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Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 53mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Non-monetary rewards are:

a)

A. Very common, but often customized

b)

B. Valued by employees

c)

C. Valuable to employers

d)

D. All of the above

2.

The benefits of being an Employer of Choice include:

a)

A. Employees like working for your company

b)

B. Likely to have a great reputation

c)

C. Probably make it easier to recruit new employees

d)

D. Guarantees business success

3.

Can things go wrong with non-monetary reward programs?

a)

A. Yes, despite best intentions.

b)

B. Maybe, but you have to be very unlucky

c)

C. Not really. Problems mostly occur in cash compensation programs

4.

In implementation, non-monetary rewards program designs:

a)

A. Can be informal, and set up between a manager and the employee

b)

B. Should be very formalized, and include many details, options and approvals

c)

C. Can be formal, and set up by the company, likely including written guidelines or practices

d)

D. Must be kept confidential, and implemented occasionally

5.

Employees who want work flexibility:

a)

A. Might prefer to work on a part-time schedule

b)

B. Are sometimes people dealing with family emergencies

c)

C. Could be anyone. Almost all of us need work flexibility at some point

d)

D. Are lazy and do not want to work very hard

6.

Learning at work is:

a)

A. Great, but my manager should see me doing it

b)

B. Great, as it is a way to learn more about my job and other jobs

c)

C. Fine, as long as it doesn't lead to extra work

d)

D. Fine, as long as it does not take too long

7.

For recognition to be effective it should:

a)

A. Recognize something important

b)

B. Include a cash award

c)

C. Be given by the CEO

d)

D. Be done in a way that is meaningful in the culture

8.

When it comes to Non-Monetary Rewards, employers think:

a)

A. This is a big waste of time

b)

B. It will cost way too much money

c)

C. We can offer non-monetary rewards so that we can reduce employee compensation

d)

D. This might be a good way to show our company culture and values

9.

From an employee's perspective, non-monetary rewards are:

a)

A. Valuable to each employee based upon their preferences

b)

B. Important, and might include a good company reputation

c)

C. A nuisance, and take up valuable time at work

d)

D. Hard to understand

10.

Non-monetary rewards are:

a)

A. Always less important than cash compensation

b)

B. Always more important than cash compensation

c)

C. Only important when you are newly hired

d)

D. Important to both employees and employers

11.

Non-monetary rewards:

a)

A. Are worth it. Go for it!

b)

B. Can cause too many problems and should be avoided

c)

C. Generally lead to employee dissatisfaction

12.

Non-monetary rewards are best when:

a)

A. The company tailors them to their own unique needs and values

b)

B. They only include the most common non-monetary rewards found at other companies

c)

C. Everyone can participate all the time

13.

Non-monetary rewards should always be avoided when:

a)

A. Everyone can't benefit

b)

B. Employees work in multiple locations

c)

C. Most employees work part-time

d)

D. There isn't a clear reason to totally avoid non-monetary rewards. Non-monetary rewards help in so many ways

14.

Benefits of an informal approach to non-monetary rewards include:

a)

A. The manager can often approve the non-monetary reward

b)

B. Implementation can be quick

c)

C. There are generally no issues of inequity across managers

15.

Formal program designs are always best for non-monetary rewards.

a)

A. TRUE. Formal program designs are always best

b)

B. FALSE. Informal and formal program designs can both work well.

B

16.

Training is only worthwhile if it leads to a promotion

a)

A. TRUE. It must lead to a promotion

b)

B. FALSE. It can be worthwhile if it helps you do your job better

17.

Training programs:

a)

A. Rarely work when it involves oversight from someone else

b)

B. Are expensive and generally do not work

c)

C. Can be on-the-job, or in a classroom

18.

Examples of workplace flexibility include:

a)

A. Part-time work schedule

b)

B. Taking a short leave-of-absence to handle a family emergency

c)

C. Not showing up to work whenever I feel like staying home

19.

Recognition programs include:

a)

A. Sales awards, to acknowledge selling success

b)

B. Performance awards, to acknowledge a job well done

c)

C. Service awards, to acknowledge continued employment

20.

A heartfelt thank-you is an effective form of recognition

a)

A. TRUE. It can mean a lot when you have worked on something, and it is noticed and appreciated by others.

b)

B. FALSE. A thank-you doesn't cost anything, so it does not have very much value to anyone.

21.

