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WorksheetsAmazon AWS CLF-C01
Total questions: 195
Worksheet time: 2hrs 38mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Which of the following compute services uses a hypervisor?
a)
Virtual machines
b)
Containers
c)
Serverless computing
d)
Functions
2.
You have an on-premises network that contains several servers. You are planning to migrate all the servers to the cloud. You need to recommend a solution to ensure that some of the servers are available if a single cloud data center goes offline for an extended period. What should you include in the recommendation?
a)
Low latency
b)
Fault tolerance
c)
Elasticity
d)
Scalability
3.
Your company hosts an accounting application named MyAccount that is used by all the customers of the company. MyAccount has low usage during the first three weeks of each month and very high usage during the last week of each month. Which benefit of cloud computing supports cost management for this type of usage pattern?
a)
High availability
b)
Elasticity
c)
Load balancing
d)
Low latency
4.
Data storage includes data that is read or written. True or false?
a)
true
b)
false
5.
You have 1,000 EC2 instances in a data center. You plan to migrate all the EC2 instances to an AWS On- Demand pricing. You need to identify which expenditure model to use for the planned AWS solution. Which expenditure model should you identify?
a)
Capital
b)
Elastic
c)
Scalable
d)
Operational
6.
Cloud computing provides flexibility between capital expenditures (CapEx) and operational expenditures (OpEx). True or false?
a)
true
b)
false
7.
Which of the following occurs when the capacity exceeds the demand resulting in unused resources in an on- premises data center?
a)
Over-provisioning
b)
Under-provisioning
c)
Elasticity
d)
Scalability
8.
AWS On-Demand pricing is an example of CapEx. True or false?
a)
true
b)
false
9.
Which of the following is a benefit of the economies of scale? Select all that apply
a)
Acquiring hardware such as servers, networking, and storage at a lower cost
b)
Acquiring hardware such as servers, networking, and storage at a higher cost
c)
Making deals with various governments, agencies, and utilities to get tax savings
d)
Higher pricing on utilities such as power, cooling, and high-speed network connectivity between sites
e)
Lower pricing on utilities such as power, cooling, and high-speed network connectivity between sites
10.
Which of the following are true about a PaaS solution that hosts web apps? Select all that apply
a)
It provides full control of the operating systems that host applications.
b)
It provides the ability to scale the platform automatically.
c)
It limits the control and access of your applications and data.
d)
It provides professional development services to add new features to custom applications.
11.
An organization that hosts its infrastructure in a private cloud can close its data center. True or false?
a)
true
b)
false
12.
What are two characteristics of the public cloud?
a)
Dedicated hardware
b)
Metered pricing
c)
Unsecured connections
d)
Limited storage
e)
Self-service management
13.
When planning to migrate a public website to a cloud, you must… Choose the best response
a)
Plan to pay monthly usage costs
b)
Deploy a VPN
c)
Plan to pay for transferring all the website data to the cloud
d)
Plan to reduce the number of connections to the website
14.
A virtual machine is what type of cloud deployment? Choose the best response
a)
On-premises data center
b)
IaaS
c)
PaaS
d)
SaaS
15.
What type of cloud deployment is a managed SQL database is an example of? Choose the best response
a)
On-premises data center
b)
IaaS
c)
PaaS
d)
SaaS
16.
Which compute option reduces costs when you commit to an hourly amount of compute usage for a 1-year or 3-year term? Choose the best response
a)
Spot Instances
b)
Reserved Instances
c)
Savings Plans
d)
Dedicated Hosts
e)
Tiered pricing
17.
Which of the following is a cost-saving option that allows you to prepay for certain AWS resources like Amazon EC2 and Amazon RDS? Choose the best response
a)
Spot Instances
b)
Reserved Instances
c)
Savings Plans
d)
Dedicated Hosts
e)
Tiered pricing
18.
Which pricing model allows you to benefit from the economies of scale? Choose the best response
a)
Spot Instances
b)
Reserved Instances
c)
Savings Plans
d)
Dedicated Hosts
e)
Tiered pricing
19.
Which of the following described AWS On-Demand (pay-as-you-go) pricing? Choose the best response
a)
You replace large upfront capital expenses with low fixed payments.
b)
You replace low upfront capital expenses with large variable payments.
c)
You replace large upfront capital expenses with low variable payments.
d)
You replace low upfront capital expenses with large fixed payments.
20.
An organization is considering reserving EC2 compute capacity for three years to obtain a large discount. What type of RI can they choose that will allow them to modify the reservation if needed? Choose the best response
a)
Standard RIs
b)
Convertible RIs
c)
Elastic RIs
d)
Scheduled RIs
21.
The AWS Free Tier includes offers that are available to new AWS customers for a certain period of time following their AWS sign-up date. What is the duration of this period? Choose the best response
a)
3 months
b)
6 months
c)
9 months
d)
12 months
22.
AWS offers some products for free all the time. True or false?
a)
true
b)
false
23.
Your organization needs to run a web application for a single day (with no interruptions). Which of the following should you use when purchasing your EC2 instance? Choose the best response
a)
On-Demand instances
b)
Spot instances
c)
Reserved instances
d)
Convertible RIs
24.
Your organization needs to run a web application to process millions of recipes. The application is setup to resume processing if it is interrupted. Which of the following EC2 instance buying options would be the most cost-effective? Choose the best response
a)
On-Demand instances
b)
Spot instances
c)
Reserved instances
d)
Savings Plans
e)
Convertible RIs
25.
