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OCULAR PHARMA

Total questions: 121

Worksheet time: 4hrs 2mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

functions as a tri-laminar permeability barrier

a)

cornea

b)

sclera

c)

crystalline lens

2.

between capillary of ciliary body and iris epithelium

a)

blood aqueous barrier

b)

blood retinal barrier

3.

between capillary of retina and RPE

a)

blood aqueous barrier

b)

blood retinal barrier

4.

reach the eye at high concentration

a)

topical

b)

packs

c)

iontophoresis

d)

irrigation

5.

cotton is soaked with epinephrine placed at inferior cul - de - sac to prolong its mydriatic effect

a)

topical

b)

packs

c)

iontophoresis

d)

irrigation

6.

eye cap bearing an electrode, drug used should bear the same charge with electrode

a)

topical

b)

packs

c)

iontophoresis

d)

irrigation

7.

catheter is inserted at upper eyelids into the cul de sac

a)

topical

b)

packs

c)

iontophoresis

d)

irrigation

8.

drug is injected near the eye (extraocular)

a)

periocular injection

b)

retrobulbar injection

c)

intraocular injection

d)

NOTA

9.

drug is injected beneath the globe

a)

periocular injection

b)

retrobulbar injection

c)

intraocular injection

d)

NOTA

10.

injection within the globe

a)

periocular injection

b)

retrobulbar injection

c)

intraocular injection

d)

NOTA

11.

drug placed beneath bulbar conjunctiva

a)

subconjunctival injection

b)

subtenon's injection

c)

anterior subtenon's injection

d)

posterior subtenon's injection

12.

drug placed between sclera and tenon's capsule

a)

subconjunctival injection

b)

subtenon's injection

c)

anterior subtenon's injection

d)

posterior subtenon's injection

13.

drug placed at exposed sclera

a)

subconjunctival injection

b)

subtenon's injection

c)

anterior subtenon's injection

d)

posterior subtenon's injection

14.

drug is placed at sclera behind equator

a)

subconjunctival injection

b)

subtenon's injection

c)

anterior subtenon's injection

d)

posterior subtenon's injection

15.

drug is injected at retrobulbar space only

a)

anterior retrobulbar injection

b)

posterior retrobulbar injection

c)

intracameral injection

d)

intravitreal injection

16.

drug is injected up to apex of muscle cone

a)

anterior retrobulbar injection

b)

posterior retrobulbar injection

c)

intracameral injection

d)

intravitreal injection

17.

drug is injected within aqueous chamber

a)

anterior retrobulbar injection

b)

posterior retrobulbar injection

c)

intracameral injection

d)

intravitreal injection

18.

increases solubility of hydrophilic drugs by altering permeability of corneal epithelial membranes

a)

surfactants

b)

pH

c)

tonicity

d)

viscosity agents

e)

added preservative

19.

determines the degree of ionization of a drug

a)

surfactants

b)

pH

c)

tonicity

d)

viscosity agents

e)

added preservative

20.

relative measure of osmotic pressure between 2 solution

a)

surfactants

b)

pH

c)

tonicity

d)

viscosity agents

e)

added preservative

21.

added to enhance retention or contact time within cul de sac thus improving drug absorption

a)

surfactants

b)

pH

c)

tonicity

d)

viscosity agents

e)

added preservative

22.

inhibit microbial growth, added to prevent contamination

a)

surfactants

b)

pH

c)

tonicity

d)

viscosity agents

e)

added preservative

23.

well known contaminant of fluorescein dye

a)

pseudomonas aeruginosa

b)

acanthamoeba

c)

staphylococcus

d)

bacilli

24.

known to invade homemade saline solution

a)

pseudomonas aeruginosa

b)

acanthamoeba

c)

staphylococcus

d)

bacilli

25.

mercuric compound but cause sensitivity and band keratopathy

a)

thimerosal

b)

BAK

c)

aota

d)

nota

26.

acts as preservative and wetting agent to enhance drug penetration by breaking corneal barrier

a)

thimerosal

b)

BAK

c)

carbachol

d)

nota

27.