The most important non-monetary reward for employees is:

a)

A. Flexibility

b)

B. Bringing a pet dog to work

c)

C. Being able to work part-time

d)

D. Each employee has their own unique needs and preferences, so the importance of non-monetary rewards will vary by individual

22.

An employer might decide to offer a non-monetary reward because:

a)

A. Everybody else was doing it. The company didn't want to get left behind

b)

B. It might show a special value and/or uniqueness of the company

c)

C. It might aid in employee retention

23.

Employees must receive less cash compensation to also receive a non-monetary reward.

a)

A. True. Non-monetary rewards cost the company money, and are generally offset by lower cash compensation

b)

B. False. In most cases non-monetary rewards are offered in addition to a fair level of cash compensation

24.

Examples of gaining individual growth through non-monetary rewards include:

a)

A. Making a good guess at how to perform better

b)

B. Having a mentor at work or elsewhere

c)

C. Getting feedback from your manager or coworkers

25.

Non-monetary rewards are valuable to:

a)

A. only employers

b)

B. to both employees and employers

c)

C. only employees

d)

D. nobody, because non-monetary rewards do not involve cash compensation

26.

Which of the following is a TRUE statements about ERISA?

a)

A. ERISA provides minimum standards of fiduciary responsibility for employers that provide pension plans.

b)

B. ERISA requires that employers that offer pension plans contribute at least 3% of an employee's salary.

c)

C. ERISA requires that employers provide access to a qualified pension plan.

27.

Which of the following is generally regarded as a best practice?

a)

A. Shifting the allocation of a pension fund away from stocks and toward investment grade bonds as workers approach retirement age.

b)

B. Actively picking individual stocks with a pension fund.

c)

C. Choosing funds with high management fees.

28.

Pierre's pension plan allows him to choose the amount of his contribution and how his contributions are invested. The better his chosen investments perform, the more money he'll have in his plan's account when he retires. This is an example of what kind of a pension plan?

a)

A. Defined Contribution (e.g. 401k)

b)

B. Social Security

c)

C. Defined Benefit

29.

Li Li's pension fund mandates that she will receive $1800 per month for the rest of her life. This is an example of what kind of fund?

a)

A. Defined Contribution (e.g. 401k)

b)

B. Defined Benefit

c)

C. Simplified Employee Pension

30.

True or False: Defined contribution plans are generally tax advantaged because they allow you to defer taxable income until you're in a lower tax bracket.

a)

A. True

b)

B. False

31.

Which of the following statements about the ACA health insurance exchange marketplaces are correct?

a)

A. All states have their own state-specific health insurance exchanges.

b)

B. All states participate in the health insurance exchange created by the federal government.

c)

C. Some states create health insurance exchanges, and other states defer to an exchange set up by the federal government.

32.

Suppose that, for some condition, an insuree has a $1,000 deductible and 50% coinsurance until a $10,000 cap. The health care provider's fees amount to $600. What is the insuree's liability?

a)

A. $600

b)

B. $0

c)

C. $1,000

d)

D. $300

33.

There are a several reasons firms use employer-sponsored pension plans. One reason is that it allows employees to defer compensation until retirement, when they're taxed at a relatively low rate. Second, by participating in an employer's plan, the employer may be able to negotiate lower management fees with service providers. These two specific reasons illustrate what two general reasons that firms provide employer-sponsored pension plans, rather than cash? Mark the best answer

a)

A. They attract the right kind of worker

b)

B. They're cheaper for firms to provide than for workers

c)

C. They're cheaper for firms to provide than for workers and they enjoy returns to scale

d)

D. They provide benefits to firms

e)

E. They're motivational symbolic benefits

34.

Which of the following would be TRUE of someone recognized by the FLSA as a trainee?

a)

A. The trainee would not provide immediate benefit to their employer.

b)

B. The trainee's job duties would be exempt under the FLSA.

c)

C. The trainee's employer would be not covered under the FLSA.

d)

D. The trainee must not be paid more than $455 per week.

35.

Which of the following statutes provides job-protected unpaid leave for new parents?

a)

A. FMLA

b)

B. FLSA

c)

C. EEO

d)

D. NLRA

36.

