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nwc 201-280

Total questions: 102

Worksheet time: 51mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is provided at the IP layer

a)

Connectionless

b)

Best effort delivery service

c)

Both of the above

d)

None of the above

2.

You need to subnet a network that has 5 subnets, each with at least 16 hosts. Which will be your closest choice

a)

255.255.255.224

b)

255.255.255.192

c)

255.255.255.240

d)

255.255.255.248

3.

What is the subnetwork number of a host with an IP address of 172.16.66.0/21

a)

172.16.48.0

b)

172.16.64.0

c)

172.16.0.0

d)

172.16.36.0

4.

What is the first valid host on the subnetwork that the node 172.30.190.198/24 belongs to?

a)

172.30.190.0

b)

172.30.190.1

c)

172.30.190.100

d)

None of the above

5.

Based on 1.1.1.0/24, the IP address would be:

a)

Class A

b)

Class B

c)

Class C

d)

Class D

6.

Which of following is the range of IPv4 addresses spanned by Class C?

a)

1.0.0.0 to 127.255.255.255

b)

128.0.0.0 to 191.255.255.255

c)

192.0.0.0 to 223.255.255.255

d)

None of the above

7.

If a subnet needs to accommodate up to 500 hosts. How many bits for HostID would be sufficient?

a)

9

b)

5

c)

8

d)

7

8.

Consider a Class B network, where the subnet ID takes 9 bits. What will be the subnet mask?

a)

11111111 11111111 11111110 00000000

b)

11111111 11111111 11111111 10000000

c)

11111111 11111111 00000000 00000000

d)

None of the above

9.

Given a subnet mask 255.255.255.240, how many hosts the subnet can support?

a)

14

b)

30

c)

62

d)

None of the above

10.

A host in an organization has an IP address 150.32.64.34 and a subnet mask 255.255.240.0. What is the address of this subnet?

a)

150.32.64.16

b)

150.32.64.24

c)

150.32.64.0

d)

150.32.64.32

11.

What is the maximum number of IP addresses that can be assigned to hosts on a local subnet that uses the 255.255.255.224 subnet mask

a)

14

b)

15

c)

30

d)

62

12.

When calculating usable hosts per subnet, the following formula is used 2^bits - 2. For what reason is two subtracted? (choose two)

a)

Broadcast

b)

Network

c)

Unicast

d)

Multicast

13.

How many hosts can be addressed on 10.0.0.0/16?

a)

16

b)

254

c)

65536

d)

65534

14.

Which of the following is a valid IP host address given the network ID of 191.254.0.0 while using 11 bits for subnetting?

a)

191.254.1.29

b)

191.254.0.32

c)

191.54.1.64

d)

191.254.0.96

15.

DISCO Corporation has been assigned the Class B network address 165.87.0.0. DISCO needs to divide the network into eight subnets. What subnet mask should be applied to the network to provide the most hosts per subnet?

a)

255.255.240.0

b)

255.255.248.0

c)

255.255.192.0

d)

255.255.224.0

16.

Which class of IP addresses does CIDR performs aggregation on?

a)

Class C

b)

Class D

c)

Class B

d)

Class A

17.

Using a CIDR notation, a prefix 205.100.0.0 of length 22 is written as 205.100.0.0/22. What network mask that the /22 notation indicates?

a)

205.255.255.0

b)

255.255.252.0

c)

255.255.22.0

d)

None of the above

18.

Perform CIDR aggregation on the following /24 IP addresses: 128.58.24.0/24, 128.58.25.0/24, 128.58.26.0/24, 128.58.27.0/24. What is the CIDR outcome?

a)

128.58.28.0/22

b)

28.58.24.0/22

c)

128.58.28.0/24

d)

None of the above

19.

Which protocol provides conversion from an IP address to a physical address?

a)

ARP

b)

IGRP

c)

DNS

d)

ICMP

20.

Which protocol is used to assign temporary IP addresses to hosts?

a)

ICMP

b)

DHCP

c)

ARP

d)

None of the above

21.

