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Final Theory Test Practice (CCNA)

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What commonly motivates cybercriminals to attack networks as compared to hacktivists or state-sponsored hackers?

a)

financial gain

b)

fame seeking

c)

status among peers

d)

political reasons

2.

In what type of attack is a cybercriminal attempting to prevent legitimate users from accessing network services?

a)

address spoofing

b)

MITM

c)

session hijacking

d)

DoS

3.

Which objective of secure communications is achieved by encrypting data?

a)

authentication

b)

availability

c)

confidentiality

d)

integrity

4.

What type of malware has the primary objective of spreading across the network?

a)

worm

b)

virus

c)

Trojan horse

d)

botnet

5.

A user receives a phone call from a person who claims to represent IT services and then asks that user for confirmation of username and password for auditing purposes. Which security threat does this phone call represent?

a)

spam

b)

social engineering

c)

DDoS

d)

anonymous keylogging

6.

What characteristic completes the following statement? When an IPv6 static route is configured, it is first necessary to configure ……

a)

the next-hop address of two different adjacent routers

b)

the "ipv6 unicast-routing" command

c)

an IPv6 link-local address on the adjacent router

d)

an administrative distance of 2

7.

Which statement describes a VPN?

a)

VPNs use open source virtualization software to create the tunnel through the Internet.

b)

VPNs use logical connections to create public networks through the Internet.

c)

VPNs use dedicated physical connections to transfer data between remote users.

d)

VPNS use virtual connections to create a private network through a public network

8.

The IT department is reporting that a company web server is receiving an abnormally high number of web page requests from different locations simultaneously. Which type of security attack is occurring?

a)

adware

b)

DDos

c)

phishing

d)

social engineering

e)

spyware

9.

What causes a buffer overflow?

a)

launching a security countermeasure to mitigate a Trojan horse

b)

downloading and installing too many software updates at one time

c)

sending too much information to two or more interfaces of the same device, thereby causing dropped packets

d)

sending repeated connections such as Telnet to a particular device, thus denying other data sources

e)

attempting to write more data to a memory location than that location can hold

10.

What is a ping sweep?

a)

a query and response protocol that identifies information about a domain, including the addresses that are assigned to that domain.

b)

a scanning technique that examines a range of TCP or UDP port numbers on a host to detect listening services.

c)

a software application that enables the capture of all network packets that are sent across a LAN.

d)

a network scanning technique that indicates the live hosts in a range of IP addresses

11.

Which attack involves threat actors positioning themselves between a source and destination with the intent of transparently monitoring, capturing, and controlling the communication?

a)

man-in-the-middle attack

b)

SYN flood attack

c)

DoS attack

d)

ICMP attack

12.

What is the term used to describe a potential danger to a company’s assets, data, or network functionality?

a)

vulnerability

b)

threat

c)

asset

d)

exploit

13.

What is a feature of an IPS?

a)

It is deployed in offline mode.

b)

It has no impact on latency.

c)

It is primarily focused on identifying possible incidents.

d)

It can stop malicious packets.

14.

What is the term used to describe the same pre-shared key or secret key, known by both the sender and receiver to encrypt and decrypt data?

a)

data integrity

b)

exploit

c)

risk

d)

symmetric encryption algorithm

15.

Which impact does adding a Layer 2 switch have on a network?

a)

an increase in the number of dropped frames

b)

an increase in the number of network collisions

c)

an increase in the size of the broadcast domain

d)

an increase in the size of the collision domain

16.

What information is added to the switch table from incoming frames?

a)

source MAC address and incoming port number

b)

destination MAC address and incoming port number

c)

source IP address and incoming port number

d)

destination IP address and incoming port number

17.

Which protocol adds security to remote connections?

a)

FTP

b)

HTTP

c)

NetBEUI

d)

POP

e)

SSH

18.

What is the first action in the boot sequence when a switch is powered on?

a)

load the default Cisco IOS software

b)

load boot loader software

c)

low-level CPU initialization

d)

load a power-on self-test program

19.

