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embryo midterm

Total questions: 212

Worksheet time: 2hrs 46mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

blood provides protection from bacteria. True 

Osteoporosis effects men at earlier age than women. False

Equilibrium is controlled by tiny organs which are located in the middle ear. False

Buccal mucosa renews itself in ___ days.

a)

1 to 2

b)

3 to 4

c)

5 to 9

d)

10 to 14

2.

The junctional epithelium of gingiva is replenished every ____ days.

a)

1 to 3

b)

4 to 6

c)

7 to 9

d)

10 to 13

3.

Simple squamous epithelium functions as a lining in which location?

a)

Mouth

b)

Vagina

c)

Kidney

d)

Pharynx

4.

Ligaments and tendons are composed of which tissue?

a)

Neural

b)

Muscle

c)

Epithelial

d)

Connective

5.

Which of the following is not a type of cartilage?

a)

Dense

b)

Elastic

c)

Fibrous

d)

Hyaline

6.

Which cells supports the nervous system?

a)

Myoblasts

b)

Neuroglia

c)

Leukocytes

d)

Melanocytes

7.

Connective tissue proper is classified as ____?

a)

Dense, striated, or smooth

b)

Simple, stratified, or squamous

c)

Dense, loose, or loose with special properties

d)

Dense, elastic, or elastic with special properties

8.

What are the three types of muscle tissue?

a)

Cardiac, skeletal, and smooth

b)

Striated, voluntary, and smooth

c)

Cardiac, skeletal, and voluntary

d)

Voluntary, involuntary, and striated

9.

How does epithelial tissue renew itself?

a)

Mitosis of the basal cells

b)

Mitosis of the granular layer of cells

c)

By shedding or sloughing the surface cells

d)

Through nourishment of nearby blood vessels

10.

Which of the following is not a major function of the urinary system?

a)

Controls blood volume

b)

Controls blood pressure

c)

Controls testosterone levels

d)

Controls urine in composition

11.

Which function is associated with the skin?

a)

Excretes waste products

b)

Absorbs nutrients from ingested food

c)

Supplies a framework for muscle and ligament attachment

d)

Relays information from the glance to the central nervous system

12.

Which term represents a single layer of cells?

a)

Simple

b)

Stratified

c)

Cuboidal

d)

Columnar

13.

Which epithelium consists of several layers with only the basal cell layer in contact with the basal lamina?

a)

Simple

b)

Stratified

c)

Squamous

d)

Pseudostratified

14.

All body sensations are relayed to the ___ and the ___.

a)

Brain; spinal cord

b)

Afferent; efferent systems

c)

Voluntary; involuntary muscles

d)

Sympathetic; parasympathetic divisions

15.

Absorption of nutrients occurs in which location?

a)

Mouth

b)

Stomach

c)

Small intestine

d)

Large intestine

16.

Which organ system is the largest?

a)

Digestive

b)

Endocrine

c)

Respiratory

d)

Integumentary

17.

Each of the following is a function of the large intestine except one which is the exception?

a)

Absorption of nutrition

b)

Dehydration of food

c)

Reduce food to liquid chyme

d)

Compressed food into solid waste

18.

Which type of tissue lines the respiratory tract to move foreign particles out of the respiratory system?

a)

Dendrites

b)

Neuroglia

c)

Cilia

d)

Sebaceous glands

19.

Blood returns to the heart through

a)

Capillaries

b)

Veins

c)

Large elastic arteries

d)

Smaller muscular arteries

20.

Blood is an example of which of the following four primary types of tissues?

a)

Neural

b)

Epithelial

c)

Connective

d)

Muscle

21.

Which is true regarding the central nervous system?

a)

The cans is composed of the brain and the spinal cord

b)

The cans is composed of the brain but not the spinal cord

c)

The efferent system Carrie’s information from the peripheral nervous system to the cans

d)

The somatic nervous system Carrie’s impulse from the cans to involuntary muscles

22.

Internal organs (viscera) receive most of their neural impulses from which nervous system?

a)

Somatic

b)

Sensory

c)

Afferent

d)

Autonomic

23.