Which of the following is NOT correct for EC2 On-Demand instances?
a)
On-Demand instances use a pay-as-you-go pricing model.
b)
On-Demand instances require paying a startup fee.
c)
On-Demand instances do not require a commitment or upfront payment.
d)
On-Demand instances are charged per second based on an hourly rate.
26.
What is guaranteed in an AWS service level agreement (SLA)? Choose the best response
a)
Feature availability
b)
Uptime and connectivity
c)
Bandwidth
d)
Performance
e)
Resiliency
27.
An organization is planning on hosting a set of resources in the AWS account. They are aware that most AWS services provide at least a minimum SLA of 99.9%. Which of the following techniques could they use to increase the uptime for their resources? Choose the best response
a)
Add the resources to the same data center
b)
Add the resources to multiple regions
c)
Add the resources to the same account
d)
Add the resources to the same Availability Zone
28.
A company is trying some services that are being offered by AWS in the Free Tier. They won’t ever exceed the Free Tier level, so they don’t need to pay for these services. Do these services allow provide credits for downtime?
a)
Yes
b)
No
29.
A company has a set of AWS EC2 instances. One of the instances was down for an extended period of time due to issues with the underlying AWS infrastructure. The downtime exceeded the standard Amazon defined SLA for EC2. How will Amazon remedy the situation? Choose the best response
a)
They will provide the instance free of cost to use for a specific duration of time.
b)
They will not provide any reimbursement.
c)
They will provision another instance free of cost.
d)
They will provide service credits to the customer.
30.
Which support plans provide support via email, chat, and phone? Select all that apply
a)
Basic
b)
Developer
c)
Business
d)
Enterprise
31.
Which support plans provide a full set of checks in the Trusted Advisor? Select all that apply
a)
Basic
b)
Developer
c)
Business
d)
Enterprise
32.
Which of the following options are included in the Enterprise support plan that are not in other plans? Select all that apply
a)
A TAM (Technical Account Manager)
b)
Unlimited cases / unlimited contacts (IAM supported)
c)
A Concierge Support Team
d)
24x7 phone, email, and chat access to Cloud Support Engineers
e)
Well-Architected Reviews
33.
Which of the following options are included in the Business support plan? Select all that apply
a)
A TAM (Technical Account Manager)
b)
Unlimited cases / unlimited contacts (IAM supported)
c)
A full set of Trusted Advisor checks.
d)
24x7 phone, email, and chat access to Cloud Support Engineers
e)
Well-Architected Reviews
34.
Which one of the following is the Twitter handle for tweets to get answers and support from the official Amazon AWS Twitter support channel? Choose the best response
a)
@AmazonSupport
b)
@AWSExpert
c)
@AWSSupport
d)
@AWSTechSupport
e)
@AWSHelp
35.
To what level of physical granularity can you deploy an app?
a)
Data center
b)
Region
c)
Server rack
d)
Geographies
36.
To use AWS data centers that are made available with power, cooling, and networking capabilities independent from other data centers in a region, what should the region support?
a)
Region pairs
b)
Geography distributions
c)
Service-level agreements
d)
Availability Zones
37.
Which of the following describes application availability?
a)
The overall time that a system is running and functional.
b)
Application support for an Availability Zone.
c)
The service-level agreement of the associated resource.
38.
You can apply tags to any type of resource on AWS. True or false?
a)
true
b)
false
39.
If you apply tags at a resource group level, they are propagated to resources within the resource group. True or false?
a)
true
b)
false
40.
Which of the following approaches might be a good usage of tags?
a)
Using tags to store environment and department association
b)
Using tags in conjunction with AWS Automation to schedule maintenance windows
c)
Using tags to associate a cost center with resources for internal accounting purposes
d)
All of the above are good uses for tags
41.
Which of the following methods would be the most efficient way to ensure your organization follows a naming convention across its account? Choose the best response
a)
Send out an email with the details of your naming conventions for resources in the account.
b)
Create a policy with your naming requirements and assign it to an account role.
c)
Create a service-level agreement with your naming requirements and assign it to the account.
d)
Give all other users except for yourself read-only access to the account. Have all requests to create resources sent to you so you can review the names being assigned to resources, and then create them.
42.
A company has a set of database administrators that are responsible for implementing and managing the database resources in the organization’s AWS account. The database administrators have a set of on-premise Windows 10 workstations. Which of the following tools can they use?
a)
AWS Management console and AWS CLI only
b)
AWS Management console, AWS CLI, and AWS PowerShell
c)
AWS CLI and AWS PowerShell only
d)
AWS Management console and AWS PowerShell only
43.
A company has a set of app developers that are responsible for implementing and managing several apps in the organization’s AWS account. The app developers have a set of on-premise macOS workstations. Which of the following tools can they use?
a)
AWS Management console and AWS CLI only
b)
AWS Management console, AWS CLI, and AWS PowerShell
c)
AWS CLI and AWS PowerShell only
d)
AWS Management console and AWS PowerShell only
44.
What base call do you type in the AWS CloudShell to access AWS CLI? Choose the best response
a)
aws
b)
cli
c)
bash
d)
pwsh
45.
You cannot connect to and manage EC2 instances or web apps with the AWS mobile app. True or false?
a)
true
b)
false
46.
Which AWS service enables AWS architects to manage infrastructure as code? Choose the best response
a)
CloudWatch
b)
CloudTrail
c)
CloudFormation
d)
CloudArchitect
47.
