wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Super Final Test session FLP-2

Total questions: 200

Worksheet time: 5hrs 7mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

If irritation of large intestine causes a tremendous increase in its peristalsis, which of the following is most likely to occur?

a)

Dehydration

b)

Constipation

c)

Excess H2O absorption

d)

Ulcer

2.

Which of the following is present in both intestinal and pancreatic exocrine secretions?

a)

Amylase

b)

Erypsin

c)

Chymotrypsin

d)

Aminopeptidase

3.

Which of the following inhibits gastric secretions?

a)

Pepsin

b)

Secretin

c)

Protein food

d)

Gastrin

4.

Cartilage is not the structural component of which of the following?

a)

Trachea

b)

Nose

c)

Vocal cords

d)

Bronchi

5.

Which of the following part of respiratory system is preceded by alveolar duct?

a)

Alveoli

b)

Air sac

c)

Bronchioles

d)

Bronchi

6.

Which of the following is the chief form of CO2 transport in the blood of humans?

a)

Bound with proteins

b)

HCO3-1

c)

K2CO3

d)

Carbaminohemoglobin

7.

The accumulation of lipids in brain caused _____ disease:

a)

Glycogenosis II

b)

Tay Sachs disease

c)

Urethritis

d)

Kidney stones

8.

Which of the following is true for human heart?

a)

Neurogenic

b)

Covered with pleural membrane

c)

Myogenic

d)

Located in abdominal cavity

9.

In the resting state of neural membrane, diffusion due to concentration gradient will drive:

a)

Na+ into the cell

b)

Na+ out of the cell

c)

K+ into the cell

d)

Na+ and K+ out of the cell

10.

Parkinson’s disease is associated with the deficiency of:

a)

Aluminum

b)

Alcohol

c)

Dopamine

d)

Serotonin

11.

Sperms travel in all of the following except:

a)

Ureter

b)

Oviduct

c)

Urethra

d)

Epididymis

12.

Cervix is present between:

a)

Fallopian tube and uterus

b)

Ovary and uterus

c)

Uterus and vagina

d)

Uterus and ovary

13.

The oogenesis in human female starts:

a)

At puberty

b)

After puberty

c)

Before birth

d)

After birth

14.

A mononucleated muscle fiber having spontaneous contractions and irregular striations would be present in:

a)

Heart

b)

Pyloric sphincter

c)

Small intestine

d)

Biceps

15.

Which of the following events will occur in muscle contraction according to sliding filament model

a)

A band shortens

b)

Z line come closer

c)

I band shortens

d)

H zone disappear

16.

Which of the following glands is directly involved in regulating the basal metabolic rate?

a)

Thyroid

b)

Parathyroid

c)

Pituitary

d)

Adrenal

17.

Under-secretion of which of the following hormones causes muscular tetany?

a)

Glucagon

b)

Parathormone

c)

Cortisol

d)

Insulin

18.

The type of immunity which is rapid but short lived:

a)

Natural active

b)

Artificial passive

c)

Innate

d)

Artificial active

19.

B cells are formed in bone marrow and they mature in:

a)

Thymus gland

b)

Bursa of fabricius

c)

Bone marrow

d)

Blood

20.

Which of the following structures is not present in a prokaryotic cell?

a)

Ribosome

b)

Nuclear membrane

c)

Cell membrane

d)

Cell wall

21.

All of the following are not commonly found in most of the plant cells except:

a)

Cytoskeleton

b)

Lysosome

c)

Flagella

d)

Centrioles

22.

Bones present in adult man:

a)

206

b)

250

c)

2500

d)

125

23.

In spermatogenesis _____ process occurs:

a)

Meiosis

b)

Fragmentation

c)

Mitosis

d)

Both a and c

24.

In which phase of cell cycle neuron cell enters after maturation?

a)

G0 phase

b)

G2 phase

c)

G1 phase

d)

M phase

25.

All of the following can easily pass-through cell membrane except:

a)

H+

b)

O2

c)

H2O

d)

CO2

26.

Which of the following functions is not performed by cell membrane?

a)

It helps in nervous co-ordination

b)

It prevents cell from osmotic lysis

c)

It helps in chemical co-ordination

d)

Phagocytosis

27.