Which layer of epithelium is the deepest, germinating layer?

a)

Spinous layer

b)

Basal layer

c)

Granular layer

d)

Clear layer

24.

Which organ system secretes and regulates hormones in the blood?

a)

Exocrine

b)

Endocrine

c)

Lymphatic system

d)

Neural system

25.

Each is part of a neuron except one. Which is the exception?

a)

Axon

b)

Plasma

c)

Dendrite

d)

Perikaryon

26.

Which of the following insulates axons located outside the cns?

a)

Bone

b)

Endomysium

c)

Myelin sheath

d)

Connective tissues

27.

Neuroglial cells are ____ numerous than neurons.

a)

Slightly less

b)

Slightly more

c)

Significantly less

d)

Significantly more

28.

The spinal cord consists of how many segments?

a)

21

b)

22

c)

30

d)

31

29.

Which organ is part of the lymphatic system?

a)

Thyroid

b)

Thymus

c)

Pancreas

d)

Parathyroid

30.

Impulses conducted from the periphery of the body (e.g, muscles, glands) to the central nervous system are conducted through which system?

a)

Motor

b)

Somatic

c)

Afferent

d)

Autonomic

31.

Impulses pass from the cns to the involuntary muscles via the ___ system.

a)

Sensory

b)

Afferent

c)

Somatic

d)

Autonomic

32.

Which body system relies on neural stimuli to function?

a)

Vascular

b)

Digestive

c)

Endocrine

d)

Respiratory

33.

The embryonic skeleton first forms as bone true or false

a)

true

b)

false

34.

The umbilical system carries oxygenated blood true or false

a)

true

b)

false

35.

The foramen oval closes during the third week of prenatal life True or false

a)

True

b)

false

36.

Before the development of the vascular system the vitelline system provides nutrients to the true or false

a)

true

b)

false

37.

The cardiovascular system originated from chondroblasts true or false

a)

true

b)

false

38.

tissues are most susceptible to teratogens during the proliferative period true or false

a)

true

b)

false

39.

The foramen ovale is an opening between the right and left atria of the heart true or false

a)

true

b)

false

40.

The ovum contains twice as many chromosomes as it’s parent cell true or false

a)

true

b)

false

41.

The cell may contain more than one nucleus true or false

a)

true

b)

false

42.

The information in mRNA is translated by ribosomes located on the surface of the rough er true or false

a)

true

b)

false

43.

Spindles present during mitosis are attached to centromeres true or false

a)

true

b)

false

44.

DNA replication takes place during the G1 phase of the cell cycle true or false

a)

true

b)

false

45.

Fertilization takes place in the distal part of the uterine tube true or false

a)

true

b)

false

46.

Endoderm and ectoderm are the first two germ layers to develop true or false

a)

true

b)

false

47.

Melanocytes are responsible for skin pigment true or false

a)

true

b)

false

48.

Which best describes diapedesis?

a)

Programmed cell death and fragmentation

b)

A protective mechanism in the immunologic defense of the body

c)

The development of cartilage disk in the neck of each long bone

d)

The migration of leukocytes between endothelial cells to the site of infection

49.

Which represent the first change in shape of the embryos body from a flat sheet of cells?

a)

Formation of the embryonic disk

b)

Formation of neural folds

c)

Formation of cartilage

d)

Migration of myoblasts from the myotome

50.

Which hormone is produced by the placenta?

a)

Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

b)

Prolactin

c)

Progesterone

d)

Adrenocorticotropic

51.

Posttranslational modifications to proteins produced by the rough endoplasmic reticulum are accomplished by ___.

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Golgi apparatus

c)

Messenger RNA

d)

smooth endoplasmic reticulum

52.

Which phase of the cell cycle is characterized as the initial resting stage?

a)

S phase

b)

G1 phase

c)

G2 phase

d)

Prophase

53.

The ___ provides an ideal environment for the implantation and growth of the embryo.

a)

Ovary

b)

Uterine tube

c)

Myometrium

d)

Endometrium

54.

