job?

a)

The self-esteem boost Timmy will get when the Polar Bears compliment him on his attentiveness to their security

b)

The excitement of working as a Polar Bear Guard

c)

The $20,000/year he could be making as an igloo salesman

d)

The money Timmy pays for his new coffee maker

128.

Suppose that you prefer reading a book you already own to watching TV and that you prefer watching TV to listening to music. If these are your only 3 choices, what is the opportunity cost of reading?

a)

Watching TV AND Listening to Music

b)

Watching TV

c)

Listening to Music

d)

The Price of the book

129.

Generally, each successive unit of a good consumed will cause marginal utility to...

a)

Increase at an increasing rate

b)

Increase at a decreasing rate

c)

Decrease (or "diminish")

d)

Who knows? Life's a gamble!

130.

According to economists, a consumer will maximize their total utility when...

a)

Marginal Utility/Price is equal for all the goods/services they purchase

b)

Marginal Utility is equal for all goods

c)

Price/Marginal Utility is equal for all the goods/services they purchase

d)

Marginal Utility is as high as possible for all the goods they purchase.

131.

Tom has currently studied for AP Microeconomics for 4 hours and AP U.S. History for 4 hours. He's a hard worker. He has 1 more hour available for studying... how should he decide how to spend that hour?

a)

He should compare the total benefit of 5 hours of studying for AP Microeconomics to the total benefit of 5 hours of studying for AP US History.

b)

He should compare the marginal benefit of 1 more hour studying for AP Microeconomics to the marginal benefit of 1 more hour of studying for AP US History.

c)

He should compare the total benefit of 9 hours of studying for AP Microeconomics to the total benefit of 9 hours of studying for AP US History.

132.

Which of the following is the best definition of the word "marginal?"

a)

Additional

b)

Abstract

c)

Econometric

d)

Complicated

133.

Which of the following is NOT an example of a public good?

a)

Fireworks display

b)

National Defense

c)

Public transportation

d)

Lighthouse

134.

What is the problem with public goods?

a)

Lacks rivalry

b)

Lacks a excludability

c)

Lacks consumer and producer surplus

d)

None of the above

135.

What is the free rider problem?

a)

scarcity even when you pay for a good

b)

Reaping all the benefits without contributing

c)

Common goods that don't have a price

d)

none of the above

136.

What statement best explains why the government provides goods and services to its citizens?

a)

To provide benefits to small groups of people in certain areas of the country.

b)

To provide goods and services that would not be available if individuals had to provide them.

c)

To compete with businesses in the private sector.

d)

To make a large profit by providing certain goods and services to it's citizens.

137.

The government pays for public goods and services through —

a)

donations from wealthy politicians

b)

donations from foreign nations

c)

revenue from sales and income taxes

d)

revenue from the lottery

138.

The United States government provides the following services EXCEPT —

a)

interstate highways

b)

satellite radio

c)

postal service

d)

national defense

139.

What is one reason that local law enforcement is considered a public good?

a)

Everyone in the community benefits from it.

b)

Nobody in the community has to pay for it.

c)

Private firms make a profit from producing it.

d)

Individual citizens pay directly for it.

140.

Which of the following is an example of a positive externality resulting from an outdoor band concert?

a)

An elderly woman in her apartment hears a song that she liked as a child.

b)

A pair of endangered birds leave their nest in a nearby tree when the concert starts.

c)

A pizza parlor closes early, because all of its customers are at the concert.

d)

A traffic jam occurs as drivers hunt for parking spots near the concert.

141.

The goal of government welfare programs is to

a)

maintain a poverty threshold that matches the median income.

b)

eliminate the dependence of people on the welfare system.

c)

eliminate the income gap between the richest Americans and the poorest.

d)

raise the standard of living of certain less-fortunate members of society.

142.

Which of the following explains why a city fireworks display on the Fourth of July is provided as a public good?

a)

Fireworks displays usually take place in a public area.

b)

Fireworks are a scarce resource.

c)

Nonpayers cannot be prevented from seeing the fireworks.

d)

Each consumer pays a fee to see the fireworks.

143.

Which of the following is an example of a private good?

a)

School WiFi

b)

Park bench

c)

Netflix

d)

Apples

144.