What type of file is used to create a CloudFormation template? Select all that apply
a)
ASP
b)
JSON
c)
HTML
d)
YAML
e)
PHP
48.
Which of the following can you use to view how modifications will impact the running resources before implementing them?
a)
A template
b)
A stack
c)
A transform set
d)
A change set
49.
Your organization has a limited budget and is worried about cost overruns. Which of the following options can be used to notify the organization when the monthly AWS bill exceeds $3000? Choose the best response
a)
Set up a CloudWatch billing alarm that triggers an SNS notification to an email address.
b)
Set up a CloudTrail billing alarm that triggers an SNS notification to an email address.
c)
Configure Trusted Advisor to send an alert when the bill threshold has been reached.
d)
Configure the Amazon Simple Email Service to send an SNS billing notification to an email address.
50.
Your company has deployed an application on several EC2 instances. Recently, customers are complaining that sometimes they can’t reach your application. Which AWS service allows you to monitor the performance of your EC2 instances to assist in troubleshooting? Choose the best response
a)
AWS CloudTrail
b)
AWS CloudWatch
c)
Personal Health Dashboard
d)
Service Health Dashboard
51.
Which of the following are types of data collected by Amazon CloudWatch? Select all that apply
a)
Metrics
b)
Logs
c)
JSON files
d)
Config files
52.
Which of the following can you use to log API calls? Choose the best response
a)
CloudWatch
b)
CloudTrail
c)
Application Insights
d)
Trusted Advisor
53.
What can you use to visualize different kinds of data in a single pane in Amazon CloudWatch? Choose the best response
a)
Power BI
b)
Views
c)
Dashboards
d)
Event Hub
54.
You have noticed several critical EC2 instances have been terminated. Which of the following AWS services would help you determine who took this action? Choose the best response
a)
CloudWatch
b)
CloudInspector
c)
CloudTrail
d)
Trusted Advisor
55.
What health dashboard provides a global view of the health condition for AWS services? Choose the best response
a)
AWS Status Dashboard
b)
Service Health Dashboard
c)
Resource Health Dashboard
d)
Personal Health Dashboard
56.
The Status Health Dashboard can only be accessed by people with current subscriptions to the AWS platform. True or false?
a)
true
b)
false
57.
Which of the following does the Personal Health Dashboard provide? Select all that apply
a)
The current status of all AWS services.
b)
A personalized view of the status of AWS services that run your applications.
c)
Detailed troubleshooting guidance to address AWS events impacting your applications.
d)
Detailed guidance on how to optimize costs for running your application.
e)
Proactive notifications about upcoming maintenance that might affect your application.
58.
How long are events held in your Event log? Choose the best response
a)
30 days
b)
90 days
c)
120 days
d)
Until you delete them manually.
59.
Your department is planning an AWS EC2 instance, and you need to select the appropriate type. Your workload is a high traffic application server that needs to have a high CPU-to-memory ratio. Which type would you choose? Choose the best response
a)
General-purpose
b)
Compute-optimized
c)
Memory-optimized
d)
Accelerated computing
e)
Storage-optimized
60.
Your department spends several weeks configuring an EC2 instance for an application. After the workload increases, you decided you need another identical instance. How can you achieve this quickly? Choose the best response
a)
Export an AWS Configuration file from the original instance and import it into the instance.
b)
Install Aurora on the original instance and then use it to provision a duplicate instance.
c)
Generate an EBS snapshot of the original instance and use that to create the new instance.
d)
Create an AMI from the original instance and launch a new instance using that AMI.
61.
Which of the following AWS services provide elastic web-scale cloud computing that allows you to deploy operating system instances? Chose the best response
a)
Amazon EBS
b)
Amazon EC2
c)
AWS Lambda
d)
AWS Batch
62.
Amazon ECS only supports multi-container groups on Windows. True or false?
a)
true
b)
false
63.
Your organization has a video-sharing app that runs on millions of mobile devices. Demand is unpredictable and often spikes when there is a significant local or national event. Which AWS compute resource is the best match for this workload? Select all that apply
a)
EC2 instances
b)
AWS Batch
c)
Step Functions
d)
AWS Lambda
64.
Your organization has an existing web app running locally on a server located onsite. The web app requires additional capacity. You are planning to move to AWS instead of buying upgraded on-premises hardware. Which compute option would provide the quickest route to getting your web app running in AWS? Choose the best response
a)
EC2 instances
b)
Amazon ECS
c)
AWS Batch
d)
Step Functions
e)
AWS Lambda
65.
Lambda functions are normally stateless. True or false?
a)
true
b)
false
66.
What are the two serverless compute options in AWS? Select two
a)
EC2 Instances
b)
Step Functions
c)
AWS Batch
d)
AWS Lambda
e)
Amazon Elastic Container Service
67.
How do you access the AWS Marketplace? Choose the best response
a)
In the AWS Marketplace console, click All services.
b)
In the AWS Management console, click Services, and then click AWS Marketplace Subscriptions.
c)
In the AWS Marketplace console, click Launch a Subscription.
d)
In a web browser, go to marketplace.aws.com.
68.
All solutions and resources in the AWS Marketplace are free. True or false?
a)
true
b)
false
69.
AWS Elastic Beanstalk is a PaaS service you can use to automate deployments. True or false?
a)
true
b)
false
70.
When deploying web apps using Lightsail, you can only use the Linux OS. True or false?
a)
true
b)
false
71.
Which AWS app service would be best if your solution requires auto-scaling? Choose the best response
a)
AWS Elastic Beanstalk
b)
AWS Amplify
c)
AWS Lightsail
d)
AWS Lambda
72.