Intercalated disks are present in which type of muscle?

a)

Cardiac

b)

Smooth

c)

Skeletal

d)

Voluntary

55.

T cells, B cells, NK cells, and macrophages are produced in the ___.

a)

Spleen

b)

Cerebellum

c)

Lymph nodes

d)

Bone marrow

56.

Which type of bone formation occurs through a tight matrix of collagen fibers which slowly calcify into bone?

a)

Endochondral

b)

Intramembranous

c)

Epiphyseal

d)

Interstitial growth

57.

Myotome produces which of the following types of tissue?

a)

Connective

b)

Muscle

c)

Nerve

d)

Epithelial

58.

Each of the following is a derivative of ectoderm except one. Which is the exception?

a)

Tooth enamel

b)

Tooth dentin

c)

Epidermis

d)

Nervous system

59.

Blood cells arise from cells called

a)

Neuroblasts

b)

Fibroblasts

c)

Osteoblasts

d)

Angioblasts

60.

Developmental abnormalities are not associated with which numbers of chromosomes?

a)

44

b)

45

c)

46

d)

47

61.

Mitochondria produce which chemical for intracellular energy? 

a)

ADP

b)

ATP

c)

RNA

d)

DNA

62.

Each tissue originates from mesoderm except one. Which is the exception?

a)

Bone

b)

Liver

c)

Blood

d)

Muscle

63.

Which chemical is called the second messenger?

a)

aDNA

b)

mRNA

c)

dGMP

d)

cAMP

64.

Which cellular component facilitates protein synthesis?

a)

Ribosomes

b)

Lysosomes

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Plasmalemma

65.

Which organelle produces microtubules?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Centriole

c)

Golgi apparatus

d)

Endoplasmic reticulum

66.

Which type of bone protects the brain?

a)

Short

b)

Dermal

c)

Sesamoid

d)

Membrane

67.

Sutures are fibrous joints true or false

a)

true

b)

false

68.

Facial muscles develop from the second pharyngeal arch true or false

a)

true

b)

false

69.

The nasal capsule contains the organ of smell true or false

a)

true

b)

false

70.

The mandible develops from the second branch oak arch true or false

a)

true

b)

false

71.

The muscles of facial expression arise from the hyoid arch true or false

a)

true

b)

false

72.

The glossopharyngeal nerve (ix) provides taste sensation to the anterior two thirds of the tongue true or false

a)

true

b)

false

73.

Branchial clefts may be found along the anterior border of the trapezius muscle true or false

a)

true

b)

false

74.

Meckels cartilage acts as a framework for the developing mandible true or false

a)

true

b)

false

75.

The superior parathyroid develops from the ___ pharyngeal pouch whereas the inferior parathyroid develops from the ____.

a)

Fourth; third

b)

Third; fourth

c)

Fifth; fourth

d)

Second; fifth

76.

The stomodeum first appears in the ___ week of prenatal development

a)

Second

b)

Fourth

c)

Sixth

d)

Eighth

77.

After the fifth prenatal week the first and fifth branchial arches grow toward each other and over the arches. This overgrowth obscures the external pharyngeal grooves.

a)

Both statements are true

b)

Both statements are false

c)

The first statement is true; the second is false

d)

The first statement is false; the second is true

78.

The ultimobranchial body is the origin of which hormone?

a)

Insulin

b)

Calcitonin

c)

Dopamine

d)

Testosterone

79.

The thymus gland arises from which brachial arch?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

80.

Which gland regulates the body’s calcium balance?

a)

Thyroid

b)

Parathyroid

c)

Pancreas

d)

Adrenal

81.

The face develops in the ____ prenatal weeks.

a)

1-3

b)

4-7

c)

8-11

d)

12-14

82.

The primitive mouth is known as the ____.

a)

Basion

b)

Sella Turcica

c)

Stomodeum

d)

Tympanic membrane

83.

Which of the following is not a muscle of mastication?

a)

Masseter

b)

Temporalis

c)

Orbicularis oculi

d)

Lateral pterygoid

84.