In order to maximize the usage of limited IP addresses, which of the following protocol is commonly used

a)

NAT

b)

DHCP

c)

Both of the above

d)

None of the above

22.

The internet protocol allows IP fragmentation so that datagrams can be fragmented into pieces small enough to pass over a link with a smaller MTU than the original datagram size

a)

t

b)

f

23.

Which of the following statement is correct for IPv6

a)

Addresses are not hierarchical and are randomly assigned

b)

There are 2.7 billion available addresses

c)

Broadcast in IPv4 have been replaced with multicast in IPv6

d)

Does not support multiple multiple IPv6 address per interface

24.

Bootstrap Protocol (BOOTP) allows a diskless workstation to be remotely booted up in a network with TCP port designation for both client and server

a)

t

b)

f

25.

In NAT operations, which of the following statements are correct

a)

NAT maps each private IP address and port number into shared global IP address and available port number

b)

Hosts inside private networks generate packets with private IP address and TCP/UDP port numbers

c)

Translation table allows packets to be routed unambiguously

d)

Translation table allows packets to be routed ambiguously

26.

Packet is to be forwarded to a network with MTU of 592 bytes. The packet has an IP header of 20 bytes and a data part of 1484 bytes. Which of following maximum data length per fragment is legitimate?

a)

592

b)

572

c)

568

d)

562

27.

What information is used as the entry of the lookup table in a Network Address Translation box?

a)

UDP port number

b)

IP address

c)

All of the above

d)

TCP port number

28.

IPv6 allows fragmentation at

a)

Source only

b)

Intermediate routers only

c)

Both source and intermediate routers

d)

None of the above

29.

Which of following fields that IPv6 dropped from IPv4?

a)

Header length

b)

Header checksum

c)

All of the above

d)

ID/flags/frag offset

30.

in practical IPv6 application, a technology encapsulates IPv6 packets inside IPv4 packets, this technology is called

a)

Routing

b)

IP tunneling

c)

Network address translation

d)

Dynamic host configuration protocol

31.

Which fields in IP packet provide for fragmentation of datagrams to allow differing MTUs in the internet

a)

Type of service

b)

Fragmentation offset

c)

Identification

d)

Flags

32.

IPv6 has a much larger space of

a)

2^8

b)

2^16

c)

2^32

d)

2^128

33.

Which of these statements are true of IPv6 representation

a)

The first 64 bits represent the dynamically created interface ID.

b)

Leading zeros in an IPv6 16 bit hexadecimal field are mandatory

c)

A single interface may be assigned multiple IPv6 addresses of any type

d)

Every IPv6 interface contains at least one loopback address

34.

Which of the following statement is true for DHCP

a)

Used extensively to assign temporary IP addresses to hosts

b)

Allows ISP to maximize usage of their limited IP addresses

c)

Time threshold to enforce lease time

d)

All of the above

35.

In Network Address Translation (NAT), which of the following statement is true for a packet with an associated private IP address at the routers in the global internet

a)

Discarded due to the nature of the packet address

b)

Redirected to other routers for address confirmation

c)

Create an exception and then forward the packet to the destination address in the header

d)

Forwarded to the destination address in the packet header

36.

Which of following control is enabled in UDP?

a)

Flow control

b)

Error control

c)

Congestion control

d)

None of the above

37.

Which of following information is not used in UDP de-multiplexing?

a)

Source IP address

b)

Destination IP address

c)

Source port number

d)

Destination port number

38.

TCP adopts selective repeat ARQ protocol for flow control. In TCP flow control implementation, the window slides at

a)

Per-packet basis

b)

Per-byte basis

c)

Per-bit basis

d)

None of the above

39.

Which flag bit in TCP header must be set when a TCP client initiates a three-way handshake?

a)

SYN

b)

ACK

c)

RST

d)

None of the above

40.

Which flag bit in TCP header must be set when a TCP entity wants to terminate a connection?

a)

FIN

b)

SYN

c)

RST

d)

ACK

41.