You are deploying a static site from a GIT repository. Which of the following AWS services would be the quickest solution for deployment? Choose the best response
a)
AWS Elastic Beanstalk
b)
AWS Amplify
c)
AWS Lightsail
d)
AWS Lambda
73.
Which app service would be the easiest way to launch and manage a virtual private server (VPS) in AWS? Choose the best response
a)
AWS Elastic Beanstalk
b)
AWS Amplify
c)
AWS Lightsail
d)
AWS Lambda
74.
With loosely coupled architectures, components can be updated independently, but you cannot add to your solution. True or false?
a)
true
b)
false
75.
What allows seamlessly connecting two or more VPCs in AWS? Choose the best response
a)
Load balancing
b)
Virtual machine scale sets
c)
Virtual service endpoints
d)
Peering
76.
Private load balancers are used to balance traffic inside your VPC, where only public IP addresses are used. True or false?
a)
true
b)
false
77.
Which of the following allows you to establish a private connection between your on-premises network and AWS? Select all that apply
a)
Direct Connect
b)
Peering
c)
Site-to-site (S2S) VPN
d)
AWS PrivateLink
78.
Which of the following are true about using Application Load Balancer? Select all that apply.
a)
All your incoming traffic needs to be from HTTP (port 80) requests.
b)
It operates at level 7 of the OSI model.
c)
It operates at level 4 of the OSI model.
d)
It allows using gateway managed cookies for sessions.
e)
It does not support WAF.
79.
What is network latency? Choose the best response
a)
The amount of data that the connection can carry.
b)
The amount of time it takes for data to travel over the network.
c)
The distance that the data must travel to reach its destination.
d)
The amount of time it takes to cache data in a CDN.
80.
How does Route 53 reduce latency? Choose the best response
a)
It chooses the endpoint that is the closest to the user’s DNS server.
b)
It chooses only the fastest networks between endpoints.
c)
It caches content on an edge server in a POP.
d)
It chooses the endpoint that’s closest to the Application Load Balancer.
81.
Your organization has two app projects that require completely different network configurations. Which AWS service will allow you to isolate resources and network configurations? Choose the best response
a)
Edge locations
b)
Amazon CloudFront
c)
Route 53
d)
Virtual Private Cloud
82.
Which of the following is an AWS global content delivery network (CDN) service? Choose the best response
a)
Route 53
b)
AWS Direct Connect
c)
Amazon CloudFront
d)
AWS VPN
83.
Which AWS service provides DNS in the AWS cloud? Choose the best response
a)
Route 53
b)
AWS Direct Connect
c)
Amazon CloudFront
d)
AWS VPN
84.
Your organization is setting up a solution in AWS. The solution needs to provide a storage solution that provides home directories for employees. Which AWS storage solution would you choose? Choose the best response
a)
Amazon S3
b)
Lake Formation
c)
Amazon EFS
d)
Amazon EBS
e)
Instance stores
85.
What is the primary kind of data that objects store? Choose the best response
a)
Structured
b)
Unstructured
c)
Semi-structured
86.
Which solution allows you to handle massive amounts of unstructured data for big data analytics? Choose the best response
a)
Instance stores
b)
AWS Lake Formation
c)
AWS EFS
d)
AWS EBS
e)
Amazon S3
87.
Which hybrid storage service enables an organization’s on-premises application to seamlessly use AWS cloud storage? Choose the best response
a)
AWS Storage Gateway
b)
AWS Snowball
c)
AWS Backup
d)
Amazon S3
e)
Amazon Direct Connect
88.
Which type of AWS storage can be considered as a virtual hard disk in the cloud? Choose the best response
a)
Instance store
b)
Amazon EFS file system
c)
Amazon EBS volume
d)
Amazon S3 archive
e)
Amazon file gateway
89.
Your organization wants to store copies of backups on Amazon S3. You need to have infrequent but rapid access to the backups. Which storage class fits these requirements? Choose the best response
a)
S3 Glacier Deep Archive
b)
S3 Standard
c)
S3 Glacier
d)
S3 One Zone-IA
90.
You are creating a web app on several AWS EC2 instances. Which storage service can you use if you need to connect multiple EC2 instances concurrently using file-level protocols? Choose the best response
a)
Instance stores
b)
Amazon EFS
c)
Amazon EBS
d)
File gateway
91.
Which of the following AWS storage services allow you to connect to storage from an on-premises application using standard file protocols? Choose the best response
a)
Instance stores
b)
Amazon EBS
c)
Amazon EFS
d)
Amazon S3
e)
Amazon Glacier
92.
What type of AWS storage would you use for media files that you want to access via the internet? Choose the best response
a)
Amazon EBS
b)
Amazon S3
c)
Amazon EFS
d)
Amazon FSx
93.
You are working on a media storage application. You want to be able to allow read/write access to your S3 buckets. Which of the following would be best suited for this requirement? Choose the best response
a)
IAM user
b)
IAM role
c)
IAM group
d)
IAM policy
94.
Your organization needs to import a large amount of structured data into a database service. What is the best suited AWS database service to achieve this? Choose the best response
a)
Amazon ElastiCache
b)
Amazon DynamoDB
c)
Amazon RDS
d)
Amazon DocumentDB
95.
You are creating a solution that requires a database that can handle semi-structured data. Which AWS solution would you suggest? Choose the best response
a)
Amazon Redshift
b)
Amazon DynamoDB
c)
Amazon RDS for PostgresSQL
d)
Amazon RDS for MySQL
e)
AWS Database Migration Services
96.