Which of the following arises from the first pharyngeal arch?

a)

Inferior hyoid

b)

Laryngeal cartilages

c)

Tissues that form the cheeks

d)

Muscles of facial expressions

85.

Which defines the term synchondrosis?

a)

The rod shaped cartilage of the hyoid arch

b)

The center of all growth and function in the mandible

c)

A band of connective tissue containing osteogenic cells

d)

A union of two bones that have been separated by cartilage

86.

The cranial base is determined by drawing a line from the nasal bone (nasion) to which structure?

a)

External auditory canal

b)

Tragus of the ear

c)

Petrous portion of the temporal bone

d)

Sella turcica

87.

The mandible is formed from which pharyngeal arch?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

88.

Blood vessels in the third pharyngeal arch form the ___.

a)

Dorsal aorta

b)

Common carotid arteries

c)

Pulmonary blood vessels

d)

Dorsal aorta, common carotid arteries, and pulmonary blood vessels

89.

Each of the following sutures is a facial suture except one. Which is the exception?

a)

Frontomaxillary

b)

Sagittal

c)

Zygomaticomaxillary

d)

Zygomaticotemporal

90.

The heart begins beating at the end of which week?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

6

d)

8

91.

Meckels cartilage provides structures for developing _____.

a)

Maxilla

b)

Mandible

c)

Temporal bone

d)

Zygomatic bone

92.

Which bones support the palatine shelf?

a)

Maxillary

b)

Temporal

c)

Zygomatic

d)

Mandibular

93.

In the first 20 weeks the prenatal mandible articulates with which bones?

a)

Incus

b)

Malleus

c)

Stapes

d)

Both a and b

94.

Which brachial arches form the hyoid bone?

a)

1-2

b)

2-3

c)

3-4

d)

4-5

95.

Which significant change occurs in the fifth prenatal week?

a)

The heart begins to beat

b)

The bilateral placodes develop into nostrils

c)

The palatine shelves grow medially and contact the tongue

d)

The eyes move from the side of the face to the front of the face

96.

An opening of a nostril into the oral cavity is classified as an incomplete cleft lip true or false

a)

true

b)

false

97.

The eyes move the front of the face in the sixth week of prenatal development true or false

a)

true

b)

false

98.

Bilateral nasal placodes appear in the seventh week of gestation true or false

a)

true

b)

false

99.

Palatal development occurs during the ____ weeks of gestation

a)

1-3

b)

4-6

c)

7-9

d)

10-12

100.

Which term best defines nasal fin?

a)

Oblique groove extending from nostrils to the eyes

b)

Medial nasal process that composes part of the upper lip

c)

Zone of fusion that binds the maxillary and medial processes

d)

Wedge shaped process that assists in the formation of the palate

101.

The heart begins pumping blood during which week of gestation

a)

4

b)

5

c)

6

d)

7

102.

The second pharyngeal arch is also known as the ____ arch.

a)

Hyoid

b)

Inferior

c)

Superior

d)

Mandibular

103.

Auricular hillocks develop near which location?

a)

External ear canal

b)

Tuberculum impar

c)

Medial nasal process

d)

Oronas optic groove

104.

The thyroid gland originated from

a)

Foramen Cecum

b)

Muscles of occipital myotomes

c)

The auricular hillocks

d)

The palatine shelves

105.

The oral and nasal cavities are separated by the

a)

Alveolar bone

b)

Anterior nasal spine

c)

Palate

d)

Nasal septum

106.

In the fifth week the frontal process becomes known as the

a)

Frontonasal process

b)

Philtrum

c)

Medial nasal process

d)

Lateral nasal process

107.

A combination of genetic and ___ factors are associated with palatal and facial clefts.

a)

Social

b)

Behavioral

c)

Age-related

d)

Environmental

108.

The thyroid gland descends to the front of the trachea attached to the tongue by the thyroglossal ____.

a)

Duct

b)

Cyst

c)

Fistula

d)

Swelling

109.

Each of the following is part of waldeyers tonsillar ring except one. Which is the exception?

a)

Lingual tonsil

b)

Palatine tonsil

c)

Pharyngeal tonsil

d)

Foramen cecum

110.