What is the tragedy of the commons?

a)

Finite resources of a private good

b)

Finite resources, zero excludability

c)

Unlimited resources, zero excludability

d)

Never heard of it

145.
According to the graph, increasing returns occur from 
a)
0 to Labor1
b)
Labor1 to Labor2
c)
0 to Labor L2
d)
After L2
146.
The following graph illustrates
a)
The Law of Increasing Costs
b)
The Law of Demand
c)
Circular Flow Diagram of  Mixed Economy
d)
The Marginal Product of Labor
147.
What reason allows increasing returns to occur with production as one assess the labor factor only?
a)
increasing costs
b)
worker specialization
c)
underutilization
d)
fixed resources
148.

Collin opens up a hot chocolate stand for two hours. He spends $10 for ingredients and sells $60 worth of tasty beverages. In the same two hours, he could have provided Uber services (illegally because he isn't 18) and earned $40. Collin's accounting profit is ____ and an economic profit of ____.

a)

$50, $10

b)

$90, $50

c)

$10, $50

d)

$50, $90

149.
Which description fits the total-cost curve when the marginal product of labor diminishes
a)
They are linear.
b)
The slope increases as output increases.
c)
The slope decreases as input increases.
d)
The curve is a parabolic inverse "u" that contains a peak.
150.
Which description fits the fixed cost curve when the marginal product of labor diminishes
a)
It is linear.
b)
The slope increases as output increases.
c)
The slope decreases as input increases.
d)
The curve is a parabolic inverse "u" that contains a peak.
151.
The marginal cost curve typically does which of the following?
a)
Increases at a fixed rate.
b)
Decreases and eventually increases.
c)
Decreases at a decreasing rate.
d)
Increases and eventually decreases.
152.
Which type of income tax is based upon vertical equity?
a)
regressive
b)
proportionate
c)
progressive
d)
benefits received principal
153.
A price ceiling causes which of the following 
a)
A shortage due to excess demand
b)
A shortage due to excess supply.
c)
A surplus due to excess demand.
d)
A surplus due to excess supply.
154.
Which of the following could experience "the tragedy of the commons?"
a)
cable t.v.
b)
national defense
c)
restaurant meals
d)
fish in the ocean
155.
If a good yields a positive externality, an appropriate response by the government would be to...
a)
add a corrective tax.
b)
provide permits to limit the good's production.
c)
provide a subsidy.
d)
add a regulation.
156.
The area of consumer surplus is  found.
a)
Below the demand curve and above the supply curve before market equilibrium quantity.
b)
Above the demand curve and below the supply curve after market equilibrium quantity.
c)
Below the demand curve and above equilibrium price before equilibrium quantity.
d)
Above the supply curve and below equilibrium price before market equilibrium.
157.

If marginal cost is less than the average total cost, then the average total cost curve will.

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

c)

Not change

158.

Why does the average total cost curve decrease as production increases in the beginning?

a)

Average variable costs are increasing.

b)

Average fixed costs are decreasing.

c)

Average fixed costs are the same.

d)

Average fixed costs are increasing.

159.

Why does average total cost eventually rise?

a)

Average fixed costs eventually begin to rise at an increasing rate.

b)

Average variable cost eventually begin to rise at an increasing rate.

c)

Average marginal costs eventually decrease.

160.

Which of the following graphs will always decrease?

a)

Marginal cost

b)

Average Variable Cost

c)

Average Fixed Cost

d)

Average total cost

161.

Which of the following is a typical fixed cost?

a)

utilities

b)

rent

c)

hourly labor

d)

materials

162.

Which of the following is an example of an implicit cost?

(i)the owner of a firm forgoing an opportunity to earn a large salary working for Amazon (ii) interest paid on the firm's debt (iii) rent paid by the firm to lease office space (iv) interest earned from savings that was used to purchase equipment for the firm.

a)

i only

b)

i and ii only

c)

i and iii only

d)

i and iv only

e)

i, ii and iv

163.

Economists normally assume that the goal of a firm is to

(i) sell as much of their product as possible.(ii )set the price of the product as high as possible.(iii) maximize profit.

a)

i only

b)

i and iii only

c)

ii and iii only

d)

iii only

e)

i, ii and iii

164.

The efficient scale of production occurs when

a)

marginal cost is equal to average total cost.

b)

marginal cost is less than average fixed cost.

c)

marginal cost is less than average variable cost.

d)

marginal cost is greater than average total cost

e)

marginal cost is less than average total cost

165.