What AWS service provides five times the performance of a standard MySQL database? Choose the best response
a)
Amazon Redshift
b)
Amazon DynamoDB
c)
Amazon Aurora
d)
Amazon RDS for MySQL
e)
Amazon ElastiCache
97.
You work as an on-premises MySQL DBA. Your organization has decided to migrate to AWS cloud. Which of the following can help save time on the regular database tasks so you can focus on providing faster performance and high availability to your users?
a)
Amazon Redshift
b)
Amazon DynamoDB
c)
Amazon Aurora
d)
Amazon RDS
e)
AWS Database Migration Services
98.
What is the AWS database service that allows you to upload data structured in key-value format? Choose the best response
a)
Amazon Redshift
b)
Amazon DynamoDB
c)
Amazon Aurora
d)
Amazon RDS
e)
Amazon ElastiCache
99.
You are developing an app that generates semi-structured data. You are planning to use an Amazon RDS. Would this suit the requirement?
a)
Yes
b)
No
100.
You are developing an app that a high level of query performance on large amounts of data sets. You are planning to use an Amazon Redshift. Would this suit the requirement?
a)
Yes
b)
No
101.
Which of the following Amazon RDS features facilitates offloading of database read activity? Choose the best response
a)
Database snapshots
b)
Automated backups
c)
Multi-AZ deployments
d)
Read replicas
e)
In-memory caching
102.
You need to migrate an on-premises MySQL database to AWS RDS for MySQL. What type of migration is this?
a)
Homogeneous migration
b)
Heterogeneous migration
c)
On-premises migration
d)
Hybrid migration
103.
Which of the following is a feature of Amazon RDS that performs automatic failover when the primary database fails to respond? Choose the best response
a)
RDS snapshots
b)
RDS Write replicas
c)
RDS Single-AZ
d)
RDS Multi-AZ
104.
Which of the following are true about how publishers communicate using Amazon SNS? Select all that apply
a)
Publishers communicate asynchronously with subscribers.
b)
Publishers communicate synchronously with subscribers.
c)
Publishers communicate asynchronously with consumers.
d)
Publishers communicate synchronously with producers.
105.
Which of the following are A2P endpoints for Amazon SNS? Select all that apply
a)
Mobile push notifications
b)
Amazon SQS queues
c)
Mobile text messages (SMS)
d)
Email addresses
e)
HTTP/S
106.
What kind of queue can you use to preserve any messages that aren’t delivered before the delivery retry policy ends? Choose the best response
a)
Push queue
b)
Retry queue
c)
Hold-letter queue
d)
Dead-letter queue
107.
In Amazon SQS, which type of queue provides enhanced messaging between applications when the order of operations and events is critical or where duplicates can’t be tolerated? Choose the best response
a)
Dead-letter queue
b)
Standard queue
c)
FIFO queue
d)
Push queue
108.
What is the maximum length of an Amazon SQS message? Choose the best response
a)
156 KB
b)
256 KB
c)
356 KB
d)
498 KB
109.
Which of the following are true when building applications that use Amazon SQS? Select all that apply
a)
You can decouple your application’s functions into separate components.
b)
You cannot decouple your application’s functions into separate components.
c)
Decoupled applications tend to provide better resiliency across large workloads.
d)
Decoupling the application components does not allow them to scale independently.
110.
You are developing an IoT solution that requires a managed service that provides communication between AWS applications and massive numbers of your IoT devices. Which AWS service would you recommend? Choose the best response
a)
IoT Events
b)
IoT Device Defender
c)
IoT Analytics
d)
IoT 1-Click
111.
Which of the following AWS services provide a high level of security for IoT devices? Choose the best response
a)
IoT Core
b)
IoT Device Management
c)
IoT Device Defender
d)
IoT SiteWise
112.
Which AWS IoT service provides software that runs on a gateway that resides on-premises? Choose the best response
a)
IoT Core
b)
IoT Device Management
c)
IoT Events
d)
IoT SiteWise
113.
AWS IoT Core enables simple devices to trigger AWS Lambda functions. True or false?
a)
true
b)
false
114.
With AWS IoT Device Management, you can send firmware updates OTA. True or false?
a)
true
b)
false
115.
Which of the following is an AWS service that allows you to visually connect these different web services and devices when building your IoT applications? Choose the best response
a)
IoT Things Graph
b)
IoT Analytics
c)
IoT Events
d)
IoT SiteWise
116.
Your organization is creating an app that tracks humidity and temperature in refrigerated cases? You need to be able to analyze the data even though there might be gaps in the telemetry. Which AWS IoT service would help with this requirement? Choose the best response
a)
IoT Things Graph
b)
IoT Analytics
c)
IoT Events
d)
IoT SiteWise
117.
Which AWS IoT service allows you to select a preferred connection protocol? Choose the best response
a)
IoT Device Defender
b)
IoT Greengrass
c)
IoT Events
d)
IoT Core
118.
Which AWS IoT device software is an edge runtime?
a)
FreeRTOS
b)
IoT Greengrass
c)
IoT SiteWise
d)
IoT Core
119.
With IoT Events, you Define each event’s logic using basic if-then-else statements. True or false?
a)
true
b)
false
120.
Which of the following is a serverless, interactive analytics service? Choose the best response
a)
Amazon Athena
b)
Amazon Quicksight
c)
Amazon EMR
d)
AWS Glue
121.
