WorksheetsCompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Chapters 9 - 12
Total questions: 40
Worksheet time: 20mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
A user complains that every time they open their Internet browser, it no longer goes to their preferred home page, and advertisements pop up in dialog boxes that they have to close. What is the likely cause?
a)
Spyware
b)
Trojan
c)
Virus
d)
Worm
2.
A user logs into their computer and is presented with a screen showing a Department of Justice logo indicating the computer has been locked due to the user violating federal law. The screen gives several details of the violation and indicates that the user must pay a fine of $500 within 72 hours, or a warrant will be issued for their arrest. The user cannot unlock the system. What type of malware has likely infected the computer?
a)
Keylogger
b)
Ransomware
c)
Rootkit
d)
Trojan
e)
Worm
3.
What kind of malware can spread through a network without any human interaction?
a)
PUP
b)
Trojan horse
c)
Virus
d)
Worm
4.
You’ve traced some anomalous network activity to malware that’s infected a whole department’s computers. They’re processing a distributed task using spare CPU cycles, communicating with a remote server, and sending emails to random targets. What kind of malware is it?
a)
Botnet
b)
PUP
c)
Spyware
d)
Trojan
5.
You’ve found a computer infected by stealth malware. The program installed itself as part of the computer’s boot process to gain access to the entire operating system and hide from anti-malware software. What kind of malware is it?
a)
Armored virus
b)
Backdoor
c)
Rootkit
d)
Spyware
6.
Which Windows encryption tool can protect the entire system volume?
a)
BitLocker
b)
Encrypting File System
c)
Both
d)
Neither
7.
Your organization has a degausser in the basement. What media can it securely destroy??
a)
Backup tapes
b)
CDs and DVDs
c)
Hard drives
d)
Paper documents
e)
SSDs
8.
What cryptographic tool is commonly built into a motherboard?
a)
FDE
b)
DLP
c)
HSM
d)
TPM
9.
What might protect users from copying sensitive files to external media?
a)
FDE
b)
DLP
c)
HSM
d)
TPM
10.
Your organization has a critical database full of customer PII, and a new employee was just authorized to use it. How would you best describe the role of the system administrator who configures user permissions in the database software?
a)
Data custodian
b)
Data owner
c)
Data steward
d)
Privacy officer
11.
What was the first version of Windows to include real-time antivirus scanning?
a)
Windows XP Service Pack 2
b)
Windows Vista
c)
Windows 7
d)
Windows 8
e)
Windows 8.1
12.
A company configures workstations only to run software on an approved list. What is this an example of?
a)
Block listing
b)
Hardening
c)
Sandboxing
d)
Allow listing
13.
Downgrades are usually easier than upgrades.
a)
true
b)
false
14.
What security feature makes it more difficult for an attacker to trick you into installing a fraudulent Ethernet driver that reports on your network activities?
a)
Code signing
b)
Firewall
c)
HIDS
d)
Trusted hardware
15.
What potential security risk does an SD card pose that a USB thumb drive does not?
a)
Data exfiltration
b)
Malware
c)
Photographs of sensitive areas
d)
Wireless attacks
16.
What kind of application centrally manages security policy on all company mobile devices? Choose the best response
a)
Asset tracking
b)
BYOD
c)
GPS
d)
MDM
17.
What are essential security steps on all mobile devices? Select all that apply.
a)
Configuring antivirus software
b)
Configuring remote backup features
c)
Installing a firewall app
d)
Regularly applying operating system updates
e)
Using biometric authentication
18.
Your company allows you to use the same smartphone for both personal and work purposes, but only if it’s one of a half-dozen different models on an approved list. If you don’t have an approved device, the company will pay for part of your upgrade. What kind of deployment model does the company use?
a)
BYOD
b)
COBO
c)
COPE
d)
CYOD
19.
What kind of policy governs the removal of sensitive data and credentials when a user device is no longer used for company business?
a)
Asset tracking
b)
Offboarding
c)
Onboarding
d)
Storage segmentation
20.
What connection type is very similar to Bluetooth but used by more specialized devices?
a)
ANT
b)
GSM
c)
NFC
d)
SATCOM
21.
You’ve taken up a contract helping to upgrade the existing industrial control network for an oil refinery. What network type should you expect to work with?
a)
DCS
b)
IoT
c)
SCADA
d)
VoIP
22.
You’ve been asked to provide security advice for a custom robotics project using an off-the-shelf single-board computer and a specialized Linux operating system. What technology should you research first?
a)
Arduino
b)
FPGA
c)
Raspberry Pi
d)
RTOS
23.
