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Worksheets

sst grade 8th

Total questions: 151

Worksheet time: 5hrs 2mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Why are trees a natural resource?
a)
The leaves are green
b)
We use them to make paper, lumber, and other products.
c)
They are beautiful
d)
They grow back after they are cut down.
2.
All of the following are nonrenewable resources EXCEPT
a)
Coal
b)
animals
c)
petroleum (oil)
d)
natural gas
3.
Which of the following means of transportation uses a renewable resource for its energy source?
a)
solar powered car
b)
coal powered steam train
c)
natural gas car
d)
gasoline truck
4.
A farmer decides that he is going to produce his own energy on the farm by using a type of renewable energy. The renewable energy could come from--
a)
setting up wind turbines
b)
having a coal furnace
c)
using natural gas
d)
burning oil
5.
Which of the following is a way a person could conserve natural resources?
a)
recycling waste materials like plastic, glass, paper, and aluminum
b)
limiting water use when showering, brushing teeth, and shaving
c)
using rechargeable batteries
d)
all of the above are good conservation practices
6.
If the factory in this diagram was NOT practicing good environmental conservation, what effect would be produced?
a)
air and water pollution
b)
good fishing for recreation
c)
plentiful animals in the river
d)
purified drinking water
7.
A way the factory could help conserve the river water as a natural resource is to--
a)
filter the water before dumping into the river
b)
remove all of the animals from the area for their protection
c)
set up nets down river to remove contaminated fish
d)
post signs of "No swimming in the river"
8.
Which of the following natural resources are nonrenewable?
a)
Water
b)
Animals
c)
Natural gas
d)
Wind
9.
What does conserving resources mean?
a)
Use as much of the resources as you can
b)
Only use the resources at school
c)
Protecting the resource so it does not run out
10.
Any useful material that is found in nature:
a)
Natural Resource
b)
Human Resource
c)
Plants
11.
The Jones family cares about the environment. They run their dishwasher only when it is completely full. Which of the following BEST explains why they do this?
a)
To save money
b)
To recycle dish soap
c)
To reduce sewage
d)
To conserve water
12.

Claim: the consumption of natural resources by humans has a negative impact on the environment. What data would provide evidence for this claim?

a)

Increased human lifespan and increased ice cap size

b)

Increased human population and decreased habitats for plants and animals

c)

Increased consumption of resources by humans and increased biodiversity (variety) in nature

d)

Increased of fossil fuel burning by humans and decreased use of other resources

13.

Some factories that burn coal produce smoke with harmful chemicals, such as sulfur. Scrubbers are devices that are attached to the smokestacks to reduce the amount of sulfur put into the atmosphere. To evaluate the effectiveness of these devices, what data would need to be collected?

a)

The average amount of sulfur in a certain amount of coal

b)

The amount of coal a factory burns each year and how much sulfur it emits (produces)

c)

The increase in the use of scrubbers by factories that burn coal

d)

The amount of sulfur emitted (produced) by a smokestack before and after the scrubber is attached

14.

Ths graph presents data from a city showing the amount of land used to bury solid waste each year. From 1990 to 1999, the amount of space needed to bury waste increased by 1 to 2 square kilometers per year. In the year 2000, the city started a recycling program to slow the increase of land needed for this burying this solid waste. The city claims that since this recycling program started, the amount of land needed for burying solid waste has decreased.

Which evidence would support this claim?

a)

Data showing that by the year 2010, more than 40% of the citizens were participating in the recycling program

b)

Data showing that the land used for burying solid waste in 2010 was less than 22 square kilometers

c)

Data showing that by the year 2010, there was five times more solid waste being buried than being recycled

d)

Data showing that the land used to build a recycling facility is greater than the amount of land used to bury solid waste

15.

Claim: Carbon dioxide (CO2) emissions can be reduced by increasing the amount of electricity produced by wind.

Which pair of graphs, showing data for CO2 emissions and wind production of electricity would support this claim?

a)
b)
c)
d)
16.

As the human population increases, so does the consumption of natural resources. What are some ways this impacts natural ecosystems and environments?

a)

negative impact

b)

positive impact

c)

habitat loss

d)

environmental pollution

17.