The word for programmed cell death during palatal shelf evaluation and closure is

a)

Fusion

b)

Merging

c)

Apoptosis

d)

Migration

111.

Which muscle grows around the oral pit in the sixth prenatal week?

a)

Buccinator

b)

Mylohyoid

c)

Orbicularis pros

d)

Zygomatic major

112.

Which best defines the term fusion?

a)

A separation of tissues

b)

The enzymatic action that results in self destruction

c)

A merging of adjacent tissues during orofacal  development

d)

The period of growth in which the face becomes recognizably human

113.

A swelling that opens on the surface of the neck is called the thyroglossal _____.

a)

Cyst

b)

Duct

c)

Gland

d)

Fistula

114.

A cleft may occur in the ___

a)

lip

b)

palate

c)

mandible

d)

all of the above

115.

In which direction do the palatine shelves grow on contact with the tongue in the seventh prenatal week?

a)

Upward

b)

downward

c)

Anteriorly

d)

Posteriorly

116.

Each cranial nerve innervates the tongue except one. Which is the exception?

a)

5

b)

7

c)

8

d)

10

117.

Predentin calcifies to form dentin within ___ hours.

a)

12

b)

24

c)

48

d)

72

118.

Which two cellular layers fuse to form root sheath?

a)

Ameloblasts and odontoblasts cell

b)

Cement lid and epithelial rest cells

c)

Inner and outer enamel epithelial cells

d)

Stratum intermedium and Stellate reticulum cells

119.

Compact bone is most highly calcified tissue in the human body true or false

a)

true

b)

false

120.

The terminal bar apparatus is a series of hemidesmosomes true or false

a)

true

b)

false

121.

Primary teeth begin development at birth true or false

a)

true

b)

false

122.

Tooth development relies on an interaction between the ectoderm and mesenchyme true or false

a)

true

b)

false

123.

A patient with oligodontia is congenitally missing more than six permanent teeth true or false

a)

true

b)

false

124.

Which is a genetic disorder that makes teeth susceptible to excessive wear?

a)

Cleft lip

b)

Cleft palate

c)

Dentinogenesis imperfecta

d)

Thyroglossal duct cyst

125.

Which tissue does not support the dentition?

a)

Enamel

b)

Cementum

c)

Alveolar bone

d)

Periodontal ligament

126.

The stages of tooth development occur in which order?

a)

Bud, cap, bell

b)

Bell, bud, cap

c)

Cap, bell, bud

d)

Bud, bell, cap

127.

Which sequence reflects the correct order of appearance?

a)

Pre-Denton, ameloblasts, enamel, odontoblast

b)

Ameloblasts, enamel, odontoblast, pre-Denton

c)

Ameloblast, odontoblast, pre-Denton, ename

d)

Odontoblast, enamel, ameloblasts, pre-Denton

128.

Accessory root canals connect the ____.

a)

Cementum with the enamel

b)

Pulp with the periodontal ligament

c)

Dentin with the alveolar bone proper

d)

Enamel with the junctional epithelium

129.

During root development the epithelial diaphragm____.

a)

Fuses to the stratum intermedium

b)

Surrounds the apical opening of the dental pulp

c)

Forms a cortical plate which covers the mandible

d)

Deposits an enamel matrix along the dentinoenamel Junction

130.

Odontoblast are derived from which type of cell?

a)

Follicular

b)

Neural crest

c)

Ectodermal

d)

Oral epithelial

131.

Which of the following best defines the term reduced enamel epithelium?

a)

Noncalcified cementum

b)

Material deposited by odontoblast in response to trauma

c)

Fuse layer of Ameloblasts enamel epithelium and stratum intermedium

d)

Layer of outer root sheath cells that disperse into small clusters around the root

132.

Which permanent tooth forms the general lamina?

a)

Molar

b)

Incisor

c)

Canine

d)

Premolar

133.

After the enamel Organ differentiates, the dental lamina begins to ____.

a)

Divide

b)

Reform

c)

Expand

d)

Degenerate

134.

