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Hematology Platings- Prelims

Total questions: 45

Worksheet time: 23mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

False about Myeloid period of hematopoiesis:

a)

There is a gradual increase of Hgb A1 in the later part of the 3rd trimester

b)

Usually begins approximately between the 4th and 5th week of pregnancy

c)

Both A and B 

d)

Neither A nor B 

2.

Embryonic molecular globin chains include:

a)

zeta

b)

beta

c)

Both A and B 

d)

Neither A nor B 

3.

Which of the following is True about prorubricyte?

a)

It usually divides twice thus producing 4 rubricyte.

b)

Late stage of it may exhibit 1:1 ratio with murky grayish-red-blue cytoplasm

c)

Both A and B 

d)

Neither A nor B 

4.

False about erythropoietin (EPO):

a)

It is a glycolipids with a molecular weight of 34 Daltons

b)

it influences differentiation of immature red cells by activation of “STAT “pathway

c)

Both A and B 

d)

Neither A nor B 

5.

This/ese immature red cell/s is/are capable of synthesizing Hgb?

a)

Rubriblast

b)

Metarubricyte

c)

Both A and B 

d)

Neither A nor B 

6.

True about the immediate precursor cell of rubricyte:

a)

Has a basophilic cytoplasmic appearance

b)

Has a 6:1 N:C ratio

c)

Both A and B 

d)

Neither A nor B 

7.

Which of the statement/s is/are incorrect?

a)

The HSC may randomly retain as stem cell for storage pool according to instructive model.

b)

The asymmetric division of HSC’s is characterized by one for renewal and one for differentiation.

c)

Both A and B 

d)

Neither A nor B 

8.

False about polychromatophilic erythrocyte:

a)

It usually stays approximately in the bone marrow for 48 hours

b)

With highly compact chromatin materials.

c)

Both A and B 

d)

Neither A nor B 

9.

The Hematopoietic stem cells (HSC) is activated by internal stimulators such as:

a)

KIT-Ligand and NOTCH 2

b)

GATA 2 genes and FLT3-Ligand

c)

Both A and B

d)

Neither A nor B 

10.

Which of the following statement is False?

a)

Pyrenocyte is characterized by a red cell with extruded nuclear material.

b)

The metarubricyte is the last progenitor red cell incapable of Hgb synthesis

c)

Both A and B 

d)

Neither A nor B 

11.

Which of the following growth factors are needed for the maturation of the progenitor cell for red cell production?

a)

TPO and IL-3

b)

CSF-Meg and IL-11

c)

Both A and B 

d)

Neither A nor B 

12.

True about polychromatophilic erythroblast:

a)

Commonly has 1:2 N:C ratio

b)

The most mature progenitor red cell with nucleus.

c)

Both A and B 

d)

Neither A nor B 

13.

False about mesoblastic period of hematopoiesis:

a)

Usually begins on the 19th-20th week of pregnancy

b)

Commonly ends before the 2nd month of pregnancy

c)

Both A and B 

d)

Neither A nor B 

14.

True about Hepatic Period of hematopoiesis:

a)

The predominating type of Hgb produced is Hgb A1

b)

The peak of blood production by the liver occurs during between 6th to 7th month of gestation

c)

Both A and B 

d)

Neither A nor B 

15.

True about Hepatic period of hematopoiesis:

a)

The majority of hgb type synthesized is Hgb F

b)

There is a gradual increase of Hgb A1 concentration between 4th to 5th month of gestation

c)

Both A and B 

d)

Neither A nor B 

16.

Which of the following sites may be used for core biopsy examination of bone marrow?

a)

A. Posterior Superior Iliac crest

b)

B. Sternum

c)

C. Tibia

17.

After a failed first marrow collection, what should be the next action of the attending physician?

a)

Stop the procedure and advice the patient to rest and set another schedule for marrow collection

b)

Report it as a dry tap

c)

Stop the procedure and go to another site

d)

Try another collection by returning the obturator and attaching a fresh syringe

18.

A false decrease/absence of iron in bone marrow core biopsy is attributed to:

a)

Decalcification process

b)

Use of anticoagulant

c)

Fixation of specimen

19.

An additional cytochemical studies in a bone marrow specimen is useful for the diagnosis of:

a)

A. Leukemia

b)

B. Lymphoma

c)

C. Point mutations

d)

A and B

e)

A, B, C

20.

It is the site for T-cell maturation:

a)

Lymph nodes

b)

Spleen

c)

Bone marrow

d)

Liver

e)

Thymus

21.

True with bone marrow examination:

I. Invasive procedure

II. Used to diagnose and stage Non-Hematologic neoplasia 

III. Used to confirm or exclude metabolic or infectious conditions

IV. Recommended for patients with coagulopathies

a)

I and II

b)

I and IV

c)

I, II, III

d)

I, II, IV

e)

I, II, III, IV

22.