What type of data would be required to show that the

amount of carbon dioxide emissions from the burning of fossil fuels for energy can be reduced by using

renewable resources?

a)

the amount of emissions from the burning of fossil fuels

b)

the amount of scrubbers on a smoke stack

c)

the amount of emissions from renewable sources

d)

the amount of renewable resources in a landfill

18.

The people or animals living in a particular area.

a)

population

b)

species

c)

community

d)

consumer

19.

The _____________ the human population, the ______________ the amount of resources being used.

a)

greater, greater

b)

greater, least

c)

least, greater

d)

least, least

20.

________ are resources that are used faster than they can be replaced by natural processes.

a)

natural resources

b)

renewable resources

c)

nonrenewable resources

d)

nuclear resources

21.

Choose all that apply:

Which are renewable resources?

a)

Sun

b)

Oil

c)

Gas

d)

Water

e)

Wind

22.

Which is true about nonrenewable resources?

a)

Pollution from burning fossil fuels damages the Earth

b)

Nonrenewable resources are easy to replace

c)

A disadvantage of nonrenewable resources is that they are less effective than renewable resources

d)

Most nonrenewable resources come from nuclear energy

23.

Burning wood is an example of __________.

a)

biomass energy

b)

solar energy

c)

water energy

d)

wind energy

24.

There is a huge push towards using renewable resources in today's world. Why?

a)

They produce more energy than nonrenewable resources

b)

They produce less pollution than fossil fuels

c)

Big energy companies have most of their money invested in advertising renewable resources

d)

People can become more popular if they stop using petrol in cars

25.

What kind of energy is pictured here?

a)

Water

b)

Wind

c)

Solar

d)

Geothermal

26.

What kind of energy is pictured here?

a)

Water

b)

Wind

c)

Solar

d)

Geothermal

27.

What kind of energy is pictured here?

a)

Water

b)

Wind

c)

Solar

d)

Geothermal

28.

Which fossil fuel is formed from the remains of plants and animals that died in swamps millions of years ago?

a)

Coal

b)

Oil

c)

Natural Gas

d)

None of the above

29.

How are natural gas and oil different from coal?

a)

They are billions of years old instead of millions like coal.

b)

They formed from smaller organisms like algae and zooplankton.

c)

They can only be used to heat homes, but coal can be used in cars.

d)

Natural gas and oil are renewable resources.

30.

What can you do to better manage your energy resources?

a)

Unplug electronics from the wall if you are not using them.

b)

Keep battery powered electronics plugged in at all times to save battery.

c)

Take a car instead of public transportation because it's more fuel efficient.

d)

Always leave the air conditioner on to keep the room cool for when you come home.

31.
Fossil fuels are nonrenewable because...
a)
they are used to produce heat
b)
they take a long time to form
c)
they can be found underground
32.
Any useful material that is found in nature:
a)
Natural Resource
b)
Human Resource
c)
Plants
33.

Oil, coal, and natural gas are considered __________ ___________ because it takes millions of years for them to form.

a)

nonrenewable resources

b)

renewable resources

c)

energy resources

d)

very expensive

34.

How are fossil fuels formed?

a)

They are made in factories

b)

Dead plants and animals died millions of years ago and were buried under heat and pressure

c)

Dead plants were buried under heat and pressure

d)

Dead animals were buried under heat and pressure

35.

What do fossil fuels need to form?

a)

High pressure and low heat

b)

High pressure and high heat

c)

Low pressure and low heat

d)

Low pressure and high heat

36.

Which fossil fuel is formed only from dead plants in swamps?

a)

Rubber

b)

Petroleum

c)

Coal

d)

Natural Gas

37.
A flammable liquid fossil fuel formed from marine organisms and buried under layers of sediments for millions of years.
a)
Natural Gas
b)
Fossil Fuel
c)
Pressure
d)
Oil
38.
I am a solid energy source formed in swampy areas over millions of years.
a)
petroleum
b)
oil
c)
natural gas
d)
coal
39.
I am a pocket of air released from the formation of oil and coal that becomes an energy source.
a)
oil
b)
oxygen
c)
natural gas
d)
coal
40.