limited used for drugs which are rapidly destroyed by water

a)

oily solution

b)

colloidal solution

c)

emulsion

d)

suspension

e)

gel

28.

rarely used

a)

oily solution

b)

colloidal solution

c)

emulsion

d)

suspension

e)

gel

29.

no longer available for ophthalmic use

a)

oily solution

b)

colloidal solution

c)

emulsion

d)

suspension

e)

gel

30.

used for delivery of drugs not readily dissolved in water

a)

oily solution

b)

colloidal solution

c)

emulsion

d)

suspension

e)

gel

31.

made of high viscosity acrylics

a)

oily solution

b)

colloidal solution

c)

emulsion

d)

suspension

e)

gel

32.

has semisolid vehicle which is lipid soluble and melts when it comes in contact with the eyes thus prolong contact time

a)

ointment

b)

cream

c)

drug (dye) impregnated paper strip

d)

ophthalmic disc or tablet (lamellae)

33.

has semisolid vehicle which is water miscible not applied on cul-de-sac because it will be dissolved by tears and wash out

a)

ointment

b)

cream

c)

drug (dye) impregnated paper strip

d)

ophthalmic disc or tablet (lamellae)

34.

used to prevent pseudomonas infection

a)

ointment

b)

cream

c)

drug (dye) impregnated paper strip

d)

ophthalmic disc or tablet (lamellae)

35.

rarely use, placed at inferior cul-de-sac

a)

ointment

b)

cream

c)

drug (dye) impregnated paper strip

d)

ophthalmic disc or tablet (lamellae)

36.

preservative free pellet with 5mg of hydropropyl cellulose used for mucus phase tear deficiency

a)

lacrisert

b)

ocusert

c)

bandage scl

d)

collagen shields

e)

spray

37.

small, ovoid, flat of double layered hydrophilic plastic enclosing the active ingredients of drug

a)

lacrisert

b)

ocusert

c)

bandage scl

d)

collagen shields

e)

spray

38.

similar to TCL except they slowly dissolve increasing the concentration of drugs within the cornea for 1st few hours

a)

lacrisert

b)

ocusert

c)

bandage scl

d)

collagen shields

e)

spray

39.

use for mydriatic and cycloplegic agents

a)

lacrisert

b)

ocusert

c)

bandage scl

d)

collagen shields

e)

spray

40.

transparent, non - allergenic, high mol. wt. & high viscosity sol.

a)

Na+ hyaluronate

b)

Chondroitin SO4

c)

Hydroxypropyl methyl cellulose (HPMC)

41.

medium mol. wt., polysaccharide found in cartilage connective tissue

a)

Na+ hyaluronate

b)

Chondroitin SO4

c)

Hydroxypropyl methyl cellulose (HPMC)

42.

poor substitute for Na+ hyaluronate

a)

Na+ hyaluronate

b)

Chondroitin SO4

c)

Hydroxypropyl methyl cellulose (HPMC)

43.

viscous protectorants for corneal endothelium by coating the endothelium

a)

adjunctives

b)

lubricants

c)

epitheliolytes

d)

a-chymotrypsin

44.

artificial tear solution, use preservative free lubricants especially for 3-4x a day use

a)

adjunctives

b)

lubricants

c)

epitheliolytes

d)

a-chymotrypsin

45.

removes corneal epithelium in herpes corneal ulcer

a)

adjunctives

b)

lubricants

c)

epitheliolytes

d)

a-chymotrypsin

46.

proteolytic enzyme causing selective lytic action on zonules of zinn

a)

adjunctives

b)

lubricants

c)

epitheliolytes

d)

a-chymotrypsin

47.

binds with bivalent cations

e.g Ca, Pb, Mg, Zn

a)

EDTA

b)

Deferoxamine

c)

Penicillamine

d)

British AntiLewisite(BAL)

48.

specific iron chelating agent with poor trans-corneal penetration

a)

EDTA

b)

Deferoxamine

c)

Penicillamine

d)

British AntiLewisite(BAL)

49.