Which of the following investment vehicles is least likely to lose 5% of its value?

a)

A. A US treasury bond

b)

B. A stock market index fund

c)

C. A high-yield bond fund

37.

True or false: defined contribution plans are generally tax advantaged because upon retirement, withdrawals are treated as capital gains rather than ordinary income.

a)

A. True

b)

B. False

38.

True or False: defined contribution plans are generally tax advantaged because savings can accumulate without capital gains tax.

a)

A. True

b)

B. False

39.

Which of the following statements about the Affordable Care Act are TRUE?

a)

A. A firm with 20 FTE employees would receive a tax penalty if it does not offer health insurance.

b)

B. A firm with 200 FTE employees would receive a tax credit if it offers health insurance.

c)

C. A firm with 20 FTE employees would receive a tax credit if it offers health insurance.

40.

Which of the following definitions is not correct?

a)

A. A premium is a regular fee paid by the employer or insuree to purchase coverage

b)

B. A co-insurance is a percent of the cost of health care that the e must pay after the deductible is met.

c)

C. A HDHP is a High-Density Healthcare Provider

d)

D. An HMO is a group of healthcare providers that provide coverage on a prepaid basis

41.

Consider a company that has a relatively high degree of job security and a pay mix that benchmarks compensation at the 75th percentile for base pay and benefits. However, unlike competitors, it does not offer short-term incentives or long-term incentives. What message mostly is likely to accompany this pay mix?

a)

A. The company values employees who are risk-loving.

b)

B. The company values initiative and autonomy.

c)

C. The company values a loyal, stable, risk-averse workforce.

d)

D. The company values individual performance.

42.

A company that stages haunted houses is looking to hire cast members who are enthusiastic about the horror genre. One of the perks that they offer is a huge zombie-themed party for just the cast after the performances are done, which is easy since the company already has make-up, props, and the haunted house. There are some general reasons that the company may decide to pay for a party rather than provide higher cash rewards? Which of the below is NOT a reason.

a)

A. It's cheaper for the company than the cast members to throw a party

b)

B. The party would attract the "right" kind of worker

c)

C. The party would also bring revenue to the company

43.

Which of the following are NOT beneficiaries of supplementary income under OASDI?

a)

A. The disabled

b)

B. Veterans

c)

C. Retirees over the age of 65

d)

D. The immediate family of deceased workers (e.g. widows and widowers)

44.

Which statement about worker's compensation is TRUE?

a)

A. It supplements compensation for employees who work on weekends and holidays.

b)

B. It requires employers to reimburse employees' work-related expenses.

c)

C. It supplements income for workers injured on the job.

d)

D. It's administered at the federal level.

45.

In US federal law, which of the following is NOT a federal statutory benefit?

a)

A. Twelve weeks unpaid leave for childbirth or adoption

b)

B. Six weeks paid leave for childbirth or adoption

c)

C. OASDI

46.

Which of the following statements is TRUE of an administrative assistant?

a)

A. They would need to be paid the minimum wage, but not overtime. Their job duties are not exempt from the FLSA.

b)

B. They may be paid a salary.

c)

C. Their job is exempt from the FLSA.

d)

D. They would need to be paid overtime, but not a minimum wage. Their job duties are not exempt from the FLSA.

e)

E. They must be paid minimum wage and overtime. Their job duties are not exempt from the FLSA.

47.

Suppose that you're analyzing jobs for Crescendo Coffee, a major coffee retail chain. Assuming each of these people pass the salary test, which person is least likely to be exempted from the FLSA?

a)

A. A network engineer who maintains the computer systems.

b)

B. A shift supervisor who primarily serves as a barista, and sometimes supervises one other employee.

c)

C. A district manager for the New England area.

d)

D. The Chief Human Resource Officer.

48.

Which person may be paid a salary?

a)

A. Someone making $400 per week, whose job duties exempt them from the FLSA.

b)

B. Someone making $800 per week, whose job duties exempt them from the FLSA.

c)

C. Someone making $400 per week, whose job duties DO NOT exempt them from the FLSA.

d)

D. Someone making $800 per week, whose job duties DO NOT exempt them from the FLSA.

e)

E. None of the above.

49.

