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Worksheets

Final review pt 2

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

CR centering for an esophagogram should be to the vertebral level of:

a)

T3 or T4

b)

T5 or T6

c)

T7

d)

the sternal angle

2.

Cobalt-60–based units are used for intraoperative radiation therapy (IORT) procedures of the brain.

a)

False

b)

True

3.

Computer-aided detection (CAD) is reported to improve cancer detection rates by:

a)

2%

b)

4%

c)

50%

d)

5% to 15%

4.

Current multislice CT scanners can acquire up to 320 slices per x-ray tube rotation.

a)

True

b)

False

5.

During the initial enema tip insertion, the tip is aimed:

a)

directly superior.

b)

toward the umbilicus.

c)

toward the coccyx.

d)

directly posterior.

6.

Each gradient coil is an electromagnet

a)

True

b)

False

7.

Fear and combative resistance from a young child are common initial responses to a radiographic procedure.

a)

True

b)

False

8.

For an average adult, the amount of barium ingested is one 16-oz cup for a small bowel only series.

a)

True

b)

False

9.

Functional MRI is based on the:

a)

decrease in signal produced during selective neural activity of the brain.

b)

decrease in blood flow to the local vasculature that accompanies neural activity in the brain.

c)

increase in the uptake of contrast media within the brain.

d)

changes in blood flow to the local vasculature that accompany neural activity in the brain.

10.

Gonadal shielding should not be used for any studies of the pelvis for bilateral hip evaluation.

a)

False

b)

True

11.

How is the CR aligned for the acanthiomeatal (reverse Waters) projection for the facial bones?

a)

Perpendicular to the plane of the IR

b)

Parallel to the lips-meatal line

c)

15-degree cephalad angle to the orbitomeatal line

d)

Parallel to the mentomeatal line

12.

How much CR angulation should be used for an AP axial projection of the clavicle on an asthenic patient?

a)

30-degree cephalad

b)

15-degree caudal

c)

40-degree caudal

d)

10-degree cephalad

13.

How much barium is typically given to a 3- to 10-year-old child during an upper GI series?

a)

6 to 12 ounces

b)

14 to 16 ounces

c)

1 cup

d)

4 to 6 ounces

14.

How much central ray (CR) angulation is required for the mediolateral oblique projection of an average-sized breast?

a)

60 degrees

b)

45 degrees

c)

70 degrees

d)

90 degrees

15.

How much rotation away from the IR is required for a trauma scapular Y projection?

a)

45 to 60 degrees

b)

25 to 30 degrees

c)

35 to 45 degrees

d)

15 to 20 degrees

16.

How should a breast implant be moved for a craniocaudal projection?

a)

It is displaced laterally

b)

No attempt should be made to move the implant because of the danger of rupture

c)

It is displaced posteriorly toward the chest wall

d)

It is displaced anteriorly toward the apex

17.

How should the CR be aligned for a trauma PA projection of the elbow?

a)

Perpendicular to the interepicondylar plane

b)

None of the options; projection should be taken AP, not PA

c)

Parallel to the interepicondylar plane

d)

Perpendicular to the palmar surface of the hand

18.

How should the CR be aligned for an AP projection of the chest?

a)

Perpendicular to the long axis of the sternum

b)

Parallel to the midsagittal plane

c)

Perpendicular to the plane of the image receptor (IR)

d)

Perpendicular to the midcoronal plane

19.

Ideally, the horizontal beam lateral projections for the cervical spine require a ____ source–image receptor distance (SID).

a)

96-inch (245-cm)

b)

40- to 44-inch (100- to 110-cm)

c)

72-inch (180-cm)

d)

35- to 40-inch (90- to 100-cm)

20.

In what position is the patient placed for the enema tip insertion?

a)

Prone

b)

Modified lithotomy

c)

Sims

d)

Lithotomy

21.

In which quadrant of the left breast would the 7 o’clock position be located?

a)

LOQ

b)

UIQ

c)

UOQ

d)

LIQ

22.

Increasing the SID to 50 inches (130 cm) without a change in technical factors will decrease pediatric exposure without a loss of image detail.

a)

True

b)

False

23.