In Transmission Control Protocol (TCP), When a segment carries a combination of data and control information, it uses a

a)

Sequence Number

b)

Source Number

c)

Slot Number

d)

Port Number

42.

Transmission Control Protocol (TCP), has same Checksum controlling like

a)

TCP/IP

b)

ICMP

c)

UDP

d)

IP

43.

In TCP connection management, which of the following statements are true

a)

Select initial sequence numbers (ISN) to protect against segments from prior connections

b)

High bandwidth connection pose a problem

c)

Use global clock to select ISN sequence number

d)

Time for clock to go through a full cycle should be less than the maximum lifetime of a segment

44.

In phases of congestion behavior, when arrival rate is greater than outgoing line bandwidth

a)

Knee

b)

Congestion onset

c)

Light traffic

d)

Congestion collapse

45.

Which of the following services are provided by UDP

a)

IP

b)

De-multiplexing

c)

Error Checking

d)

All of the above

46.

When a TCP client initiates a three-way handshake with a sequence number x, what will be the acknowledgement number when the TCP server replies?

a)

x

b)

x + 1

c)

x + y (where y is the sequence number proposed by TCP server)

d)

None of the above

47.

TCP header has a field called window size. What value is the value window size set to?

a)

Advertised window size for congestion control

b)

Round-trip delay

c)

Advertised window size for flow control

d)

None of the above

48.

In general, there are three phases of congestion behavior, i.e., light traffic, knee, congestion collapse. Which phase does TCP congestion avoidance maps to?

a)

Light traffic

b)

Knee

c)

Congestion collapse

d)

None of the above

49.

When three duplicate acknowledgements arrive before timeout expires, what will TCP congestion control algorithm reset congestion threshold to for fast re-transmission and fast recovery?

a)

Reset congestion threshold to 1

b)

Reset congestion threshold to half of the current congestion window size

c)

Reset congestion threshold to the current congestion window size

d)

None of the above

50.

Assume a TCP source writes a 1200-byte message in one write. Which of following is possible for the destination to receive the message?

a)

It receives three reads of 400 bytes each

b)

It receives two reads of 600 bytes each

c)

It receives a 1200-byte message in one read

d)

All of the above

51.

The process of combining multiple outgoing protocol streams at the Transport and Network layers in TCP/IP is called Multiplexing

a)

t

b)

f

52.

TIMELY provides a framework for rate control that depends on transport layer protocol for reliability

a)

t

b)

f

53.

The operation of TCP congestion control can be divided into three phases, which phase requires that the congestion window size be increased by one segment upon receiving an ACK from receiver

a)

Congestion avoidance

b)

Slow start

c)

Congestion

d)

None of the above

54.

In a router, the control of the transmission rate at the sender's side such that the router's buffer will not be over-filled is called _________ if sender is transmitting too fast

a)

Network under-utilization

b)

Host flooding

c)

Network congestion

d)

None of the above

55.

Congestion control is associated with the window size field

a)

t

b)

f

56.

Which of following protocol allows a host to signal its multicast group membership to its attached routers?

a)

ICMP

b)

IGMP

c)

OPSF

d)

None of the above

57.

Which of following statements most accurately describes the reverse-path broadcasting?

a)

It assumes that the shortest path from the source to a given router should be the same as the shortest path from the router to the source

b)

Each link in the network to be symmetric

c)

Each packet is forwarded by a router exactly once

d)

All of the above

58.

Which class of IP address does the reverse-path broadcasting uses?

a)

Class A

b)

Class B

c)

Class C

d)

Class D

59.

Attackers attempt to gain unauthorized access to server. What type of network security threat it imposes?

a)

Client imposter

b)

Server imposter

c)

Man-in-Middle

d)

None of the above

60.

In mobile IP, when a home agent wants to send a packet to a mobile host in a foreign network, each IP packet at the home agent will be encapsulated with an outer IP header. What is the destination IP address in the outer IP header?

a)

Care-of address

b)

Mobile host's address

c)

Home agent's address

d)

None of the above

61.