Which of the following requires employers to bargain in good faith over wages with workers' elected bargaining representative?

a)

A. EEO

b)

B. NLRA

c)

C. FLSA

d)

D. FMLA

50.

Use the website http://www.dol.gov/whd/minwage/america.htm to look up minimum wages in the United States on January 1st, 2016. Which of the following would be true of employers and workers covered by the Fair Labor Standards Act?

a)

A. Employers in Alabama may pay workers $5 per hour.

b)

B. Employers in Alabama must pay workers more than the federal rate of $7.25 per hour.

c)

C. Employers in Alabama must pay workers at least the federal rate of $7.25 per hour.

51.

Which of these employees is most likely to receive a stock option that is qualified under the IRS Code Section 409A, meaning that any incentives would qualify as an incentive stock option (ISO)?

a)

A. A Chief Financial Officer whose compensation package includes a stock option grant.

b)

B. A programmer whose compensation package includes a stock option grant.

c)

C. A barista who participates in his employer's employee stock option purchase program.

52.

When an employee joins her organization, she gets an option to purchase 1000 shares with a strike price of $2 per share, and these shares vest over four years. One year later, the stock price is $3 per share. Two years later, the stock price is $4 per share. The employee then quits and exercises any vested options. Which of the following statements is true?

a)

A. The employee exercises the option, purchasing 250 shares at $3 per share, and 250 shares at $4 per share.

b)

B. The employee exercises the option to purchase 500 shares, paying $2 per share.

c)

C. The employee exercises the option to purchase 1000 shares, paying $4 per share.

d)

D. The employee exercises the option to purchase 500 shares, paying $4 per share.

e)

E. The employee exercises the option to purchase 1000 shares, paying $2 per share.

F. The employee cannot exercise any options.

53.

Which of the following statements is true?

a)

A. Phantom shares work like stock grants, except the criteria for granting them is known only to the firm.

b)

B. Performance shares are only issued after a stock reaches a certain price.

c)

C. Stock options are only issued after a stock reaches a certain price.

54.

salesperson is paid 1% of revenue generated up to $1,000,000, 2% of revenue generated up to $2,000,000, and 3% of revenue generated thereafter. This is an example of what kind of an incentive?

a)

A. Flat

b)

B. Accelerated

c)

C. Linear (positive slope)

d)

D. Linear (negative slope)

B

55.

When India was a British Colony, the British tried to reduce the population of cobras by providing incentives for people to hunt them. They did so by providing a bounty for dead cobras. However, this led people to begin breeding snakes, so that they may be slaughtered and delivered for bounty. Ultimately, this incentive suffered from the

a)

A. Control problem

b)

B. Alignment problem

c)

C. Measurement problem

d)

D. Metering problem

56.

Which of the following statements about tournament incentives is accurate? (check all that apply)

a)

A. Tournament incentives work well when employees work together in teams

b)

B. Tournament incentives promote competition between employees

c)

C. Tournament incentives help maintain the effectiveness of incentives when outside factors affect many employees' productivity

d)

D. Tournament incentives encourage employees to share best practices

57.

Which of the following are examples of a Key Performance Indicators?

a)

A. Average customer service score

b)

B. Total dollar value of sales generated

c)

C. Year-end bonus

d)

D. Units produced

58.

What performance metric might be found on Behaviorally-Anchored Rating Scale?

a)

A. The employee's customer satisfaction scores are at least 4.5 out of 5.0.

b)

B. The employee displays courtesy and patience when speaking to frustrated customers.

c)

C. The employee generates $10 million in new business.

59.

Which of the following scenarios illustrates the halo bias?

a)

A. The evaluator knows that the employee has EXCELLENT reliability. This contaminates his ratings for the employee's technical skills, customer service skills, and willingness to help others. The latter ratings are now biased UPWARD.

b)

B. The evaluator knows that the employee has POOR technical skills. This contaminates her ratings for the employee's reliability, customer service skills, and willingness to help others. The latter ratings are now biased UPWARD.

c)

C. The evaluator knows that the employee has POOR technical skills. This contaminates her ratings for the employee's reliability, customer service skills, and willingness to help others. The latter ratings are now biased DOWNWARD.

d)

D. The evaluator knows that the employee has EXCELLENT reliability. This contaminates his ratings for the employee's technical skills, customer service skills, and willingness to help others. The latter ratings are now biased DOWNWARD.