Which of the following is a fully managed, Apache Spark-based analytics platform optimized for AWS? Choose the best response
a)
Amazon Athena
b)
Amazon Quicksight
c)
Amazon EMR
d)
AWS Glue
122.
Which of the following does Athena integrated with that allows you to create a unified metadata repository across various services? Choose the best response
a)
AWS Glue Data Catalogs
b)
Amazon Quicksight
c)
Amazon Kinesis
d)
Amazon EMR
123.
An AWS Glue Dynamic Frame is self-describing. True or false?
a)
true
b)
false
124.
In AWS Glue, which component is a program that connects to a data store, determines your data’s schema, and then creates metadata tables in the Glue Data Catalog? Choose the best response
a)
Job
b)
Crawler
c)
Cluster
d)
Dynamic Frame
125.
Which of the following is a fully integrated development environment for machine learning? Choose the best response
a)
AWS Glue
b)
Amazon Kinesis
c)
Amazon Quicksight
d)
SageMaker Studio
126.
Which AWS AI service would you choose to create an application with a conversational interface? Choose the best response
a)
Amazon Transcribe
b)
Amazon Polly
c)
Amazon Rekognition
d)
Amazon Lex
127.
Which Amazon SageMaker service radically reduces the time it takes to prepare and aggregate data for ML? Choose the best response
a)
JumpStart
b)
Ground Truth
c)
Data Wrangler
d)
Pipelines
128.
Your organization is setting up an AWS solution that requires the ability to analyze all of your data with a fast cloud data warehouse. Which of the following would you choose? Select all that apply
a)
Amazon Redshift
b)
AWS Lake Formation
c)
Amazon SageMaker
d)
Amazon Quicksight
129.
Your organization needs to create a repository for a development project. Which AWS service will fit this requirement? Select all that apply
a)
CodeCommit
b)
CodeArtifact
c)
CodeBuild
d)
CodeDeploy
130.
Which AWS development tool feature provides build and release services to support continuous integration of your apps? Choose the best response
a)
CodeBuild
b)
CodePipelines
c)
CodeDeploy
d)
X-Ray
131.
Which AWS development tool is an integrated development environment (IDE) that you use to write, run, and debug code? Choose the best response
a)
CodeStar
b)
CodeBuild
c)
CodeArtifact
d)
Cloud9
132.
An artifact is a group of build commands and associated settings that CodeBuild uses to run a build. True or false?
a)
true
b)
false
133.
Which of the following AWS developer tools are NOT part of the Developer Tools console? Select all that apply
a)
Cloud9
b)
CodeBuild
c)
CodeDeploy
d)
X-Ray
e)
CodeStar
134.
Which one of the following AWS services provides a cloud-based service for creating, managing, and working with software development projects on AWS? Choose the best response
a)
CloudCommit
b)
CodeBuild
c)
CodeStar
d)
CodeDeploy
e)
Cloud9
135.
A pipeline must have at least two stages. True or false?
a)
true
b)
false
136.
Which of the following are the collections of data that are worked on by pipeline actions?
a)
Pipelines
b)
Artifacts
c)
Actions
d)
Deployments
e)
Repositories
137.
Which of the following services does X-Ray perform?
a)
Debugging
b)
Deployments
c)
Service mapping
d)
Tracing
e)
Code storage
138.
Your organization wants to deploy serverless AWS Lambda functions using CodeDeploy. Will CodeDeploy meet this requirement? Yes or No?
a)
Yes
b)
No
139.
Which of the following is anything that can cause harm to an asset? Choose the best response
a)
Risk
b)
Threat
c)
Vulnerability
d)
Incident
140.
Which of the following describes the shared security model? Select the best two responses
a)
The cloud provider is responsible for security of the cloud.
b)
The cloud provider is responsible for security in the cloud.
c)
The customer is responsible for security of the cloud.
d)
The customer is responsible for security in the cloud.
141.
Which AWS identity & access management service allows you to manage identities for your apps? Choose the best response
a)
AWS Identity & Access Management (IAM)
b)
Amazon Inspector
c)
AWS Resource Access Manager
d)
Amazon Cognito
142.
Which AWS detection service provides a threat detection service? Choose the best response
a)
AWS Security Hub
b)
Amazon Inspector
c)
Amazon GuardDuty
d)
AWS CloudTrail
143.
Which AWS infrastructure service provides DDoS protection? Choose the best response
a)
AWS Security Hub
b)
AWS Network Firewall
c)
AWS Shield
d)
AWS Web Application Firewall (WAF)
144.
Which AWS data protection service allows you to store hardware-based keys for regulatory compliance? Choose the best response
a)
Amazon Macie
b)
AWS Key Management Service (KMS)
c)
AWS Certificate Manager
d)
AWS CloudHSM
145.
Which incident response service allows you to investigate potential security issues? Choose the best response
a)
AWS Artifact
b)
Amazon Detective
c)
Amazon Inspector
d)
AWS Audit Manager
146.
Which AWS service allows you to access compliance reports? Choose the best response
a)
AWS Artifact
b)
AWS Certificate Manager
c)
AWS Audit Manager
d)
Amazon Inspector
147.
Your organization has several solutions on AWS. You want to allow users to sign onto several different apps using the same credentials. Which of the following services is best suited to accomplish this? Choose the best response
a)
SSO
b)
IAM policies
c)
AWS Connect
d)
MFA
148.