An IP address associated with a mobile node while visiting a foreign link

a)

Handover address

b)

Home address

c)

Care of address

d)

Home link

62.

TCP SYN flood attack exploits the TCP three-way handshake

a)

t

b)

f

63.

In multicast communication, relationship is

a)

one to one

b)

many to one

c)

one to many

d)

one to all

64.

What is the security requirement in case of Denial of Service?

a)

Privacy

b)

Availability

c)

Integrity

d)

None of the above

65.

In a software defined network (SDN), which of the architectural layer is responsible for switch configuration and forwarding instruction?

a)

Middle layer

b)

Infrastructure layer

c)

Security layer

d)

None of the above

66.

What is the security requirement in case of Malicious Code?

a)

Privacy

b)

Availability

c)

Integrity

d)

All of the above

67.

Which of the following is not a general misconception of SDN?

a)

SDN is a mechanism

b)

SDN is an open API for that provides standard interface for programming switches

c)

SDN is a framework to solve a set of problems

d)

All of the above

68.

Which component of NFV comprises of hardware and software required to deploy, manage and execute VNFs.

a)

Network function

b)

Network function modules

c)

NFVI

d)

None of the above

69.

In Reverse-Path Broadcasting (RPB) scenario, assume each router knows current shortest path to source node. Which of the following statement denotes the router's action

a)

If shortest path to source is through different port, router drops the packet

b)

The router stores the packet in a buffer and wait for an explicit routing request from the source

c)

Upon receipt of a multicast packet, router records the packet's destination address and the forwarding port

d)

If shortest path to source is through the same port, router forwards the packet to all other ports

70.

A peer with which a mobile node is communicating is called

a)

Mobile node

b)

Correspondent node

c)

Foreign agent

d)

Home agent

71.

Reverse Path Multicasting (RPM) is used to increase

a)

Efficiency

b)

Performance

c)

Accuracy

d)

Strength

72.

In Reverse Path Forwarding, router receives a packet and extracts the

a)

Source address

b)

Protocol address

c)

IP address

d)

Standard address

73.

A network can receive a multicast packet from a particular source only through a

a)

designated parent resolve

b)

designated parent router

c)

designated protocol router

d)

None of the above

74.

What is the delay in the amount of time for data to travel between two points on a network?

a)

bandwidth

b)

latency

c)

goodput

d)

throughput

75.

What terms represent the maximum and actual speed that can be utilized by a device to transfer data?

a)

bandwidth; throughput

b)

throughput; bandwidth

c)

bandwidth; goodput

d)

throughput; goodput

76.

Which items are collectively referred to as network media?

a)

routers and switches

b)

wires and radio waves

c)

firewalls and servers

d)

PCs and laptops

77.

Which term is used to describe a network device with the primary function of providing information to other devices?

a)

workstation

b)

console

c)

server

d)

client

78.

Which criterion can be used to select the appropriate type of network media for a network?

a)

the types of data that need to be prioritized

b)

the cost of the end devices that are used in the network

c)

the number of intermediary devices that are installed in the network

d)

the environment where the selected medium is to be installed

79.

Which two devices are considered end devices? (Choose two.)

a)

router

b)

switch

c)

hub

d)

laptop

e)

printer

80.

Which data unit term and value are correctly matched? (select 4)

a)

A bit = a one or a zero

A bit = eight bytes

A byte = a one or a zero

A byte = eight bits

A gigabyte = one billion bytes

A gigabyte = one million bytes

A megabyte = one million bytes

b)

ADEG

81.

Which three descriptions of data are correct? (Choose 3.)

a)

Data bits are converted into signals before being transmitted over the medium.

b)

ASCII is a commonly used code for representing letters, numbers and special characters in bits that can be interpreted by a computer.

c)

Volunteered data is created and explicitly shared by individuals.

d)

Inferred data involves information that is captured by recording of actions of individuals, such as location data when using cell phones.

82.

When a learner is visiting an e-learning site to learn about networking, the user computer is acting as what type of device?

a)

an intermediary device

b)

a client

c)

a web server

d)

a console

e)

an email server

83.