60.

Employees who receive high performance evaluations for their prior year's accomplishments are awarded a fixed cash award. This is an example of tying evaluations to what element of the pay mix?

a)

A. Non-Monetary

b)

B. Long Term Incentives

c)

C. Short Term Incentives

d)

D. Perks

e)

E. Base pay

61.

The differences between the stock price and the stock option's strike price is:

a)

A. The time value

b)

B. The intrinsic value

c)

C. The vesting period

62.

Which of the following is sometimes referred to as Golden Handcuffs?

a)

A. bonuses

b)

B. commissions

c)

C. stock options

d)

D. pensions

63.

Which of the following statements about non-qualified stock options (NQSOs) is accurate?

a)

A. Employers cannot deduct NQSOs as a business expense, employees do not pay taxes when they exercise NQSOs.

b)

B. Employers can deduct NQSOs as a business expense, employees do pay taxes when they exercise NQSOs.

c)

C. Employers cannot deduct NQSOs as a business expense, employees do pay taxes when they exercise NQSOs.

d)

D. Employers can deduct NQSOs as a business expense, employees do not pay taxes when they exercise NQSOs.

64.

Which of the following definitions is correct?

a)

A. The strike price is the market price of the stock on the date that the employee exercises the option to purchase the stock.

b)

B. The vesting period represents the period of time over which the options become allowed to be exercised.

65.

Which of the following statement is TRUE?

a)

A. A share is only valuable if its price goes up.

b)

B. A dividend of "$1 per share" means you need to pay $1 to purchase a share of the stock.

c)

C. Both of the above.

d)

D. None of the above.

66.

What is the relationship between pay and performance when a job only pays a base rate, without STIs?

a)

A. Flat

b)

B. Accelerated

c)

C. Linear (negative slope)

d)

D. Linear (positive slope)

67.

A call center wants to identify how many calls a customer service representative should take in a given hour. To do so, they use historical data, finding that a customer service representatives can be expected to service an average of six calls per hour. By benchmarking productivity, they are trying to solve

a)

A. The measurement problem

b)

B. The alignment problem

c)

C. The control problem

d)

D. The metering problem

68.

A factory line worker is paid a piecerate, or a rate per unit he or she produces. When the materials and components that the line worker receives are faulty, the line worker's performance suffers. This is an example of the

a)

A. Measurement problem

b)

B. Metering problem

c)

C. Alignment problem

d)

D. Control problem

69.

Which of the following statements about tournament incentives is accurate?

a)

A. Tournament incentives encourage employees to share best practices

b)

B. Tournament incentives helps maintain the effectiveness of incentives when outside factors affect many employees' productivity

c)

C. Tournament incentives work well when employees work together in teams

70.

Which of the following is NOT an example of a Key Performance Indicator?

a)

A. Year-end bonus

b)

B. Total dollar value of sales generated

c)

C. Units produced

d)

D. Average customer service score

71.

In advance of a measurement period, a performance evaluation sets specific performance targets for employees, and ties pay to the achievement of those targets. This evaluation is an example of

a)

A. Management by Objectives (MBO)

b)

B. A Realistic evaluation

c)

C. Critical Incidents evaluation

d)

D. Behaviorally-Anchored Rating Scale (BARS)

72.

Managers conducting performance evaluations tend to overweight instances that occurred in the last week more than those that happened six months ago. This is an example of what kind of bias?

a)

A. Recency

b)

B. Halo

c)

C. Anchoring

d)

D. Horn

e)

E. Primacy F. Spillover

73.

Suppose a company decides to separate performance evaluations from raises. Which of the following is a common reason that a company would do so?

a)

A. The company is concerned that tying pay to evaluations can impede the ability of evaluations to serve as a coaching tool.

b)

B. Tying pay to performance evaluations encourages poor performers to stay.

c)

C. The company is concerned that tying pay to performance evaluation makes it difficult for managers and employees to communicate openly about development goals.

A

74.

A good performance evaluation can lead to a boost in any of the following EXCEPT?

a)

A. STIs

b)

B. Base pay

c)

C. Benefits and Perks

d)

D. MBOs

e)

E. LTIs

75.