The facilities manager wants to deploy IoT devices for building automation, using an open wireless standard. Which of the following should you recommend?
a)
CAN bus
b)
NB-IoT
c)
Z-Wave
d)
Zigbee
24.
An attack on your web application began with a long string of numbers sent to a field that’s only supposed to hold a four-digit variable. What kind of attack was it?
a)
Buffer overflow
b)
Integer overflow
c)
LDAP injection
d)
XSRF
25.
What application attacks directly target the database programs sitting behind web servers? Select all that apply.
a)
Command injection
b)
Cross-site scripting
c)
Session hijacking
d)
SQL injection
e)
XML injection
26.
What SQL injection technique relies on unfiltered semicolons?
a)
Blind injection
b)
Signature evasion
c)
Stacked query
d)
XSRF
27.
What XSS techniques don’t require the attacker to store data on the target server? Select all that apply
a)
DOM-based
b)
Persistent
c)
Reflective
d)
XSRF
28.
What application vulnerability can be exploited by providing a series of standard data inputs with a specific sequence and timing?
a)
Buffer overflow
b)
Injection
c)
Race condition
d)
Request forgery
29.
You want to test an application to make sure it doesn’t behave insecurely when it receives non-standard input. What technique should you use?
a)
Escaping
b)
Fuzzing
c)
Sanitization
d)
Validation
30.
What kind of attack do synchronizer tokens help prevent?
a)
Buffer overflow
b)
SQL injection
c)
XSS
d)
XSRF
31.
You're researching a recent XSS attack against a web application. The developer showed you the JavaScript code used to sanitize and validate input in the browser; even if you're not a coder, it seems like it would have prevented the attack. What is the most likely reason the web application was vulnerable?
a)
Client-side validation can be easily bypassed.
b)
Input validation doesn't reliably protect against XSS attacks.
c)
Server-side validation can be easily bypassed.
d)
The attacker performed an injection attack to bypass input validation.
32.
You’re reviewing a web application. Which of these features are security warning signs? Select all that apply
a)
Input errors are logged and clearly displayed to users in full detail.
b)
The web server and database software are on separate physical servers, both similarly secured.
c)
Input validation is performed more rigorously on the client side than on the server side.
d)
The HTTPOnly flag is set on session cookies.
e)
Secret cookies are used to prevent XSRF attacks.
33.
What automation practice keeps code created by multiple developers from diverging or conflicting?
a)
Continuous delivery
b)
Continuous deployment
c)
Continuous integration
d)
Continuous monitoring
34.
You’re helping a software development team choose a secure cloud-based solution. The team wants to develop custom web applications but prefer the development environment itself to be provided by the hosting service. What kind of service model should you evaluate?
a)
IaaS
b)
MaaS
c)
PaaS
d)
SaaS
35.
What kind of virtualization relies on a “master image”?
a)
Bare metal
b)
Container
c)
Non-persistent VDI
d)
Persistent VDI
36.
As part of a cloud transition, your team is examining IaC approaches for cloud orchestration. You’ve been asked to tell a less technical stakeholder the relative advantages of immutable infrastructure over mutable. Which of the following might you say? Select all that apply
a)
Developers new to IaC will have an easier time adjusting to immutable infrastructure.
b)
Immutable infrastructure uses more intuitive declarative scripts.
c)
Immutable infrastructure is less prone to configuration drift.
d)
Immutable infrastructure makes it easier to deploy custom servers.
e)
Immutable infrastructure scales more easily.
37.
This morning, you received a notification about an API vulnerability in your CSP’s serverless architecture technologies. Which of your cloud-based services is most likely to be directly affected by the vulnerability or subsequent API changes?
a)
A blob storage service used for offsite backups
b)
A CSP-provided CRM application used by sales representatives
c)
A microservice-based application developed in-house for inventory management
d)
An SOA-based web application deployed for your customer service team
38.
Your organization has decided to outsource several IT services to a cloud provider. They’re hosted outside your enterprise network, but you want to centrally manage all authentication, encryption, activity logging, and other security policies for connections between local computers and the cloud. What security solution would address these issues?
a)
On-premise policies
b)
Private deployment
c)
Security as a Service
d)
Security broker
39.
On a security forum you learned that a competitor suffered a data breach when an industrial spy bypassed cloud security policies by downloading sensitive data from a company Google Docs account and sharing it on a personal Google Docs account. What security controls could prevent it from happening to you?
a)
API inspection
b)
Containerization
c)
Instance awareness
d)
Security groups
40.
As part of a cloud transition, you're looking for something to tie disparate services together, like the ESB in the on-premises data center. What kind of cloud service should you look for?
a)
AaaS
b)
FWaaS
c)
iPaaS
d)
MaaS
100 %