binds with Cu (wilson's hepatolenticular degeneration) Au, Pb, Zn, Hg

a)

EDTA

b)

Deferoxamine

c)

Penicillamine

d)

British AntiLewisite(BAL)

50.

stable in ethylene glycol and ointment base and binds with arsenic

a)

EDTA

b)

Deferoxamine

c)

Penicillamine

d)

British AntiLewisite(BAL)

51.

wetting agents that lower the surface tension of a liquid, allowing easier spreading and lower the interfacial tension between two liquids

a)

adjunctives

b)

lubricants

c)

epitheliolytes

d)

a-chymotrypsin

e)

surfactants

52.

prevent overgrowth of fungi(mycosis)

a)

phenol

b)

EDTA

c)

Na+ perborate

d)

polymixin B

53.

anti oxidant preservative

a)

phenol

b)

EDTA

c)

Na+ perborate

d)

polymixin B

54.

oxidative preservative

a)

phenol

b)

EDTA

c)

Na+ perborate

d)

polymixin B

e)

chlorhexidine

55.

antibiotic

a)

phenol

b)

EDTA

c)

Na+ perborate

d)

polymixin B

e)

chlorhexidine

56.

amide preservative

a)

phenol

b)

EDTA

c)

Na+ perborate

d)

polymixin B

e)

chlorhexidine

57.

inert, non active agents that provide support for or dissolve the active drug and control the viscosity of solution

a)

ophthalmic vehicles

b)

excipients

58.

gives form or consistency to preparation but limited uses in ophthalmic drugs

a)

ophthalmic vehicles

b)

excipients

59.

lubricants in solution except

a)

1-4% methylcellulose

b)

1.4% polyvinyl alcohol

c)

polyvinyl pyrrolidone

d)

carboxymethyl cellulose

e)

dextran

60.

lubricants in ointment except

a)

gelatin

b)

white petrolatum

c)

lanolin

d)

mineral oil

61.

mydriatics with cycloplegia except

a)

phenylephrine

b)

tropicamide

c)

cyclopentolate

62.

the ff. Ocular structures belong to A1 receptors, except?

a)

Conjunctival vessels

b)

Dilator pupillae

c)

Trabecular meshwork

d)

Ciliary process

63.

Which of the ff. Ocular structures belong to A2 receptors

a)

Conjunctival vessels

b)

Dilator pupillae

c)

Trabecular meshwork

d)

Ciliary process

64.

The ff. belongs to B2 receptors, except?

a)

Ciliary process

b)

Ciliary muscles

c)

Bronchial smooth muscles

d)

Conjunctival vessels

65.

A1 trabecular meshwork effects on NE

a)

Enhance AH outflow which lowers IOP

b)

Decrease AH secretions

c)

Increase AH secretions

d)

NOTA

66.

A2 ciliary process effects on NE

a)

Enhance AH outflow which lowers IOP

b)

Decrease AH secretions

c)

Increase AH secretions

d)

NOTA

67.

B2 ciliary process effects on NE

a)

Enhance AH outflow which lowers IOP

b)

Decrease AH secretions

c)

Increase AH secretions

d)

NOTA

68.

B2 ciliary muscles effects on NE

a)

Contract

b)

Decrease AH secretions

c)

Increase AH secretions

d)

Relax

69.

The ff. Are the ocular structures of M3 receptors, except?

a)

Ciliary muscles

b)

Brucke's muscle

c)

Sphincter pupillae

d)

EOM

70.

The ff. are the ocular structures of nicotinic, except?

a)

EOM

b)

Ciliary muscle

c)

AOTA

d)

NOTA

71.

Effects of NE on brucke's muscle

a)

Increase outflow of AH

b)

Decrease outflow of AH

c)

Increase AH secretions

d)

Decrease AH secretions

72.

Diagnosis of tonic pupil in Adie's pupil

a)

Methacholine

b)

Carbachol

c)

Neostigmine

d)

Edrophonium

73.

Powerful miotic agent if resistant to pilocarpine

a)

Methacholine

b)

Carbachol

c)

Neostigmine

d)

Edrophonium

74.