A good performance evaluation can lead to a boost in any of the following EXCEPT?

a)

A. STIs

b)

B. Base pay

c)

C. Benefits and Perks

d)

D. MBOs

e)

E. LTIs

76.

Employees who perform well are given raises. This is an example of a performance evaluation being tied to which element of the pay mix?

a)

A. Benefits and Perks

b)

B. LTIs

c)

C. STIs

d)

D. Base pay

e)

E. Non-Monetary

77.

Which of the following statements about pay bands is NOT true?

a)

A. They typically span multiple non-contiguous grades within the same ladder (e.g. associates are levels 1-3 and 7-9).

b)

B. They typically combine multiple contiguous grades.

c)

C. They typically combine jobs that are roughly similar in job level, prestige, and pay.

78.

Using a typical merit-based raise criteria, which of the following employees would likely get the largest annual raise?

a)

A. An employee high on the pay range, with high evaluations.

b)

B. An employee low on the pay range, with high evaluations.

c)

C. An employee who has not been recently promoted, but has been receiving high evaluations for a long time.

d)

D. An employee in the middle of the pay range with average evaluations.

79.

Which of the following statements about pay structures and internal benchmarks is NOT correct?

a)

A. Pay tends to increase in job grades because higher grades tend to have workers with greater skills and experience.

b)

B. Pay tends to increase in job grades because higher grades tend to have workers whose productivity is associated with greater revenue.

c)

C. The control rates tell you the pay at benchmarked jobs.

d)

D. The pay policy line must perfectly intersect all of the control rates.

80.

Consider the following statements about employees who are promoted. Which is NOT true?

a)

A. Employees who are promoted will change job grades.

b)

B. Employees who are promoted can go from relatively high on their grade's pay range to being relatively low of the new grade's pay range.

c)

C. Employees who are promoted will generally see an increase in base pay.

d)

D. An employee who is promoted will get a new pay range, with the maximum of the pay range corresponding to base plus the total possible incentive pay.

81.

Suppose that some new technology (like Coursera!) instantly made it cheap and easy for anyone to become a lawyer. What effect will this have on labor supply and labor demand?

a)

A. Labor demand will increase

b)

B. Neither curve will change

c)

C. Labor demand will decrease

d)

D. Labor supply will increase

e)

E. The labor supply and labor demand curves will both change

F. Labor supply will decrease

82.

Which of the following statements about compensation surveys is FALSE?

a)

A. For compliance, compensation departments should use third-parties to administer surveys.

b)

B. For compliance, compensation departments should make sure pay survey data are more than three months old.

c)

C. For best accuracy, compensation departments should make sure that internal jobs and benchmarked jobs are in the same industry and geography.

d)

D. For best accuracy, compensation departments should make sure that internal jobs and benchmarked jobs have the same job titles.

83.

Suppose your organization wants to match pay on the external labor market. Using surveys, you find that the median pay in the external market for that job is $35,000 per year. Which of the following is true?

a)

A. The bottom of the pay range for that job should be $35,000 per year.

b)

B. The top of the pay range for that job should be $35,000 per year.

c)

C. The typical employee for that job should earn about $35,000 per year.

d)

D. The cap in pay for employees in that job should end at $35,000 per year.

e)

E. Entry-level employees for that job should begin at $35,000 per year.

84.

A job description for a truck driver may list "basic truck maintenance skills" under:

a)

A. KSAs

b)

B. Job duties

c)

C. Job context

d)

D. Job summary

e)

E. Job title

85.

Which of the following statements about the Strategic Messaging Model is NOT correct?

a)

A. Messaging includes how we communicate the pay mix to employees.

b)

B. Mix includes relative allocation of compensation across the pay mix.

c)

C. Money includes the value of the total compensation package.

d)

D. In general, we choose our money, mix, and messaging before we choose whom we want to attract, retain, and motivate.

86.

Which of the following is NOT an element of the pay mix?

a)

A. Base cash

b)

B. Short term incentives

c)

C. Long-term incentives

d)

D. Key performance indicators

e)

E. Benefits

87.

Which of the following is a purpose of broad banding?

a)

A. Flexibility in lateral job assignments.

b)

B. Flexibility in pay.

c)

C. Flexibility in allowing multiple career ladders.

d)

D. All of the above.

e)

E. None of the above.

88.

