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CNS FORMATIVE ASSESSMENT

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following antipsychotics cause cardiac arrhythmias?

a)

a. Chlorpromazine

b)

b. Clozapine

c)

c. Thioridazine

d)

d. Haloperidol

2.

Lithium toxicity occurs due to all of the following EXCEPT

a)

Thiazides

b)

Dehydration

c)

NSAIDs

d)

Pregnancy

3.

Which of the following drugs is absolutely contraindicated in a patient with porphyria

a)

Zolpidem

b)

Chloral hydrate

c)

Phenobarbitone

d)

Diazepam

4.

The skeletal muscle relaxant with the longest duration of action is

a)

Suxamethonium

b)

Pancuronium

c)

Rocuronium

d)

Mivacurium

5.

Regarding non-depolarising muscle relaxants

a)

Produce non-surmountable blockade

b)

Rocuronium is the most potent

c)

Jaw and eye muscles are paralysed before the limb and trunk muscles

d)

None of the above

6.

Regarding local anaesthetics

a)

Lignocaine is metabolised in the liver faster than any of the other amide LA

b)

Allergies to amide Las are more common than with the ester Las

c)

Prilocaine is the most cardiotoxic LA

d)

The T 1/2 of lignocaine may be increased 3-4 fold in a patient with severe liver disease

7.

Regarding GABA: all the following are true EXCEPT

a)

Receptor blockers have anticonvulsant activity

b)

Metabolism is inhibited by sodium valproate

c)

GABA A is a ionotropic receptor

d)

Is found in high concentrations in the basal ganglia

8.

Codeine

a)

Depresses the cough reflex

b)

Frequently causes diarrhoea

c)

Is more potent than fentanyl

d)

none of the above

9.

Nitrous oxide

a)

Can be used with O2 as a carrier gas for halothane

b)

Has poor analgesic properties

c)

Sensitises the heart to the action of catecholamines

d)

Is an effective agent for inducing anaesthesia

10.

Thiopentone

a)

Is not lipid soluble

b)

Can be used IM or IV to induce anaesthesia

c)

Has good analgesic properties d. Can cause convulsive movement

d)

Anaesthetic action is terminated by redistribution from CNS to other highly vascularised tissues

11.

The main side effect of benztropine is

a)

Miosis

b)

Confusion

c)

Hemorrhage

d)

Diarrhoea

12.

Which of the following side effects for given drugs is wrong

a)

Phenytoin – gum hypertrophy

b)

Ethosuximide – hirsuitism

c)

Phenobarbital – enzyme induction

d)

Carbamazepine – ataxia

e)

Valproate – idiosyncratic hepatic toxicity

13.

Regarding inhaled anaesthetics

a)

MAC is directly proportional to lipid solubility

b)

Nitrous oxide has a relatively low MAC

c)

Halogenated agents have a lower brain:blood partition coefficient

d)

Nitrous oxide causes a decrease in tidal volume and an increase in respiratory rate

14.

Regarding adverse effects of propofol

a)

Post op vomiting is common

b)

Hypertension is a complication

c)

Metabolic acidosis

d)

Tremor is a common side effect

15.

Opioid receptors

a)

Fentanyl works predominantly at the kappa receptors

b)

Both Mu and delta receptors contribute to respiratory depression

c)

Methadone is used for heroin withdrawal because its actions are predominantly at the delta receptors

d)

Physical dependence and tolerance is caused by the rapid disintegration of receptors

16.

Lithium

a)

Has rapid onset of action

b)

Is partially renally excreted

c)

Is contraindicated in sick sinus syndrome

d)

Has no contraindications to be given in conjunction with NSAIDS

17.

A patient complains of post op muscle pain. This is most likely to be due to

a)

Suxamethonium

b)

Propofol

c)

Isoflurane

d)

Atracurium

18.

Regarding drugs used in Parkinson’s disease

a)

Bromocriptine is the first line drug to treat Parkinson’s disease in psychotic patients

b)

80-90% of a single dose of Levodopa enters the brain unaltered

c)

Amantadine has anti Parkinsonian effects and is administered at a dose of 100mg bd

d)

Anti muscarinic drugs are of benefit in elimination of bradykinesia in Parkinson’s

19.

Benzodiazepines

a)

Increase the duration of GABA gated chloride channel openings

b)

Bind to GABA B receptors

c)

Have extensive cardiodepressant effects in doses used to cause hypnosis

d)

Decrease the duration of stage 2 NREM sleep

20.

Regarding the antiepileptic drugs

a)

Lorazepam has documented efficacy against absence seizures

b)

Phenytoin is able to stimulate its own metabolism by enzyme induction

c)

Vigabatrin works by inhibiting GABA transaminase

d)

Valproate has a large Vd

21.

Which of the following local anaesthetic agents is an ester

a)

Bupivacaine

b)

Ropivacaine

c)

Prilocaine

d)

Procaine

22.

The opiate associated with seizures when given in high doses to patients with renal failure is

a)

Morphine

b)

Pethidine

c)

Methadone

d)

Fentanyl

23.

Which of the following is a direct serotonin agonist

a)

Fluoxetine

b)

Amitriptylline

c)

Moclobemide

d)

Sumatriptan

24.

Phenytoin

a)

Is 20-30% bound to albumin

b)

Is the drug treatment of choice in absence seizures

c)

Preferentially binds to activated state sodium channels

d)

Steady state mean plasma concentrations varies disproportionately with the dose

25.