What is the internet?

a)

the largest network owned and managed by a company in the US

b)

an application used to access the World Wide Web

c)

a worldwide collection of interconnected networks

d)

the type of physical media used by computers to access the Word Wide Web

84.

What is a technology used in a cellular telephone network?

a)

Bluetooth

b)

fiber-optic

c)

Global System for Mobile

d)

Communications (GSM)

e)

Wi-Fi

85.

A wireless network was recently installed in a coffee shop. The coffee shop staff are able to access the Internet but customer mobile devices are not receiving network configuration information. What should be done to correct the problem?

a)

Check the connection of the DNS server to the Internet.

b)

Provide peripheral devices to customers.

c)

Make sure the DHCP server is functional.

d)

Ensure that the default gateway device is working properly.

86.

Which network device is primarily used to translate a domain name to the associated IP address?

a)

router

b)

DNS server

c)

DHCP server

d)

default gateway

87.

Which wireless technology can be used to connect wireless headphones to a computer?

a)

NFC

b)

Bluetooth

c)

Wi-Fi

d)

4G-LTE

88.

Which IP configuration parameter provides the IP address of a network device that a computer would use to access the Internet?

a)

default gateway

b)

host IP address

c)

subnet mask

d)

DNS server

89.

Which type of network component is used to interconnect computing devices?

a)

shared peripheral

b)

host

c)

intermediate device

d)

default gateway

90.

Which menu can be used to access tutorials and more information about the Packet Tracer version?

a)

File

b)

Extensions

c)

Help

d)

Options

91.

What can be created in the Physical Workspace?

a)

a new city or building

b)

a simulation

92.

Which three features can be seen in the PT Physical View but not the Logical View? (Choose 3.)

a)

device configuration

b)

ability to power cycle the devices

c)

link lights

d)

attached cables

e)

wiring rack

93.

Where can you create a new building and wiring closet?

a)

Logical Workspace

b)

Physical Workspace

c)

Simulation Workspace

d)

Virtual Workspace

94.

Which type of network cable is commonly used in backbone networks and telephone companies?

a)

coaxial cable

b)

fiber-optic cable

c)

twisted-pair cable

d)

shielded twisted-pair cable

95.

Which type of Ethernet cable should be used to directly connect two devices that both use the same pins for transmitting and receiving data?

a)

straight-through twisted-pair cable

b)

fiber-optic cable

c)

coaxial cable

d)

crossover twisted-pair cable

96.

What are three characteristics of UTP cabling? (Choose three.)

a)

uses light to transmit data

b)

easiest type of networking cable to install

c)

commonly used between buildings

d)

most commonly used networking cable

e)

susceptible to EMI and RFI

97.

Which two criteria are used to help select a network medium for a network? (Choose two.)

a)

the distance the selected medium can successfully carry a signal

b)

the environment where the selected medium is to be installed

c)

the number of intermediate devices that are installed in the network

d)

the types of data that need to be prioritized

e)

the cost of the end devices that are used in the network

98.

Which type of network cable contains multiple copper wires and uses extra shielding to prevent interference?

a)

STP

b)

UTP

c)

fiber-optic

d)

coax

99.

Which type of network cable is used to connect the components that make up satellite communication systems?

a)

coaxial

b)

fiber-optic

c)

shielded twisted-pair

d)

unshielded twisted-pair

100.

What are two wiring schemes defined by the TIA/EIA organization for Ethernet installation in homes and businesses? (Choose two.)

a)

UTP

b)

STP

c)

T568B

d)

T568A

e)

RJ-45

101.

Which term describes the interference when electrical impulses from one cable cross over to an adjacent cable?

a)

crossover

b)

crosstalk

c)

RFI

d)

collision

102.

What are two sources of electromagnetic interference that can affect data transmissions? (Choose two.)

a)

fluorescent light fixture

b)

LED monitor

c)

corded telephone

d)

infrared remote control

e)

microwave oven

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