This fossil fuel is formed from the remains of small organisms that lived in the ocean AND is a thick, black liquid

a)

natural gas

b)

coal

c)

oil

d)

steam

41.

Which event began the formation of oil?

a)

the mixing of sea water with minerals

b)

the buildup of sea shells

c)

the eruption of a volcano

d)

the death of anciet marine (ocean) animals

42.

Which fossil fuel is made from the process shown in the picture?

a)

oil

b)

natural gas

c)

coal

d)

petroleum

43.

Which fossil fuel is created by the picture shown?

a)

coal only

b)

oil only

c)

coal and oil

d)

oil and natural gas

44.
Which group includes ALL renewable resources?
a)
Coal, trees, water, oil
b)
Water, wind, sun, plants
c)
Minerals, sun, natural gas, water
45.

This represents the formation of

a)

Coal

b)

oil

c)

Salt

d)

Copper ore

46.

This could result in the formation of

a)

Oil

b)

Gas

c)

Salt

d)

Gold and Silver ore

47.

Hydrothermal gold, silver, uranium deposits result from

a)

Deep burial of plants

b)

Evaporation of water

c)

Deep burial of organisms in seas

d)

Hot water depositing minerals

48.

Formation of Salt deposits result from

a)

Evaporation of lakes and oceans

b)

Deep burial of swamp trees

c)

Deep burial of dead ocean organisms

d)

Release of minerals from hydrothermal zones

49.
The series of pictures shows the formation of a natural resource.
Which natural resource found in the region marked with an X is formed in this process?
a)
Igneous rock
b)
Coal
c)
Oil
d)
Soil
50.
Decayed plants and animal remain under pressure and heat for millions of years. What is formed?
a)
coal and oil
b)
radiation and solar energy
c)
hydroelectricity
d)
electricity and magnetism
51.

Who is also known as father of Indian Constitution?

a)

Dr Br Ambedkar

b)

Dr Rajendar Prasad

c)

Pandit Nehru

d)

Sardar Patel

52.

Who was president of Constituent Assembly?

a)

Dr Br Ambedkar

b)

Dr Rajendar Prasad

c)

Maulana Azad

d)

Sardar Pate

53.

How many members were there in constituent assemble?

a)

200

b)

250

c)

300

d)

350

54.

How many members were there in drafting committee?

a)

11

b)

6

c)

8

d)

7

55.

Most of the countries in the world have a...............

a)

Preamble

b)

Secularism

c)

Law and dissent

d)

Constitution

56.

The makers of Indian Constitution wanted to give some special privileges to the down trodden sections of society. (True or False)

a)

True

b)

False

57.

Indian constitution promotes.......

a)

Hindusim

b)

Islam

c)

Budhism

d)

does not promote any religion

58.

India is a not a parliamentary form of democracy.(True or False)

a)

False

b)

True

59.

Indian constitution is a live constitution. (True or False)

a)

True

b)

False

60.

Indian constitution does promote equality in different religions. (True or False)

a)

False

b)

True

61.

The institution that drafted the Constitution of India was called the

a)

Constituent Assembly

b)

National Assembly

c)

Parliament

62.
The Constitution does not guarantee the protection of minorities by the majority.
a)
True
b)
False
63.
The legislature refers to our elected representatives who make laws.
a)
True
b)
False
64.

The problems faced by the makers of the Constitution while writing the Constitution included

a)

Partition

b)

diverse population

c)

princely states

d)

the issue of the kind of government we wanted

65.

The judiciary

a)

controls the executive

b)

controls the legislature

c)

is appointed by the people

d)

protects the rights of the citizens

66.

How many Schedules are contained in the Constitution of India?

a)

13 schedules

b)

14 schedules

c)

12 schedules

d)

11 schedules

67.
the Indian Constitution has borrowed the ideas of Preamble from the
a)
Italian Constitution
b)
Canadian Constitution
c)
French Constitution
d)
Constitution of USA
68.

Constitution refers to

a)

Verbal spoken rules and regulations

b)

Written rules and regulation which governs a country

c)

It is a set of rules and principles that all persons in a country can agree upon as the basis of the way in which they want the country to be governed

d)

Statements of ministers

69.