It is the responsibility of the technologist to determine if child abuse has occurred and then report it to law enforcement.

a)

True

b)

False

24.

Lipids (fats) are broken down into fatty acids and glycerol as they are digested and absorbed by the:

a)

stomach only

b)

none of the options (are not digested)

c)

stomach and small bowel

d)

small bowel only

25.

MRI can produce axial, sagittal, and coronal perspectives of the anatomy.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

MRI uses a low-energy form of ionizing radiation.

a)

False

b)

True

27.

OR tables are considered sterile only at the level of the tabletop.

a)

True

b)

False

28.

On a T1-weighted image, fat appears as a ____ signal.

a)

light gray

b)

dark

c)

dark gray

d)

bright

29.

On a T2-weighted image, white brain matter appears as a ____ signal.

a)

dark

b)

dark gray

c)

light gray

d)

bright

30.

Once food enters the stomach and is mixed with gastric secretions, it is termed:

a)

chyme

b)

bile

c)

lipids

d)

biologic catalysts.

31.

Only sterile items are allowed within the sterile field.

a)

True

b)

False

32.

Patient preparation for an adult upper GI series includes:

a)

NPO 4 hours before the procedure

b)

nothing; no patient preparation is required

c)

NPO 24 hours before the procedure

d)

NPO 8 hours before the procedure

33.

Postreduction projections of the upper and lower limbs generally require only the joint nearest to the fracture site.

a)

True

b)

False

34.

Protective aprons worn during fluoroscopy must possess at least ____ mm lead equivalency (Pb/Eq.).

a)

0.25

b)

0.5

c)

0.75

d)

1

35.

Submillimeter slice thicknesses are possible with multislice CT scanners.

a)

True

b)

False

36.

The 2 o’clock position in the left breast corresponds to the ____ o’clock position in the right breast.

a)

2

b)

10

c)

5

d)

8

37.

The AP reverse Caldwell projection for a trauma skull examination requires the CR be:

a)

15-degree cephalad to the orbitomeatal line

b)

parallel to the infraorbitomeatal line

c)

parallel to the lips-meatal line

d)

parallel to the orbitomeatal line.

38.

The American Cancer Society estimates one in _____ women will develop invasive breast cancer

a)

four

b)

two

c)

six

d)

eight

39.

The ImageGently ®.org campaign is designed to use minimal immobilization techniques and measures when imaging a young child.

a)

False

b)

True

40.

The abbreviation ORIF refers to:

a)

orthopedic rodding internal fixation

b)

open reduction internal fracture

c)

orthopedic reduction internal fixation

d)

open reduction internal fixation

41.

The adhesive surface of the tape should be applied directly to the skin of infants to help prevent movement of the body part during the exposure.

a)

False

b)

True

42.

The capability to create accurate reconstruction of patient data into alternative planes (coronal, sagittal, three dimensional) is termed:

a)

multiplanar reconstruction

b)

algorithmic reconstruction

c)

multiple image reconstruction

d)

maximum intensity projection

43.

The gantry houses the x-ray tube and the detector array.

a)

True

b)

False

44.

The glandular tissue of the breast is divided into 15 to 20:

a)

sections

b)

ducts

c)

lobes

d)

partitions

45.

The height of the enema bag must be set at 40 inches (100 cm) above the radiographic table at the onset of the study.

a)

False

b)

True

46.

The horizontal beam lateral lumbar spine projection requires a CR position that is:

a)

perpendicular to the coronal plane

b)

perpendicular to the vertebral column

c)

angled 5- to 7-degree cephalic

d)

ngled 5- to 7-degree caudad.

47.

The ideal kVp range for a double-contrast barium enema is:

a)

130 to 140

b)

90 to 100

c)

100 to 125.

d)

70 to 80

48.

The liver is located primarily in the ____ of the abdomen.

a)

RUQ

b)

LLQ

c)

RLQ

d)

LUQ

49.

The location of origin of the MR signal within the patient is determined by:C

a)

TE (time-to-echo)

b)

relaxation time

c)

frequency of MR signal

d)

wavelength of MR signal.

50.

The loud “knocking” heard during an MRI study is due to the gradient coils.

a)

True

b)

False