Which RCHS teacher teacher says "Okay Folks" in order to help each the efficient scale of learning in their classroom?

a)

Mr. Gross

b)

Mr. Riley

c)

Mr. Hicks

d)

Mr. Shirlen

e)

Mr. Jenkins

166.

What is economics?

4 lines
167.

Microeconomics deals with

a)

Government intervention

b)

individual choice

c)

All of the above

168.

What is Demand?

4 lines
169.

Internal factors that influencing demand..

a)

Consumer income

b)

Population size

c)

Price of goods itself

d)

Expectation future price

170.

What is definition of supply in economics?

4 lines
171.

Factors affecting price elasticity of demand

a)

Income level

b)

Nature of goods

c)

Income level

d)

Production cost

172.

The law of demand says

a)

the higher the price the greater the demand

b)

the lower the price the greater the demand

c)

none of the above

173.
The formula for calculating elasticity of demand is:
a)
The % change in price over the % change in quantity demanded
b)
The % change in quantity demanded over the % change in price
c)
The change in price over the change in quantity demaned
d)
The change in quantity demanded over the change in price
174.
The price elasticity of demand measures how much
a)
quantity demanded responds to a change in price.
b)
quantity demanded responds to a change in income.
c)
price responds to a change in demand.
d)
demand responds to a change in supply.
175.

For inferior goods, Income Elasticity of Demand will typically be...…

a)

Positive

b)

Negative

c)

Both

d)

None of these

176.

A firm’s demand curve for labor is equal to a segment of its

a)

average variable cost curve

b)

total revenue curve

c)

marginal cost curve

d)

marginal revenue product curve

e)

average product curve

177.

The graph above shows the marginal revenue product curve and supply curve of labor for a firm. The introduction of new management techniques dramatically increases workers productivity. Which of the following changes is most likely to occur?

a)

The supply curve will shift to the left, increasing the wage rate.

b)

The supply curve will shift to the right, increasing employment.

c)

The marginal revenue product curve will shift to the right, increasing wage rate.

d)

The marginal revenue product curve will shift to the left, reducing employment.

e)

Neither the marginal revenue product curve nor the supply curve will shift, but the wage will increase and employment will fall.

178.

Which of the following is most likely to shift the demand for aircraft mechanics to the right?

a)

An increase in the demand for air travel

b)

An increase in the price of a license necessary for aircraft mechanics

c)

A decrease in the price of a license necessary for aircraft mechanics

d)

A decrease in the demand for air travel

e)

A decrease in the marginal productivity of aircraft mechanics

179.

A profit-maximizing firm will hire

a)

labor until its wage rate equals its average revenue product

b)

labor until its wage rate equals its marginal revenue product

c)

labor until its wage rate equals the interest rate

d)

capital until the interest rate equals the wage rate

e)

capital until the interest rate exceeds the wage rate

180.

Assume a firm uses only two inputs, capital (K) and labor (L), to produce its output. Let the marginal product of capital be MPK , the marginal product of labor be MPL , the price of capital be PK , and the price of labor be PL . The least-cost combination of capital and labor needed to produce a given level of output is given by which of the following?

a)

MPL /PL = MPK /PK

b)

MPL /PL > MPK /PK

c)

MPL /PK = MPK /PL

d)

(MPL)PL = (MPK)PK

e)

MPL = MPK

181.

Marginal revenue product is defined as the

a)

change in income that occurs when an individual works additional hours

b)

change in total revenue that occurs when one additional unit of the good is produced

c)

change in total revenue that occurs when one additional unit of an input is employed

d)

total revenue divided by the quantity of labor employed

e)

change in total cost that occurs when one additional unit of an input is employed

182.

For a firm hiring labor in a perfectly competitive labor market, the marginal revenue product curve slopes downward after some point because as more of a factor is employed, which of the following declines?

a)

Marginal product

b)

Marginal factor cost

c)

Marginal cost

d)

Total output

e)

Wage rates

183.

Assume that a firm is hiring labor in a perfectly competitive labor market. If the marginal revenue product of labor is greater than the wage rate, which of the following will be true?

a)

The firm must be losing money.

b)

The firm should employ more workers.

c)

The firm should replace workers with capital.

d)

The firm is maximizing its profits.

e)

The firm is experiencing diminishing marginal utility.

184.