On which date the Indian Constitution came into effect

a)

On 26 November 1949

b)

On 26 January 1950

c)

On 26 September 1949

d)

On 26th March 1950

70.

Who is known as the father of Indian Constitution

a)

Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru

b)

Dr BR Ambedkar

c)

Vijayalakshmi Pandit

d)

Sarojini Naidu

71.

Fundamental rights refers to

a)

The list of subjects of the state government

b)

The basic rights which are granted to citizens

c)

The list of subjects of the central government

d)

The list of subjects of both the state and Central Government

72.

How many fundamental rights are given in Indian Constitution

a)

5

b)

6

c)

7

d)

None of these

73.

Which one of the following is not a key feature of the Indian Constitution

a)

separation of power

b)

Secularism

c)

Presidential form of government

d)

Federalism

74.

Who was the chairman of Constituent Assembly?

a)

Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

b)

Dr. Rajendra Prasad

c)

Dr. John Mathai

d)

Jawaharlal Nehru

75.

What is the name of the Kingship or rule of a king?

a)

a. Democracy

b)

b. Constitution

c)

c. Monarchy

d)

d. None of these

76.

Indian Constitution declares _____________ as the supreme power

a)

President

b)

Chief Justice

c)

People

d)

Prime Minister

77.

A formal change to the Constitution.....

a)

amendment

b)

veto

c)

term

d)

bill

78.
A length of time that someone can hold office
a)
semester
b)
term
c)
veto
d)
amendment
79.

Which branch of Parliament makes the laws?

a)

Legislative

b)

Judicial

c)

Executive

d)

Constitution

80.

What do you mean by secular state?

a)

Don’t have any official religion

b)

b. Don’t have any king

c)

c. Don’t have any preamble

d)

d. None of these

81.

The institution that drafted the Constitution of India was called the

a)

Constituent Assembly

b)

National Assembly

c)

Parliament

82.

The people of Nepal organised a movement to establish democracy not once but twice.

a)

True

b)

False

83.

The people of India play a direct role in electing representatives

a)

true

b)

false

c)

not really

84.

Constitution refers to

a)

Verbal spoken rules and regulations

b)

Written rules and regulation which governs a country

c)

It is a set of rules and principles that all persons in a country can agree upon as the basis of the way in which they want the country to be governed

d)

Statements of ministers

85.

On which date the Indian Constitution came into effect

a)

On 26 November 1949

b)

On 26 January 1950

c)

On 26 September 1949

d)

On 26th March 1950

86.

Who is known as the father of Indian Constitution

a)

Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru

b)

Dr BR Ambedkar

c)

Vijayalakshmi Pandit

d)

Sarojini Naidu

87.

Fundamental rights refers to

a)

The list of subjects of the state government

b)

The basic rights which are granted to citizens

c)

The list of subjects of the central government

d)

The list of subjects of both the state and Central Government

88.

How many fundamental rights are given in Indian Constitution

a)

5

b)

6

c)

7

d)

None of these

89.

Which one of the following is not a key feature of the Indian Constitution

a)

separation of power

b)

Secularism

c)

Presidential form of government

d)

Federalism

90.

the Indian state has a------------- form of government.

(a)  

91.

Who is also known as father of Indian Constitution?

a)

Dr Br Ambedkar

b)

Dr Rajendar Prasad

c)

Pandit Nehru

d)

Sardar Patel

92.

Indian constitution does promote equality in different religions. (True or False)

a)

False

b)

True

93.

When did the constitution of India come into effect?

a)

27 January, 1949

b)

26 January, 1947

c)

26 January, 1949

d)

26 January 1950

94.

Fundamental rights refers to

a)

The list of subjects of the state government

b)

The basic rights which are granted to citizens

c)

The list of subjects of the central government

d)

The list of subjects of both the state and Central Government

95.

How many fundamental rights are given in Indian Constitution

a)

5

b)

6

c)

7

d)

None of these

96.

Which one of the following is not a key feature of the Indian Constitution

a)

separation of power

b)

Secularism

c)

Presidential form of government

d)

Federalism

97.

which fundamental right safeguards Indian citizens from any kind of discrimination

a)

Right to freedom

b)

Right to equality

c)

E right to get redressal

d)

Right to education

98.