The following antitussive is present in opium but has no analgesic or addicting properties

a)

Noscapine

b)

Codeine

c)

Pholcodeine

d)

Ethylmorphine

26.

Which of the following are correctly paired

a)

Imipramine: Inhibits 5HT and NA reuptake at presynaptic nerve endings

b)

Citalopram: Inhibits 5HT selectively and has significant histamine effects

c)

Selegiline: Blocks 5HT2 receptors

d)

Venlafaxine: Inhibits NA and 5HT reuptake with potent alpha-blocking effects

27.

Venlafaxine: Inhibits NA and 5HT reuptake with potent alpha-blocking effects

a)

Sedation

b)

Seizures

c)

Hepatotoxicity

d)

Tremor

28.

Which of the following antidepressants is not highly protein bound

a)

Amitriptyline

b)

Fluoxetine

c)

Selegiline

d)

Venlafaxine

29.

SSRI’s are not

a)

Used in the treatment of obsessive-compulsive disorder and eating disorders

b)

Well absorbed orally

c)

Converted to active metabolites in the case of paroxetine

d)

Inhibitors of CYP450 - 2D6

30.

Tricyclic antidepressants are

a)

5HT and NA reuptake inhibitors at post-synaptic nerve endings

b)

Antinicotinics

c)

Histamine receptor agonists

d)

Alpha 1 blockers

31.

Regarding lithium

a)

It is responsible for inducing type II diabetes

b)

It requires no treatment in overdose

c)

Dosing does not need to be reduced in renal impairment

d)

It is excreted almost entirely in the urine

32.

Haloperidol

a)

Is more sedative than chlorpromazine

b)

May lower the convulsive threshold

c)

Is a potent dopamine agonist

d)

Has a low incidence of extra-pyramidal reactions

33.

Regarding chlorpromazine which is NOT true

a)

It is more than 80% protein bound – 95-98%

b)

Is has a plasma half life of approximately 6 hours

c)

It is excreted in urine and faeces

d)

It induces hepatic microsomal enzymes

34.

The drug used as an antipsychotic most likely to cause extrapyramidal effects is

a)

Chlorpromazine

b)

Risperidone

c)

Haloperidol

d)

Clozapine

35.

Ethanol is used therapeutically in methanol poisoning because:

a)

It increases the NADH/NAD ratio in the liver, thus reducing liver injury

b)

It induces alcohol dehydrogenase and increases the clearance of methanol

c)

It has greater binding affinity to alcohol dehydrogenase than methanol and hence prevents the metabolism of methanol by that enzyme

d)

It inhibits the NMDA subtype of glutamate receptors in brain cells

 

36.

Chronic alcohol consumption, all EXCEPT

a)

Inhibits liver metabolism of other drugs

b)

Has significant effect on the lethal dose of alcohol

c)

Causes tolerance via an increase in its own metabolism

d)

Causes malnutrition

37.

Methanol intoxication

a)

Is partly due to inhibition of aldehyde dehydrogenase

b)

Is due to formation of oxalic acid

c)

Is treated with activated charcoal

d)

Can be treated with 4 methylpyrazole

38.

Buspirone relieves anxiety without sedation by

a)

Direct GABA stimulation

b)

Indirect GABA stimulation

c)

noradrenaline receptor stimulation

d)

5HT1 partial agonist action

39.

The most potent sedative is

a)

Diazepam

b)

Midazolam

c)

Temazepam

d)

Chloral hydrate

40.

A young man of 24 years is suffering from Generalized Anxiety Disorder; which drug may be preferred for his problem

a)

Zolpidem

b)

Buspirone

c)

Midazolam

d)

Phenobarbital

41.

With prolonged use in seizure states, which of the following drugs can cause coarsening of facial features, hirsutism, gingival hyperplasia and osteomalacia

a)

Valproic acid

b)

Carbamazepine

c)

Ethosuximide

d)

Phenytoin

42.

Morphine should be used with extreme caution in all of the following conditions EXCEPT

a)

Biliary tract surgery

b)

Pulmonary edema

c)

Last stage of labor

d)

Adrenal insufficiency

43.

Epinephrine added to a solution of lidocaine for local anesthesia will:

a)

Cause cyanosis locally

b)

Increase the risk of convulsions

c)

Increase the duration of local anesthesia

d)

Increase the absorption of lidocaine

44.

Tolerance develops to all of the following effects of opioids except

a)

Euphoria

b)

Miosis

c)

Analgesia

d)

Nausea

45.

Which of the following action is ascribed to delta type of opioid receptors?

a)

Supraspinal analgesia

b)

Respiratory depression

c)

Euphoria

d)

Reduced intestinal motility

46.

‘Dissociative anaesthesia’ is produced by:

a)

Ketamine

b)

Fentanyl

c)

Propofol

d)

None of the above

47.

Patients treated with the following drug should be cautioned not to consume alcoholic beverages

a)

Mebendazole

b)

Metronidazole

c)

Methimazole

d)

Metamizol

48.

A patient of endogenous depression was put on imipramine therapy. After what interval the therapeutic effect is likely to manifest

a)

Three days

b)

One week

c)

Three weeks

d)

Three months

49.

Morphine analgesia differs from that produced by aspirin in the following respect(s):

a)

It has a higher ceiling

b)

It covers both perception as well as psychic processing of the pain

c)

Visceral and ischaemic pain is relieved better than somatic inflammatory pain

d)

All of the above are correct

50.

The following are pure opioid antagonists except:

a)

Nalmfene

b)

Nalbuphine

c)

Naloxone

d)

Naltrexone