The wage rate is $10 per hour and the last worker hired by the firm increased output by 100 units. Computers rent for $100 per hour and the last computer rented by the firm increased output by 2,000 units. To minimize costs the firm should

a)

hire more workers and rent more computers because the marginal revenue products of both workers and computers are greater than their respective prices.

b)

hire more workers and reduce the number of computers rented because workers are cheaper than computers

c)

lay off workers and rent more computers because computers produce more output per dollar of additional expenditure

d)

lay off workers and rent more computers because computers produce more output

e)

keep the same number of workers and computers because the marginal revenue products of both workers and computers are positive

185.

An increase in the demand for automobiles will cause the demand for skilled automobile workers and the wage rate of skilled automobile workers to change in which of the following ways?

a)

Demand - Decrease; Wage Rate - Increase

b)

Demand - Decrease; Wage Rate - Not Change

c)

Demand - Increase; Wage Rate - Decrease

d)

Demand - Increase; Wage Rate - Increase

e)

Demand - Not Change; Wage Rate - Increase

186.

Which of the following will happen in the labor market if the price of the good produced by the workers decreases?

a)

The marginal product of labor will increase.

b)

The marginal product of labor will decrease.

c)

The marginal revenue product of labor will increase.

d)

The marginal revenue product of labor will decrease.

e)

The demand curve for labor will shift to the right.

187.

According to the information in the table above, the twelfth worker would increase the hourly profit by

a)

$0.20

b)

$1.10

c)

$1.30

d)

$2.40

e)

$5.20

188.

The concept of derived demand is described by which of the following?

a)

A decrease in the demand for theater tickets will decrease the demand for actresses and actors.

b)

If the salaries of basketball players increase, the quantity of basketball players demanded will decrease.

c)

An increase in the income of consumers will increase the demand for opera tickets.

d)

An increase in the demand for movie tickets will decrease the demand for video rentals.

e)

A decrease in the price of movie tickets will increase the demand for movie tickets.

189.

An individual's labor supply curve is derived from that person's preferences about the trade-off between income and

a)

work

b)

wealth

c)

nominal wages

d)

productivity

e)

leisure

190.

Suppose that a large number of unskilled workers enter a nation’s labor market. If the labor market is competitive, the number of unskilled workers hired and the wage rate will most likely change in which of the following ways?

a)

Workers Hired - Increase; Wage Rate - Increase

b)

Workers Hired - Increase; Wage Rate - Decrease

c)

Workers Hired - Increase; Wage Rate - Not Change

d)

Workers Hired - Decrease; Wage Rate - Increase

e)

Workers Hired - Decrease; Wage Rate - Decrease

191.

Given the production information in the table above, how many workers would be employed if the wage rate were $20.00 per day and if sandwiches sold for $0.50?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

4

d)

5

e)

7

192.

Assume that the last worker a firm hired produces 60 additional units of output per hour and the last machine rented produces 6,000 units of output per hour. A worker’s hourly wage rate is $12, and the rental cost of a machine is $1,000 per hour. In order to minimize the cost of its current output, the firm should

a)

do nothing, because the costs of production are minimized

b)

increase the use of labor and decrease the use of capital

c)

increase the use of capital and decrease the use of labor

d)

increase the use of labor and increase the use of capital

e)

decrease the use of labor and decrease the use of capital

193.

The graph above shows a monopsony labor market. In the absence of any regulations, which of the following represents the number of workers the firm will hire and the wage rate it will offer to those workers?

a)

Workers - 15; Wage Rate - $30

b)

Workers - 20; Wage Rate - $20

c)

Workers - 20; Wage Rate - $40

d)

Workers - 30; Wage Rate - $30

e)

Workers - 40; Wage Rate - $40

194.

A change in which of the following will NOT cause a shift in the demand curve for a factor of production?

a)

Demand for the goods produced by the factor

b)

Prices of the goods produced by the factor

c)

Prices of substitute factors

d)

Supply of the factor

e)

Supply of substitute factors

195.

For a certain firm, the marginal revenue product for the last unit of labor is $60, and the marginal revenue product for the last unit of capital is $100. Which of the following combinations of factor prices would be necessary for the firm to maximize profits?

a)

PL - $2; PK - $5

b)

PL - $3; PK - $20

c)

PL - $10; PK - $10

d)

PL - $2; PK - $25

e)

PL - $60; PK - $100