What is a characteristic of an IPv4 loopback interface on a Cisco IOS router?​

a)

The no shutdown command is required to place this interface in an UP state.​

b)

It is a logical interface internal to the router.

c)

Only one loopback interface can be enabled on a router.​

d)

It is assigned to a physical port and can be connected to other devices.

20.

On a switch that is configured with multiple VLANs, which command will remove only VLAN 100 from the switch?

a)

Switch# delete flash:vlan.dat

b)

Switch(config-if)# no switchport access vlan 100

c)

Switch(config-if)# no switchport trunk allowed vlan 100

d)

Switch(config)# no vlan 100

21.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is reviewing port and VLAN assignments on switch S2 and notices that interfaces Gi0/1 and Gi0/2 are not included in the output. Why would the interfaces be missing from the output?

a)

There is a native VLAN mismatch between the switches.

b)

There is no media connected to the interfaces.

c)

They are administratively shut down.

d)

They are configured as trunk interfaces.

22.

Refer to the exhibit. In what switch mode should port G0/1 be assigned if Cisco best practices are being used?

a)

access

b)

trunk

c)

native

d)

auto

23.

What is a characteristic of a routed port on a Layer 3 switch?

a)

It supports trunking.

b)

It is not assigned to a VLAN.

c)

It is commonly used as a WAN link.

d)

It cannot have an IP address assigned to it.

24.

An IT security specialist enables port security on a switch port of a Cisco switch. What is the default violation mode in use until the switch port is configured to use a different violation mode?

a)

shutdown

b)

disabled

c)

restrict

d)

protect

25.

Which feature on a Cisco router permits the forwarding of traffic for which there is no specific route?

a)

next-hop

b)

gateway of last resort

c)

route source

d)

outgoing interface

26.

What is an advantage of using dynamic routing protocols instead of static routing?

a)

easier to implement

b)

more secure in controlling routing updates

c)

fewer router resource overhead requirements

d)

ability to actively search for new routes if the current path becomes unavailable​

27.

Which value in a routing table represents trustworthiness and is used by the router to determine which route to install into the routing table when there are multiple routes toward the same destination?

a)

administrative distance

b)

metric

c)

outgoing interface

d)

routing protocol

28.

Refer to the graphic. Which command would be used on router A to configure a static route to direct traffic from LAN A that is destined for LAN C?

a)

A(config)# ip route 192.168.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.3.1

b)

A(config)# ip route 192.168.3.2 255.255.255.0 192.168.4.0

c)

A(config)# ip route 192.168.4.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.5.2

d)

A(config)# ip route 192.168.5.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.3.2

e)

A(config)# ip route 192.168.4.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.3.2

29.

Refer to the exhibit. What routing solution will allow both PC A and PC B to access the Internet with the minimum amount of router CPU and network bandwidth utilization?

a)

Configure a dynamic routing protocol between R1 and Edge and advertise all routes.

b)

Configure a static route from R1 to Edge and a dynamic route from Edge to R1.

c)

Configure a static default route from R1 to Edge, a default route from Edge to the Internet, and a static route from Edge to R1.

d)

Configure a dynamic route from R1 to Edge and a static route from Edge to R1.

30.

A router has used the OSPF protocol to learn a route to the 172.16.32.0/19 network. Which command will implement a backup floating static route to this network?

a)

ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 100

b)

ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.240.0 S0/0/0 200

c)

ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 200

d)

ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/0 100

31.

Refer to the exhibit. What will the router do with a packet that has a destination IP address of 192.168.12.227?

a)

Drop the packet.

b)

Send the packet out the GigabitEthernet0/0 interface.

c)

Send the packet out the Serial0/0/0 interface.

d)

Send the packet out the GigabitEthernet0/1 interface.

32.

Under which two occasions should an administrator disable DTP while managing a local area network? (Choose two.)

a)

when connecting a Cisco switch to a non-Cisco switch

b)

when a neighbor switch uses a DTP mode of dynamic auto

c)

when a neighbor switch uses a DTP mode of dynamic desirable

d)

on links that should not be trunking

e)

on links that should dynamically attempt trunking

33.