Which of the following is true for AWS authentication and authorization? Choose the best response
a)
It uses OpenID Connect protocol for handling authentication and the OAuth 2.0 protocol for handling authorization.
b)
It uses OAuth 2.0 protocol for handling authentication and the OpenID Connect protocol for handling authorization.
c)
It uses OpenID Connect protocol for handling authentication and the SAML protocol for handling authorization.
d)
It uses SAML protocol for handling authentication and the OAuth 2.0 protocol for handling authorization.
149.
Which authentication factor includes biometrics? Choose the best response
a)
Knowledge
b)
Possession
c)
Inherence
d)
Location
150.
Your organization is deploying several solutions in AWS. You want to centrally manage identities for accessing AWS resources and signing into Microsoft 365. Which of the following would you recommend using? Choose the best response
a)
Amazon Cognito
b)
Simple AD
c)
AWS Connect
d)
AWS Managed Microsoft AD
151.
Which of the following requires two or more elements from the authentication factors for full authentication? Choose the best response
a)
AWS Microsoft Managed AD
b)
SSO
c)
Simple AD
d)
MFA
152.
Your organization uses has several web and mobile apps that collect user identities. Which AWS Directory Service can you use to manage these identities? Choose the best response
a)
SSO
b)
Simple AD
c)
Amazon Cognito
d)
AD Connector
153.
You want to use Microsoft AD to provide a single user identity that can be used for authentication and authorization to all resources, no matter where the resource is located (cloud or on-premises). Which of the following services would you recommend? Choose the best response
a)
AWS Managed Microsoft AD
b)
Simple AD
c)
Amazon Cognito
d)
AD Connector
154.
Your organization is planning on deploying a solution in the AWS cloud. They are planning to implement MFA for identities hosted in AWS. Is it necessary to deploy a federation solution or sync on-premises identities to the cloud?
a)
Yes
b)
No
155.
Which of the following AWS detection services provides a comprehensive view of your security posture for all your AWS accounts? Choose the best response
a)
GuardDuty
b)
Security Hub
c)
Inspector
d)
AWS Config
e)
Detective
156.
Which of the following is a security monitoring service that continuously scans your AWS workloads for security issues? Choose the best response
a)
GuardDuty
b)
Detective
c)
Amazon Macie
d)
AWS Shield
157.
Which of the following is an AWS automated security assessment service? Choose the best response
a)
GuardDuty
b)
Security Hub
c)
Inspector
d)
AWS Shield
158.
Your organization has specific requirements for resources that must meet several regulatory compliance standards. Which AWS service can help you ensure your resource configurations meet these standards? Choose the best response
a)
Security Hub
b)
Inspector
c)
AWS Secrets Manager
d)
AWS Config
159.
Your organization is using GuardDuty. You keep receiving alerts about a supposed security issue from a specific user that you know is not an issue. What can you do to stop receiving these alerts? Select all that apply
a)
Create a suppression rule.
b)
Remove the user from the Trusted IP list.
c)
Add the user from the Trusted IP list.
d)
Add the user to the Threat list.
e)
Remove the detector from that region.
160.
Your organization is using Amazon Inspector. You want to inspect your AWS environment to determine if it meets several organizational security goals. Which of the following would help you accomplish this task? Choose the best response
a)
Create a finding based on the security goals.
b)
Create a rules package based on the security goals.
c)
Create a detector based on the security goals.
d)
Install an Inspector agent.
161.
Which AWS service can give you specific information on what occurred in your AWS account by recording API calls? Choose the best response
a)
AWS Config
b)
Inspector
c)
AWS CloudTrail
d)
CloudEndure
162.
Your organization is creating a disaster recovery plan for its cloud environment. Which AWS service can help your organization quickly recover if a disaster occurs? Choose the best response
a)
AWS Config
b)
Amazon Macie
c)
Security Hub
d)
CloudEndure
163.
Which of the following are included on a Detective behavior graph? Select all that apply
a)
Findings
b)
Targets
c)
Entities
d)
Relationships
164.
Which of the following determines when a network ACL security rule is processed? Choose the best response
a)
Protocol
b)
Rule number
c)
Port range
d)
Source
165.
In AWS, security groups are stateless. True or false?
a)
true
b)
false
166.
One of your developers needs to set up an SSL security certificate on a newly deployed website. Which of the following AWS services can be used to deploy the SSL server certificate? Choose the best response
a)
AWS Config
b)
AWS ACM
c)
Route 53
d)
Security Hub
167.
Which of the following are good practices for application security credentials? Select all that apply
a)
Store them as secrets in Secret Manager.
b)
Embed them in your application code.
c)
Delete all access keys and use user names and passwords instead.
d)
Rotate them on a regular basis.
168.
Which AWS service uses pattern matching and machine learning to find and protect your sensitive data? Choose the best response
a)
GuardDuty
b)
Amazon Macie
c)
Detective
d)
AWS Shield
169.
Which of the following are needed before using AWS Firewall Manager? Select all that apply
a)
Your account must be a member of AWS Organizations.
b)
Your account cannot be a member of AWS Organizations.
c)
Your account must be the AWS Firewall Manager administrator.
d)
You must have AWS Config enabled for your accounts and regions.
e)
You must enable RAM for all member accounts in your organization.
170.
Which of the following services can help protect your web applications from SQL injections and other vulnerabilities in your application code? Choose the best response
a)
AWS Shield
b)
AWS WAF
c)
AWS Config
d)
AWS Cognito
e)
Security Hub
171.
What service does AWS provide to help protect against DDoS attacks? Choose the best response
a)
AWS Shield
b)
AWS WAF
c)
AWS Config
d)
AWS Cognito
e)
Security Hub
172.