DOC Myasthenia gravis

a)

Methacholine

b)

Carbachol

c)

Neostigmine

d)

Edrophonium

75.

Dx agent Myasthenia gravis

a)

Methacholine

b)

Carbachol

c)

Neostigmine

d)

Edrophonium

76.

The ff. Are antidote for physostigmine poisoning, except?

a)

Atropine

b)

Pralidoxime

c)

Cyclopentolate

d)

NOTA

77.

Consists of 2 physostigmine

a)

Demecarium

b)

Neostigmine

c)

Ambenonium

d)

Edrophonium

78.

Long acting miotic agent causes retinal detachment

a)

DFP

b)

Echothiphate

c)

Parathion

d)

Nerve gas

79.

Most primitive, strongest and longest acting cycloplegic

a)

Scopolamine

b)

Atropine

c)

Cyclopentolate

d)

Tropicamide

80.

Treatment of atropine poisoning

a)

Physostigmine

b)

Ambenonium

c)

Demecarium

d)

Echothiphate

81.

DOC for routine cycloplegia

a)

Cyclopentolate

b)

Tropicamide

c)

Eucatropine

d)

Homatropine

82.

DOC for routine mydriasis

a)

Cyclopentolate

b)

Tropicamide

c)

Eucatropine

d)

Homatropine

83.

The ff. Are semi synthetic quarternary NH4 derivative except?

a)

Homatropine

b)

Eucatropine

c)

Methscopolamine

d)

Scopolamine

84.

The ff. Are alkaloids except

a)

Atropine

b)

Scopolamine

c)

Methscopolamine

d)

NOTA

85.

Lesion is at ciliary ganglion or postganglionic parasympathetic nerve of CN#3 which innervates the ciliary muscles and iris sphincter thru short ciliary nerve

a)

Adie's syndrome

b)

Horner's syndrome

c)

Argyl - Robertson

d)

Myasthenia gravis

86.

autoimmune disease characterized by unilateral paresis of LPS (ptosis) due to antibody against Ach receptors or excess AchE acting on receptor

a)

Adie's syndrome

b)

Horner's syndrome

c)

Argyl - Robertson

d)

Myasthenia gravis

87.

The ff. Are short acting cycloplegic agents except?

a)

Tropicamide

b)

Cyclopentolate

c)

Scopolamine

d)

Homatropine

88.

Binds at A1 receptor

a)

Clonidine

b)

Brimonidine

c)

Naphazoline

d)

Apraclonidine

89.

lowers IOP even during sleep and does not affect the BP or PR

a)

Clonidine

b)

Brimonidine

c)

Naphazoline

d)

Apraclonidine

90.

Epinephrine + Pilocarpine

a)

Additive

b)

Synergism

c)

Potentiation

91.

Epinephrine + anesthetic

a)

Additive

b)

Synergism

c)

Potentiation

92.

Dilates pupil in Horner's syndrome

a)

Adrenalin

b)

Dipivefrin

c)

Mydfrin

d)

Dapripazole

93.

lesion is at superior cervical sympathetic ganglion or its pupillary fibers via nasocialiary nerve thry long ciliary nerve

a)

Adie's syndrome

b)

Horner's syndrome

c)

Argyl - Robertson

d)

Myasthenia gravis

94.

Preventing the re uptake of NE at post ganglionic nerve local anesthetic with indirect sympathomimetic activity (ISA)

a)

Hydroxyamphetamine

b)

Cocaine

c)

Isoproterenol

d)

Salbutamol

95.

enhance NE release at presynaptic end

a)

Hydroxyamphetamine

b)

Cocaine

c)

Isoproterenol

d)

Salbutamol

96.

Hydroxyamphetamine

Dilate pupil

a)

Central and pre ganglionic lesions

b)

Post ganglionic lesions

c)

Central and Post ganglionic lesions

d)

Preganglionic and postganglionic lesions

97.

Hydroxyamphetamine

Does NOT dilate pupil

a)

Central and pre ganglionic lesions

b)

Post ganglionic lesions

c)

Central and Post ganglionic lesions

d)

Preganglionic and postganglionic lesions

98.