Which type of bone forms between the roots of multirooted teeth?

a)

Alveolar bone proper

b)

Lamina Dura

c)

Haverisan bone

d)

Interradicular

135.

Which is the first functional stage of change that each ameloblast undergoes?

a)

Secretion

b)

Maturation

c)

Morphogenesis

d)

Organization and differentiation

136.

The periodontal ligament attaches to which two surfaces?

a)

Alveolar bone and cementum

b)

Alveolar bone and enamel

c)

Cementum and attached gingiva

d)

Cementum and free gingiva

137.

Enamel forms from which type of cells?

a)

Ectoderm

b)

Mesoderm

c)

Endoderm

d)

Dental papilla

138.

Which type of facial suture has a beveled or overlapping junction?

a)

Simple

b)

Serrated

c)

Synchondrosis

d)

Squamosal

139.

_____ operates as a blue print or pattern to guide root formation.

a)

Predentin

b)

The primary cuticle

c)

Reduced enamel epithelium

d)

Hertwigs epithelial root sheath

140.

Which of the following best defines the primary cuticle?

a)

Mineralized, mature enamel

b)

A cell Junction complex, which attaches one Ameloblasts to another

c)

An organic substance secreted on the surface of enamel with ameloblasts

d)

In unmineralized protein secreted by Ameloblasts in a young enamel matrix

141.

Pharyngeal fistula opens to drain on the:

a)

Cheek

b)

Buccal mucosa

c)

Side of neck and the pharynx

d)

Chest

142.

Tomes processes develop in which stage of Ameloblasts differentiation?

a)

Secretion

b)

Protection

c)

Maturation

d)

Organization

143.

Ameloblasts secret enamel before odontoblasts secret Predentin true or false

a)

true

b)

false

144.

Bone, dentin, cementum, and enamel grow through incremental deposition true or false

a)

true

b)

false

145.

Precursor odontoblasts cells use cell signaling to determine the correct starting position. True or false

a)

true

b)

false

146.

The successional lamina is vital to the development of primary teeth. True or false

a)

true

b)

false

147.

Cementoblasts, fibroblasts, and osteoblasts originate from dental follicular cells true or false

a)

true

b)

false

148.

The root lengthens more rapidly than the tooth erupts true or false

a)

true

b)

false

149.

Which cells of the enamel organ assists Ameloblasts in forming enamel?

a)

stellate reticulum

b)

Stratum intermedium

c)

Inner enamel epithelial

d)

Outer enamel epithelial

150.

Which layer of the enamel organ is most closely associated with blood vessels?

a)

Stellate reticulum

b)

Stratum intermedium

c)

Inner enamel epithelium

d)

Outer enamel epithelium

151.

Which of the following is clinically seen as tooth eruption?

a)

Light and dark bands

b)

Interlocking of the rods

c)

Blanching of the mucosa

d)

Crystallization of the enamel rods

152.

Which permanent tooth develops without a primary predecessor?

a)

Molar

b)

Incisor

c)

Canine

d)

Premolar

153.

The permanent teeth that replace the primary teeth are called ____.

a)

Supportive

b)

Accesional

c)

Overlapping

d)

Successional

154.

The mesiodistal size difference between a primary molar and a permanent premolar is called the ____.

a)

Leeway space

b)

Furcation zone

c)

Peristalsis plexus

d)

Incisor liability

155.

The mixed dentition phase occurs from approximately ___ years of age.

a)

Birth -2

b)

3-6

c)

8-12

d)

13-18

156.

Tooth eruption requires formation of the eruption

a)

Ruffled border

b)

Diphyodont

c)

Pathway

d)

Leeway space

157.

Which of the following defines the functional eruption phase?

a)

The first phase of tooth eruption, which includes eruptive movements during confirmation

b)

The final stage, which includes occlusal wear of the enamel

c)

The process of initiation of root development into the oral cavity

d)

The final stage, and which teeth require adjustments relative to the bony crypt

158.

Fusion of the tooth (reduced enamel epithelium) with the oral epithelium forms which type of connection?

a)

Periodontal ligament

b)

Junctional epithelium

c)

Trabeculae

d)

Fundic

159.