An organization created an EC2 instance. An application is installed on the instance that users need to access through the internet with HTTP. Which of the can you modify to allow access? Select all that apply
a)
DDoS Protection settings
b)
AWS Network Firewall
c)
Security Hub
d)
Security groups
173.
Your organization wants to host an application in AWS. The application connects to an RDS SQL database, and you want to store the database credentials in a secure location. Which of the following services will fulfill this requirement? Choose the best response
a)
AWS Managed AD
b)
Secrets Manager
c)
Certificate Manager
d)
GuardDuty
174.
Which of the following is an IAM identity in an account that has specific permissions and can be taken on by anyone who needs it? Choose the best response
a)
IAM user
b)
IAM role
c)
IAM resource
d)
AWS policy
175.
Which of the following are included in a request? Select all that apply
a)
Principle
b)
Actions or operations
c)
Identity provider
d)
Environment data
e)
Resource data
176.
You plan to deploy several web apps where users upload images to S3 buckets. You need to control access to the buckets. Which of the following should you use? Choose the best response
a)
An IAM role
b)
A resource lock
c)
An identity-based policy
d)
A resource-based policy
177.
Your organization allows developers to provision their own EC2 instances in AWS. You need to ensure that developers only deploy approved instance types on the corporate account. Which of the following will meet this requirement? Choose the best response
a)
A resource lock
b)
An AWS policy
c)
An IAM group
d)
An AWS Blueprint
178.
Within an account, an implicit deny in a permissions boundary does not limit the permissions granted to an IAM user by a resource-based policy. True or false?
a)
true
b)
false
179.
Which of the following cannot grant permissions to entities within the same account? Choose the best response
a)
Session policies
b)
Organizations SCPs
c)
Resource-based policies
d)
Identity-based policies
e)
ACLs
180.
If you want to remove access for a developer who has a role that allows them access to a resource. Which of the following can you do? Select all that apply
a)
Create a resource-based policy that blocks their access.
b)
Create an ACL policy.
c)
Create a new role that denies them access and apply it to them.
d)
Remove the current role that allows them access.
181.
Your organization is going to lift and shift a critical infrastructure with several environments to AWS. The environments must meet strict compliance rules. Which of the following will allow your developers to quickly deploy resources configured for compliance standards? Choose the best response
a)
AWS Marketplace
b)
AWS resource-based policies
c)
AWS Blueprint templates
d)
AWS CloudFormation templates
182.
Your organization is considering moving its entire infrastructure to AWS. You are the cloud architect and need to work with various departments and teams in your organization to get everyone ready for the move to AWS. Which of the following can you use to guide decision-making in the organization? Choose the best response
a)
AWS Migration Framework
b)
AWS Cloud Adoption Framework
c)
AWS Blueprint
d)
AWS CloudFormation templates
183.
Which of the following is useful for managing modifications to critical resources before implementing them? Choose the best response
a)
Stacks
b)
Resource change groups
c)
Change sets
d)
AWS CloudFormation templates
184.
When your organization agrees to use AWS, the Amazon privacy policy says that Amazon can mine your data for advertising or marketing purposes. True or false?
a)
true
b)
false
185.
Where would you find information about how you can opt-out and control your personal information when using AWS? Choose the best response
a)
The AWS privacy statement
b)
The AWS trust center
c)
Online Services Terms (OSTs)
d)
Service Level Agreements (SLAs)
186.
AWS maintains an online repository of data privacy resources and FAQs for AWS products and services. True or false?
a)
true
b)
false
187.
AWS has an online resource for the European Union’s General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR). True or FALSE?
a)
true
b)
false
188.
Your organization is considering migrating its local IT infrastructure to AWS. You need to read Amazon’s policies regarding customer data privacy in the AWS public cloud. Where should you look for this information? Choose the best response
a)
The AWS Privacy policy
b)
The online repository of data privacy resources and FAQs
c)
AWS Privacy center
d)
In the Service Level Agreements (SLAs)
189.
Which of the following has Amazon adopted that covers the processing of personal information by cloud service providers? Choose the best response
a)
Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) STAR Certification
b)
The NIST Cybersecurity Framework (CSF)
c)
ISO/IEC 27018
d)
General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR)
190.
If an organization has customers in the EU but their headquarters is located outside the EU, they don’t need to worry about the GDPR. True or false?
a)
true
b)
false
191.
Amazon’s PCI DSS compliance status automatically translates to PCI DSS validation for the services that customers build or host on the AWS platform. True or false?
a)
true
b)
false
192.
When your organization completes the actions within an assessment, you will be in compliance with the associated standard, regulation, or law. True or false?
a)
true
b)
false
193.
Which of the following sites will show the status of AWS services for the assurance programs? Choose the best response
a)
AWS Services in Scope
b)
AWS Artifact Records
c)
AWS Artifact Agreements
d)
Customer Compliance Center
194.
If an auditor requires a download of a compliance report, where would you find it? Choose the best response
a)
AWS Artifact Agreements
b)
AWS Artifact Reports
c)
Customer Compliance Center
d)
AWS Services in Scope
195.
Which tasks can you complete in AWS Artifact? Select all that apply
a)
Access AWS compliance reports on-demand.
b)
Set permissions for accounts by configuring service control policies (SCPs).
c)
Create users to enable people and applications to interact with AWS services and resources.
d)
Consolidate and manage multiple AWS accounts within a central location.
e)
Review, accept, and manage agreements with AWS.
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