True with liver:

I. capable of producing blood cells

II. contains macrophages that remove old cells and foreign debris

III. increases conjugation of bilirubin during hemolytic anemia

IV. serves as iron storage area

a)

I and III

b)

I, II, III

c)

I, III, IV

d)

I, II, III, IV

23.

A bone marrow examination result may include:

I. BM differential count

II. CBC 

III. Flow Cytometry Analysis

IV. Cellularity

a)

I and II

b)

I and IV

c)

I, II, III

d)

I, II, IV

e)

I, II, III, IV

24.

Primary lymphoid organs include:

a)

A. Bone marrow

b)

B. Thymus

c)

C. Liver

d)

A and B

e)

A, B, C

25.

To reduce the occurrence of basket cells, this substance is mixed with marrow specimen:

a)

EDTA

b)

Albumin

c)

Citrate

d)

Lidocaine

26.

A core biopsy is preferred over aspirate marrow specimen because:

a)

A. it represents all cells

b)

B. it explains a dry tap

c)

C. it is used for cell differentials

d)

A and B

e)

A, B, C

27.

After the aspiration of the ME layer in a centrifuged marrow specimen, a smear is prepared by:

a)

A. Crush Smear Technique

b)

B. Touch Preparation

c)

C. Direct Smear

d)

A and B

e)

B and C

28.

Arrange the following from the least to most number in a normal bone marrow specimen:

I. Lymphocytes II. Basophils III. Neutrophilic bands IV. Rubricytes

a)

I-II-III-IV

b)

II-IV-I-III

c)

I-IV-II-III

d)

II-I-IV-III

29.

A dry tap may be seen in:

I. fibrotic marrow

II. acellular marrow

III. marrow packed with leukemic cells

IV. improper sampling

a)

IV only

b)

I and II

c)

II and IV

d)

II, III, IV

e)

I, II, III, IV

30.

Which of the following are examined under low power magnification?

I. estimation of marrow cellularity

II. selection of the appropriate site prior to differential count

III. computation of M:E ratio

IV. estimation of megakaryocytes

a)

I and II

b)

I and IV

c)

I, II, III

d)

I, II, IV

e)

I, II, III, IV

31.

Deficiency of this/ese protein/s may cause spherocytic formation of red cells

a)

protein band 4.1

b)

protein band 3

c)

Both A and B

d)

Neither A nor B

32.

Which will cause the O2 curve to the right?

a)

high 2,3DPG

b)

Presence of Hgb F

c)

Both A and B

d)

Neither A nor B

33.

Enzyme that is part of the EMP of red cell metabolism:

a)

Glucose 6 Phosphate dehydrogenase

b)

Pyruvate kinase

c)

Both A and B

d)

Neither A nor B

34.

Which of this increases the binding of oxygen molecule to the HGB?

a)

high 2,3 DPG level

b)

Methemoglobin formation

c)

Both A and B

d)

Neither A nor B

35.

The 2,3, DPG is synthesized specifically at:

a)

Rapaport-Luebering pathway

b)

Hexose Monophosphate pathway

c)

Both A and B

d)

Neither A nor B

36.

Which will cause O2 curve to the left?

a)

Hgb F

b)

carboxyhgb

c)

Both A and B

d)

Neither A nor B

37.

Function of the HMP:

a)

Prevents peroxides formation within Hgb molecule

b)

maintenance of oxidized glutathione

c)

Both A and B

d)

Neither A nor B

38.

Normally 100% O2 saturation of HGB occurs at what oxygen pressure?

a)

30 mmHg

b)

80 mmHg

c)

Both A and B

d)

Neither A nor B

39.

Which of this cause shift to the left of oxygen dissociation curve?

a)

Hypoxia

b)

Hypoventilation

c)

Both A and B

d)

Neither A nor B

40.

Will cause a shift to the Right on oxygen dissociation curve:

a)

Low blood pH

b)

Hypothermia

c)

Both A and B

d)

Neither A nor B

41.

Haldane effect is:

a)

Relative binding of CO2 to unoxygenated Hgb and oxygenated Hgb

b)

It is the process that prevents the rebinding of CO2 to the Hgb within the lung tissue.

c)

Both A and B

d)

Neither A nor B

42.

False about Bohr effect:

a)

It is a reaction that helps maintaining blood pH normal

b)

It is reaction that will dictate the oxygen and Hydrogen binding to the HGB molecule.

c)

Both A and B

d)

Neither A nor B

43.

p50 or 50% oxygenation of Hgb normally occurs when the partial pressure of O2 reaches:

a)

21 mmHg

b)

27 mmHg

c)

Both A and B

d)

Neither A nor B

44.

Which is False?

a)

PNH is a condition where there is a deficiency of GPI-linked RBC membrane protein.

b)

Hereditary spherocytosis is caused by deficiency of protein band 4.1

c)

Both A and B

d)

Neither A nor B

45.

Enzyme involved in the primary or 1st phase of glucoe metabolism under the EMP pathway

a)

Pyruvate kinase

b)

Lactate dehydrogenase

c)

Both A and B

d)

Neither A nor B