Drug's ability to acts as partial agonist and partial antagonist

a)

ISA

b)

MSA

c)

LDH

d)

THD

99.

Drug's ability to acts as local anesthetic

a)

ISA

b)

MSA

c)

LDH

d)

THD

100.

Easily hydrolyzed by plasma pseudo cholinesterase

a)

Ester group

b)

Amide group

101.

metabolized at liver

a)

Ester group

b)

Amide group

102.

Short acting anesthetic agents, except

a)

Procaine

b)

Proparacaine

c)

Lidocaine

d)

Chloroprocaine

103.

Intermediate acting, except

a)

Tetracaine

b)

Proparacaine

c)

Lidocaine

d)

Mepicavaine

104.

Long acting, except

a)

Bupivacaine

b)

Etidocaine

c)

Mepivacaine

d)

AOTA

105.

Norepinephrine b2 antagonist

a)

Phentolamine

b)

Yohimbine

c)

Propanolol

d)

NOTA

106.

Norepinephrine A2 antagonist

a)

Phentolamine

b)

Yohimbine

c)

Propanolol

d)

NOTA

107.

Acethylcholine muscarinic antagonist

a)

Curare

b)

Atropine

c)

Propanolol

d)

Yohimbine

108.

Acethylcholine nicotinic antagonist

a)

Curare

b)

Atropine

c)

Propanolol

d)

Yohimbine

109.

Drugs that interacts with the receptors mimicking the effect of Ach

a)

Cholinergic agonist

b)

Parasympatholytic agents

c)

Adrenergic agonist

d)

Sympatholytic agents

110.

agents that bind to alpha and beta receptors mimicking the effects on NE

a)

Cholinergic agonist

b)

Parasympatholytic agents

c)

Adrenergic agonist

d)

Sympatholytic agents

111.

drugs that binds on receptors inhibiting the effects of NE

a)

Cholinergic agonist

b)

Parasympatholytic agents

c)

Adrenergic agonist

d)

Sympatholytic agents

112.

Reverses the mydriasis of phenylephrine and tropicamide

a)

Thymoxamine

b)

Dapripazole

c)

Yohimbine

d)

Benzamine

113.

AchE blockers that enhances AH outflow in open angle glaucoma, except

a)

Neostigmine

b)

Physostigmine

c)

Echothiophate

d)

Demecarium

114.

Mydriasis: 30 min

Cycloplegia: 1 hr

Duration: 14 days

a)

Atropine

b)

Homatropine

c)

Scopolamine

d)

Cyclopentolate

e)

Tropicamide

115.

Mydriasis: 30 min

Cycloplegia: 30-90 min

Duration: 6 hr - 4 days

a)

Atropine

b)

Homatropine

c)

Scopolamine

d)

Cyclopentolate

e)

Tropicamide

116.

Mydriasis: 40 min

Cycloplegia: 40 min

Duration: 24 hr

a)

Atropine

b)

Homatropine

c)

Scopolamine

d)

Cyclopentolate

e)

Tropicamide

117.

Mydriasis: 15 - 30 min

Cycloplegia: 15 - 45 min

Duration: 6 - 24 hr

a)

Atropine

b)

Homatropine

c)

Scopolamine

d)

Cyclopentolate

e)

Tropicamide

118.

Mydriasis: 20 - 30 min

Cycloplegia: 20 - 25 min

Duration: 4 - 6 hr

a)

Atropine

b)

Homatropine

c)

Scopolamine

d)

Cyclopentolate

e)

Tropicamide

119.

shortest duration of action

a)

Atropine

b)

Homatropine

c)

Scopolamine

d)

Cyclopentolate

e)

Tropicamide

120.

rapid onset of action

a)

Atropine

b)

Homatropine

c)

Scopolamine

d)

Cyclopentolate

e)

Tropicamide

121.

Slowest onset of action

a)

Atropine

b)

Homatropine

c)

Scopolamine

d)

Cyclopentolate

e)

Tropicamide

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