What are two functions of dynamic routing protocols? (Choose two.)

a)

to maintain routing tables

b)

to assure low router overhead

c)

to avoid exposing network information

d)

to discover the network

e)

to choose the path that is specified by the administrator

34.

Which three advantages are provided by static routing? (Choose three.)

a)

Static routing does not advertise over the network, thus providing better security.

b)

Configuration of static routes is error-free.

c)

Static routes scale well as the network grows.

d)

Static routing typically uses less network bandwidth and fewer CPU operations than dynamic routing does.

e)

The path a static route uses to send data is known.

35.

What is a function of OSPF hello packets?

a)

to send specifically requested link-state records

b)

to discover neighbors and build adjacencies between them

c)

to ensure database synchronization between routers

d)

to request specific link-state records from neighbor routers

36.

What is a disadvantage of NAT?

a)

There is no end-to-end addressing.

b)

The router does not need to alter the checksum of the IPv4 packets.​

c)

The internal hosts have to use a single public IPv4 address for external communication.

d)

The costs of readdressing hosts can be significant for a publicly addressed network.​

37.

Refer to the exhibit. If no router ID was manually configured, what would router Branch1 use as its OSPF router ID?

a)

10.0.0.1

b)

10.1.0.1

c)

192.168.1.100

d)

209.165.201.1

38.

What is the purpose of the overload keyword in the ip nat inside source list 1 pool NAT_POOL overload command?

a)

It allows many inside hosts to share one or a few inside global addresses.

b)

It allows a list of internal hosts to communicate with a specific group of external hosts.

c)

It allows external hosts to initiate sessions with internal hosts.

d)

It allows a pool of inside global addresses to be used by internal hosts.

39.

Which step in the link-state routing process is described by a router inserting best paths into the routing table?

a)

declaring a neighbor to be inaccessible

b)

executing the SPF algorithm

c)

load balancing equal-cost paths

d)

choosing the best route

40.

Refer to the exhibit. Which command would be used in a standard ACL to allow only devices on the network attached to R2 G0/0 interface to access the networks attached to R1?

a)

access-list 1 permit 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.63

b)

access-list 1 permit 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.255

c)

access-list 1 permit 192.168.10.96 0.0.0.31

d)

access-list 1 permit 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.63

41.

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator has configured a standard ACL on R1 and applied it to interface serial 0/0/0 in the outbound direction. What happens to traffic leaving interface serial 0/0/0 that does not match the configured ACL statements?

a)

The traffic is dropped.

b)

The source IP address is checked and, if a match is not found, traffic is routed out interface serial 0/0/1.

c)

The resulting action is determined by the destination IP address.

d)

The resulting action is determined by the destination IP address and port number.

42.

A technician is tasked with using ACLs to secure a router. When would the technician use the ip access-group 101 in configuration option or command?

a)

to secure administrative access to the router

b)

to apply an extended ACL to an interface

c)

to display all restricted traffic

d)

to secure management traffic into the router

43.

Which IPsec security function provides assurance that the data received via a VPN has not been modified in transit?

a)

integrity

b)

authentication

c)

confidentiality

d)

secure key exchange

44.

What is one indication that a Windows computer did not receive an IPv4 address from a DHCP server?

a)

The computer cannot ping 127.0.0.1.

b)

The computer receives an IP address that starts with 169.254.

c)

Windows displays a DHCP timeout message.

d)

The computer cannot ping other devices on the same network with IP addresses in the 169.254.0.0/16 range.

45.

A network manager wants to view the amount of available and free memory, the type of file system, and its permissions. What command should the administrator use on a Cisco router?

a)

ntp server 10.10.14.9

b)

lldp enable

c)

clock timezone PST -7

d)

show file systems

46.

A network technician issues the following commands when configuring a router:

R1(config)# router ospf 11

R1(config-router)# network 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

What does the number 11 represent?

a)

the OSPF process ID on R1

b)

the cost of the link to R1

c)

the autonomous system number to which R1 belongs

d)

the administrative distance that is manually assigned to R1

e)

the area number where R1 is located

47.