Which of the following pay structures pays employees a premium for additional occupational licenses and education?

a)

A. Skills-based structures

b)

B. Competency-based structures

c)

C. Job-based structures

89.

Which of the following statements about merit-based raise criteria are TRUE?

a)

A. Merit-based raise criteria would typically give the largest raises to people low in the pay range, and with high evaluations.

b)

B. Merit-based raise criteria cannot avoid paying people above the maximum of the pay range.

c)

C. Merit-based raise criteria would typically give the largest raises to people high in the pay range, and with high evaluations.

90.

The pay rates for the jobs that you benchmark are called:

a)

A. The pay structure's pay policy rates.

b)

B. The pay structure's grades.

c)

C. The pay structure's ranges.

d)

D. The pay structure's control rates.

91.

Which of the statements about pay policy lines are TRUE?

a)

A. They go through the midpoints of the pay ranges.

b)

B. They go through the tops of the pay ranges.

c)

C. They go through the bottoms of the pay ranges.

d)

D. They are only used to benchmark pay for the middle grades, and are not used to determine pay at high or low grades.

92.

When we draw our salary structure, a movement from left to right corresponds to:

a)

A. A raise, as you're getting an increase in pay within the same grade.

b)

B. A demotion, as you're getting demoted from a high grade to a lower grade.

c)

C. A pay reduction, as you're getting a reduction in pay within the same grade.

d)

D. A promotion, as you're getting promoted from a low grade to a higher grade.

93.

Which of the following is TRUE about pay ranges?

a)

A. The pay range will give the difference in pay between two adjacent grades.

b)

B. The pay range will give the difference in pay between the least paid person in a grade and the second-least paid person in the pay grade.

c)

C. The pay range will give the difference in pay between the lowest grade and the highest grade.

d)

D. The pay range will give the difference in pay between the least-paid person in a grade and the most-paid person in that grade.

94.

Suppose that several large companies simultaneously announce that they're going to invest heavily in public infrastructure, raising the price of steel and iron ore. What will happen to the quantity and price (wages) for iron miners?

a)

A. The labor supply and labor demand curves will both change

b)

B. Labor demand will shift left: iron miners' wages will decline and the quantity of miners will also decline.

c)

C. Labor supply will shift left: iron miners' wages will increase and the quantity of miners will decrease.

d)

D. Labor demand will shift right: iron miners' wages will rise and the quantity of miner will increase.

e)

E. Neither curve will change

F. The labor supply curve will shift right: iron miners' wages will decrease and the quantity of miners will increase.

95.

Suppose that a new technology makes coal mining much safer. What affect will this have on labor supply and labor demand?

a)

A. Labor supply will decrease

b)

B. Labor demand will decrease

c)

C. Labor demand will increase

d)

D. The labor supply and labor demand curves will both change

E. Neither curve will change

e)

F. Labor supply will increase

96.

Which of the following is NOT a best practice for compensation surveys, for the purposes of complying with anti-trust law?

a)

A. Making sure the data are sufficiently old.

b)

B. Making sure that no one big survey respondent is the main driver of the benchmark data.

c)

C. Administering the survey yourself.

97.

Suppose your organization wants to match pay on the external labor market. Which one of these statements is TRUE?

a)

A. The typical job entrant without experience will begin below the market median pay for that job.

b)

B. The typical job entrant without experience will begin at the market median pay for that job.

c)

C. The typical job entrant without experience will begin above the market median pay for that job.

98.

Which of the following statements about benchmarking is FALSE?

a)

A. When some external jobs match best on job titles, and other external jobs match best on job descriptions, then it's better to benchmark on job titles rather than job descriptions.

b)

B. Ideally, benchmarks should match educational requirements of the organization's job with the educational requirements of the external benchmark's job.

c)

C. The US Bureau of Labor Statistics produces estimates of pay in different occupations.

d)

D. Some external benchmarks are better than others, and when calculating the benchmark average, you may put extra weight on better benchmarks.

99.

The process of producing a job description is called:

a)

A. Job descriptioning

b)

B. Job analysis

c)

C. Job evaluation

d)

D. Job describing

100.

A job description for administrative assistants may include "answering the telephone and transferring calls" under:

a)

A. Job context

b)

B. Job title

c)

C. KSAs

d)

D. Job duties