Which of the following best defines ankylosis?

a)

A fusion of tooth roots to the bony socket

b)

A process that leads to tooth eruption

c)

The removal of bone of our lying the bony crypt

d)

Eruption of a tooth into a space occupied by an opposing tooth

160.

Which type of teeth are not successors of primary teeth?

a)

Adult incisors

b)

Adult canines

c)

Adult premolars

d)

Adult molars

161.

Special ____ cells destroy collagen fibers by ingestion

a)

Fibroblast

b)

Osteoclast

c)

Osteoblast

d)

Amino acid

162.

The ____ stage of tooth development contains permanent and primary teeth in various stages of formation

a)

Preeruptive

b)

Mixed dentition

c)

Late prefuncional

d)

Functional eruptive

163.

Which structures increase the surface area of the osteoclasts?

a)

Fibroblasts

b)

Ruffled border

c)

Periodontal fibers

d)

Epithelial diaphragm

164.

Hard tissue resorption comprises which two phases?

a)

Mineral and collagen phases

b)

Pre-functional and functional phases

c)

Extracellular and intracellular

d)

Fibroblasts eruptive and osteoclast functional face

165.

Osteoblasts are the active cells in both the formation and degradation of the collagen fibers true or false

a)

true

b)

false

166.

The eruptive process is rapid and continuous true or false

a)

true

b)

false

167.

During eruption the epithelial attachment shifts to the cervical area true or false

a)

true

b)

false

168.

Enamel is about twice as thick in permanent teeth as its primary teeth True or false

a)

true

b)

false

169.

Primary and permanent teeth have similar enamel prism structure except at the tooth surface true or false

a)

true

b)

false

170.

The reduced enamel epithelium fuses with the oral epithelium during pre-functional irruption true or false

a)

true

b)

false

171.

The lack of development of the pulp proliferative zone leads to root formation failure True or false

a)

true

b)

false

172.

The pre-functional eruptive phase is characterized by dormancy in the tissues overline, surrounding, and underline the tissue True or false

a)

true

b)

false

173.

Eruptive movement of posterior teeth occurs exclusively through the bony crypt of the jaws to reach the mucosa true or false

a)

true

b)

false

174.

Shedding is the loss of mixed dentition caused by resorption of the roots true or false

a)

true

b)

false

175.

Active osteoclasts are multinucleated true or false

a)

true

b)

false

176.

Final maturation of the periodontal ligament fibers occurs

a)

At the cap stage of tooth formation

b)

When the teeth first erupt through the gingiva

c)

When the teeth reach function occlusion

d)

When the root is half formed

177.

How many teeth are in the primary dentition and how many teeth are in the permanent dentition?

a)

20 in primary ; 28 primary

b)

20 in primary: 32 in permanent

c)

32 in primary; 32 in primary

d)

32 in primary; 52 in permanent

178.

Why are humans considered to be diphyodonts?

a)

Because the possess two dentitions

b)

Because the adult molars are intended for chewing plants

c)

Because the adult canines are pointed and having a single cusp

d)

Because the mesiodistal dimension of the adult premolars is less than that of the primary molars

179.

Which of the following is the origin of the osteoclasts?

a)

Fibroblasts

b)

Monocytes

c)

Amino acids

d)

Root resorption

180.

Which of the following occurs when root formation begins?

a)

The epithelial root sheath proliferates

b)

The tooth’s crown tip enters the oral cavity

c)

Fibrous tissue surrounding the follicle increases

d)

Reduced enamel epithelium contacts and fuses with the oral epithelium

181.

Which part of the enamel is most sensitive to demineralization?

a)

Tail

b)

Core

c)

Head

d)

Sheath

182.

A developmental defect at the dentinoenamel junction of enamel that is filled with organic material is called (a/an)

a)

Enamel rod

b)

Enamel tuft

c)

Enamel Lamellae

d)

Enamel spindle

183.

Which of the following best defines the neonatal line?

a)

An accentuated incremental line

b)

A defect caused by the misdirection of enamel rods

c)

Light and dark enamel Rod groups made visible with light

d)

A series of dark growth rings noticeable in the cross-section of enamel

184.