Which of he following is one of the MAIN responsibilities of a citizen?

a)

picking up litter

b)

obeying the law

c)

washing the dishes

d)

running for public office

99.

Which of the following is correct with respect to “Right against exploitation”?

a)

Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour

b)

Freedom as to payment of taxes for the promotion of any particular religion

c)

Protection of interests of minorities

d)

Equality before law

100.

Which is NOT a right under Right to Freedom?

a)

Freedom to form a trade union

b)

Freedom to gather for a violent protest

c)

Freedom to assemble peacefully

d)

Freedom to live and work in any part of India?

e)

Freedom to practise any profession

101.

Why is the power distributed?

a)

One person cannot control the whole country.

b)

People cannot fight against 1 person.

c)

All parts of the country can be governed equally.

102.

What is the difference between Freedom and Equality?

a)

Equality = Freedom

b)

They are the same.

c)

Freedom is the ability to follow any profession. Equality is access to public places.

d)

Freedom is access to public places. Equality is the ability to follow any profession.

103.

There was a people’s struggle in?

a)

1990

b)

1960

c)

7990

d)

1968

104.

Nepal followed Monarchy till 2007. After abolishing Monarchy, which type of government was approved?

(a)  

105.

Which part of the Indian Constitution has been referred to as the ‘Conscience’.

a)

Secularism

b)

D.P.S.P

c)

Fundamental Rights

d)

Fundamental Duties

106.

Which is the 3rd tier of government?

a)

Panchayati Raj

b)

Municipal corporation

c)

State government

d)

Central government

107.

When did Indian National Congress (INC) make the demand for a Constituent Assembly?

a)

1934

b)

1935

c)

1946

d)

1947

108.

When did the Maoists join other political parties in Nepal to sign a 12-point agreement?

a)

April 2006

b)

October 2007

c)

November 2005

d)

February 2005

109.

The Constitution prohibits human trafficking, forced labour, and children working under 14 yrs of age. It is mentioned under which Fundament Right?

a)

Right to Freedom

b)

Right to Freedom of Religion

c)

Right to Constitutional Remedies

d)

Right against Exploitation

110.

Which court issue the Writs?

a)

District Courts

b)

Panchayats

c)

Civil Courts/Criminal Courts

d)

Supreme Court/High Courts

111.

Central Government is the tier of which government?

a)

1st

b)

2nd

c)

3rd

d)

4th

112.

When did our Constitution was adopted and was enforced?

a)

26 January, 1950

b)

15 August, 1947

c)

2 October, 1950

d)

26 November, 1949

113.

According to which set of fundamental rules the country functions?

a)

A law

b)

An amendment

c)

A constitution

d)

A preamble

114.

By which amendment the Fundamental duties were included in the Constitution?

a)

38th Amendment

b)

42th Amendment

c)

46th Amendment

d)

50th Amendment

115.

What are the objectives for implementing the fundamental rights according to Dr. B.R. Ambedkar?

a)

To ensure every citizen is benefited

b)

To ensure every citizen is rich

c)

To ensure every citizen has ration card

d)

None of these

116.

What is the significance of the Preamble in the Indian Constitution?

a)

States the objectives of the president

b)

States the objectives of the election

c)

States the objectives of the Constitution

d)

None of these

117.

What is Sovereignty?

a)

Freedom to establish new country

b)

Freedom to govern oneself

c)

Peoples government

d)

None of these

118.

What is Democracy?

a)

Rule of people

b)

Rule of king

c)

Rule of British

d)

Rule of officers

119.

What is a Constitution?

a)

Set of rules of court

b)

Set of rules to govern country.

c)

Set of rules of company

d)

None of these

120.

What type of government India practiced?

a)

Monarchy

b)

Democracy

c)

Anarchy

d)

None of these

121.

What is the name of the Kingship or rule of a king?

a)

Democracy

b)

Constitution

c)

Monarchy

d)

None of these

122.

What defines the introduction to our constitution?

a)

Preamble

b)

Sovereignty

c)

Constitution

d)

None of these

123.

What do you mean by Right to equality?

a)

Rich people are higher than poorer

b)

All are equal before law

c)

Government officer are superior

d)

All are equal after law

124.