Which message does an IPv4 host use to reply when it receives a DHCPOFFER message from a DHCP server?

a)

DHCPOFFER

b)

DHCPDISCOVER

c)

DHCPREQUEST

d)

DHCPACK

48.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is verifying the configuration of inter-VLAN routing. Users complain that PC2 cannot communicate with PC1. Based on the output, what is the possible cause of the problem?

a)

Gi0/0 is not configured as a trunk port.

b)

The command interface GigabitEthernet0/0.5 was entered incorrectly.

c)

There is no IP address configured on the interface Gi0/0.

d)

The no shutdown command is not entered on subinterfaces.

e)

The encapsulation dot1Q 5 command contains the wrong VLAN.

49.

What is the function of STP in a scalable network?

a)

It decreases the size of the failure domain to contain the impact of failures.

b)

It protects the edge of the enterprise network from malicious activity.

c)

It combines multiple switch trunk links to act as one logical link for increased bandwidth.

d)

It disables redundant paths to eliminate Layer 2 loops.

50.

If no bridge priority is configured in PVST, which criteria is considered when electing the root bridge?

a)

lowest MAC address

b)

lowest IP address

c)

highest IP address

d)

highest MAC address

51.

Which statement is true regarding the use of PAgP to create EtherChannels?

a)

It requires full duplex.

b)

It increases the number of ports that are participating in spanning tree.

c)

It requires more physical links than LACP does.

d)

It mandates that an even number of ports (2, 4, 6, etc.) be used for aggregation.

e)

It is Cisco proprietary.

52.

Which statement describes an EtherChannel implementation?

a)

EtherChannel operates only at Layer 2.

b)

PAgP cannot be used in conjunction with EtherChannel.

c)

A trunked port can be part of an EtherChannel bundle.

d)

EtherChannel can support up to a maximum of ten separate links.

53.

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator wants to form an EtherChannel between the two switches by using the Port Aggregation Protocol. If switch S1 is configured to be in auto mode, which mode should be configured on S2 to form the EtherChannel?

a)

auto

b)

on

c)

off

d)

desirable

54.

Which statement describes HSRP?​

a)

It is used within a group of routers for selecting an active device and a standby device to provide gateway services to a LAN.

b)

It uses ICMP to allow IPv4 hosts to locate routers that provide IPv4 connectivity to remote IP networks.​

c)

If the virtual router master fails, one router is elected as the virtual router master with the other routers acting as backups.

d)

It is an open standard protocol.

55.

Which access control component, implementation, or protocol is based upon usernames and passwords?

a)

802.1X

b)

accounting

c)

authentication

d)

authorization

56.

A company uses a cloud-based payroll system. Which cloud computing technology is this company using?

a)

browser as a service (BaaS)

b)

infrastructure as a service (IaaS)

c)

software as a service (SaaS)

d)

wireless as a service (WaaS)

57.

Which is a characteristic of a Type 1 hypervisor?​

a)

installed directly on a server​

b)

best suited for consumers and not for an enterprise environment

c)

does not require management console software

d)

installed on an existing operating system​

58.

What is a function of the data plane of a network device?

a)

sending information to the CPU for processing

b)

building the routing table

c)

resolving MAC addresses

d)

forwarding traffic flows

59.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator wants to permit only host 192.168.1.1 /24 to be able to access the server 192.168.2.1 /24. Which three commands will achieve this using best ACL placement practices? (Choose three.)

a)

R2(config-if)# ip access-group 101 in

b)

R2(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0

c)

R2(config)# access-list 101 permit ip host 192.168.1.1 host 192.168.2.1

d)

R2(config-if)# ip access-group 101 out

e)

R2(config)# access-list 101 permit ip 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0

60.

What two benefits are gained when an organization adopts cloud computing and virtualization? (Choose two.)

a)

provides a “pay-as-you-go” model, allowing organizations to treat computing and storage expenses as a utility

b)

enables rapid responses to increasing data volume requirements

c)

distributed processing of large data sets in the size of terabytes

d)

elimination of vulnerabilities to cyber attacks

e)

increases the dependance on onsite IT resources