Which statement is true?

a)

Tubular defects are associated with enamel lamellae

b)

Lamellae provide increased resistance to dental caries

c)

Breathing cold air is a risk factor in developing enamel Lamellae

d)

Enamel Lamellae are microscopic crocs in the surface of enamel

185.

An enamel ____ House is a small extension of a living odontoblast

a)

Rod

b)

Tuft

c)

Spindle

d)

Lamellae

186.

The surface of the enamel rod is called the rod

a)

Margin

b)

Periphery

c)

Sheath

d)

Core

187.

Two ameloblast cells from the enamel rod

a)

Head

b)

Neck

c)

Body

d)

Tail

188.

Which of the following does not facilitate the spread of dental caries?

a)

Enamel Tufts

b)

Enamel Lamellae

c)

Incremental lines

d)

Prismless enamel

189.

Ameloblasts produce ____ as they migrate

a)

Cementoid

b)

Enamel rods

c)

Epithelial rest

d)

Dentinal tubules

190.

Enamel Lamellae are not tubular defects but leaf like tracts True or false

a)

true

b)

false

191.

Prism is enamel is characterized by numerous and pronounced Hunter Schreger bands True or false

a)

true

b)

false

192.

Enamel is an impermeable tissue true or false

a)

true

b)

false

193.

In the Hunter Shreger phenomenon adjacent rod groups lie at right angles to each other true or false

a)

true

b)

false

194.

Edging surface of enamel stimulates remain all realization true or false

a)

true

b)

false

195.

Enamel rods extend from the Dentinoenamel junction to the enamel outer surface True or false

a)

true

b)

false

196.

Each enamel rod is formed by a single Ameloblasts true or false

a)

true

b)

false

197.

Enamel rods extend perpendicular to the Dentinoenamel junction curve slightly toward the cusp tip true or false

a)

true

b)

false

198.

Hunter Schreger bands stand through half to 2/3 of the enamel True or false

a)

true

b)

false

199.

Incremental lines result from the rhythmic recurrent deposition of enamel true or false

a)

true

b)

false

200.

Ameloblast migrate away from the Dentinoenamel Junction as they produce enamel rods True or false

a)

true

b)

false

201.

Ameloblast travel along parallel paths to produce straight enamel rods true or false

a)

true

b)

false

202.

Light and dark enamel rods groups are known as striae of Retzius true or false

a)

true

b)

false

203.

Ameloblast deposit for nanometers of enamel rods daily true or false

a)

true

b)

false

204.

Enamel varies in density and hardness true or false

a)

true

b)

false

205.

Lamellae Are cracks in the surface of enamel and are visible to the naked eye true or false

a)

true

b)

false

206.

Which of the following best defines perikymata?

a)

Termination of dentinal tubules in enamel

b)

Alternating dark and light bands of enamel rod groups

c)

Growth lines visible as ridges on the surface of enamel

d)

Lines that result from the rhythmic recurrent deposition of Enamel

207.

Enamel is approximately ____ thick at the a Cluzel or incisal surface

a)

1nm

b)

9nm

c)

2.5mm

d)

4.5mm

208.

Enamel is composed of ____ hydroxyapatite

a)

26%

b)

53%

c)

96%

d)

99%

209.

Perikymata are found in which location?

a)

Cusp tip

b)

Cervical third of the root

c)

Middle third of the crowns lingual aspect

d)

Cervical third of the crowns facial aspec

210.

The organic component of enamel is called

a)

hydroxyapatite

b)

enamelin

c)

Gnarled enamel

d)

perikymata

211.

Which type of enamel contains many tiny spaces stained with pigment?

a)

Gnarled

b)

Prenatal

c)

Postnatal

d)

Prismless

212.

Which of the following best defines incremental lines?

a)

Ridges visible on the surface of enamel

b)

Termination of dentinal tubules in enamel

c)

Alternating dark and light bands of enamel rod grips

d)

Lines that result from the rhythmic recurrent deposition of enamel