Buying and selling of human beings include in which right?

a)

Right to Equality

b)

Right to Freedom

c)

Right against Exploitation

d)

None of these

125.

We celebrate 26 January as Republic Day because__-

a)

India became independent of British Republic

b)

Republic party formed the government

c)

The Constitution of India came into force that declared India as a Republic country

d)

The Constitution of India was signed by the Republic leaders of India

126.

The___________ had put forth the idea of setting up a Constituent Assembly to prepare the Constitution of India.

a)

Simon Commission

b)

Cabinet Mission

c)

Cripps Mission

d)

Mountbatten Plan

127.

Identify the President of the Constituent Assembly that prepared our Constitution.

a)
b)
c)
d)
128.

The constitution of India was prepared and completed between

a)

1935 and 1947

b)

1946 and 1950

c)

1947 and 1948

d)

1946 and 1948

129.

On _________ the Constituent Assembly met for the first time in the Constitution Hall of the Indian Parliament, New Delhi.

a)

9 December 1946

b)

15 August 1947

c)

9 December 1945

d)

15 August 1946

130.

The total membership of our Constituent Assembly initially was of ______ members, but after partition of India in 1947, only_____ members were left in it.

a)

119, 7

b)

100, 82

c)

350,249

d)

389, 299

131.

How many women members were there in our Constituent Assembly?

a)

7

b)

9

c)

15

d)

23

132.

Identify this place. It played a major role in designing the written Constitution of India

a)

Shanti Niketan

b)

Birla House

c)

Sabarmati Ashram

d)

Parliament House

133.

In 1994, India, like America, decided to keep the original copy of the Constitution in a gas chamber at the library of Parliament House. Which gas is used in the chamber?

a)

hydrogen

b)

oxygen

c)

nitrogen

d)

helium

134.

The first amendment in 1950 and the latest amendment in our constitution in 2021 were both related to-

a)

goods and service tax

b)

official language

c)

backward classes

d)

land reforms

135.

The original Indian Constitution was drafted in both Hindi and English.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

136.

Each member of the Constituent Assembly that drafted the Constitution, signed two copies -- one in Hindi and the other in English.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

137.

The Indian Constitution is the longest of any sovereign country in the world.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

138.

Prem Behari Narain Raizada (Saxena), was the man who hand wrote the original Constitution of India in Hindi as well as English

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

139.

Israel, Canada, Saudi Arabia, and New Zealand have no written constitution.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

c)

NOT SURE

140.

In __________ , the Indian National Congress made the demand for a Constituent Assembly.

a)

1935

b)

1934

c)

1936

d)

1937

141.

In October 2002 , King_________, began taking over different aspects of the government with the army’s assistance in Nepal.

a)

Madhebendra

b)

Raghavendra

c)

Gyanendra

d)

Birendra

142.

In________, Nepal became a democracy after abolishing the monarchy.

a)

2007

b)

2006

c)

2005

d)

2008

143.

___________is known as the Father of the Indian Constitution.

a)

Dr Baba Saheb Ambedkar

b)

Dr Rajendra Prasad

c)

Jawarharlal Neheru

d)

Mahatma Gandhi

144.

__________ refers to the existence of more than one level of government in the country.

a)

communalism

b)

parliament

c)

federalism

d)

secularism

145.

____________is the third tier of government in India.

a)

Central Govt

b)

State Govt

c)

Panchayati Raj

146.

T he __________is a smaller group of people who are responsible for implementing laws and running the government.

a)

Judiciary

b)

Executive

c)

Legislature

147.

Right to _________ states that the State cannot discriminate against anyone in matters of employment.

a)

Right to freedom

b)

Right against exploitation

c)

Right to Equality

d)

Right to freedom of religion

148.

The practice of untouchability has also been abolished under right to _______.

a)

Right to freedom

b)

Right to equality

c)

Right to freedom of religion

d)

Right against exploitation

149.

_________Right prohibits human trafficking, forced labour , and employment of children under 14 years of age.

a)

Right to equality

b)

Right to freedom

c)

Right against exploitation

d)

Right to freedom of religion

150.

A (a)   state is one in which the state does

not officially promote any one religion as the state religion.

151.

T he (a)   refers to the system of courts in this country.