The major biomolecule responsible for the selective uptake of materials across plasma membrane is:

a)

Carbohydrate

b)

Protein

c)

Lipid

d)

Phospholipid

28.

Which of the following chemical component has the greatest contribution in a mammalian cell weight?

a)

Protein

b)

Carbohydrate

c)

Lipid

d)

Water

29.

Which of the following bonds provides stability to complex carbohydrate molecules?

a)

C-C

b)

C-O

c)

C-H

d)

C-N

30.

Lactose is a disaccharide consisting of:

a)

Glucose and glucose

b)

Galactose and glucose

c)

Glucose and maltose

d)

Fructose and maltose

31.

In maltose the linkage is:

a)

1-4 glycosidic

b)

2-4 glycosidic

c)

1-2 glycosidic

d)

1-6 glycosidic

32.

Which of the following is aldo-triose?

a)

Dihydroxyacetone

b)

Ribulose

c)

Glyceraldehyde

d)

Erythrose

33.

Total number of peptide bonds present in a molecule of insulin:

a)

48

b)

49

c)

50

d)

51

34.

Which of the following is a phospholipid?

a)

Lecithin

b)

Steroid

c)

Cholesterol

d)

Rubber

35.

Which of the following correctly describes the composition of ATP?

a)

1 ribose, 1 adenine, 3 phosphate

b)

1 ribose, 3 adenine, 3 phosphate

c)

1 ribose, 1 adenosine, 3 phosphate

d)

1 ribose, 3 adenosine, 3 phosphate

36.

Which of the following terms include all others?

a)

Nucleotide

b)

Purines

c)

Nucleic acid

d)

Nucleoside

37.

Which of the following conjugated molecule plays an important role in gene expression?

a)

Glycoprotein

b)

Lipoprotein

c)

Glycolipid

d)

Nucleoprotein

38.

Which of the following viruses is transmitted by feco-oral route?

a)

Dengue virus

b)

HAV

c)

Influenza

d)

HCV

39.

Which of the following structures in plant cell is largest in size?

a)

ER

b)

Vacuole

c)

Glyoxysome

d)

Nucleus

40.

Which of the following infections is not caused by bacteria or virus?

a)

Ringworm

b)

Cholera

c)

Polio

d)

Mumps

41.

Infectious molecules of RNA that lack capsids and associated proteins are called:

a)

Bacteriophage

b)

Virions

c)

Prions

d)

Viroids

42.

Which of the following is found in fungal cell wall?

a)

Hyphae

b)

Centrioles

c)

Chitin

d)

Ingestive heterotrophs

43.

Resistance genes are found on:

a)

Vacuole

b)

Nucleus

c)

Plasmid

d)

Microtubule

44.

The contractions of heart are initiated by:

a)

A.V Node

b)

Right Atrium

c)

S.A node

d)

Somatic nervous system

45.

Skeleton of sponges is produced by:

a)

Pinacocytes

b)

Mesoderm

c)

Choanocytes

d)

Mesenchyma

46.

Which of the following animal has radial symmetry, is diploblastic, polymorph and marine?

a)

Hydra

b)

Spongilla

c)

Obelia

d)

Sycon

47.

The most primitive animal among the following to develop ganglia and sense organs:

a)

Jelly fish

b)

Hydra

c)

Euplectella

d)

Planaria

48.

Which of the following systems will be absent in Aschelminthes?

a)

Digestive system

b)

Circulatory system

c)

Central nervous system

d)

Reproductive system

49.

The round worm which causes anemia:

a)

Ascaris lumbricoides

b)

Rhabditis

c)

Enterobius vermicularis

d)

Ancylostoma duodenale

50.

Which of the following is a copper containing protein among electron carriers?

a)

Ferredoxin

b)

Plastocyanin

c)

Cytochrome

d)

Plastoquinone

51.

Which of the following events does not take place during cyclic phosphorylation?

a)

e- recycling

b)

Chemiosmosis

c)

O2 liberation

d)

ATP production

52.

Total number of ATPs and NADPH required respectively for the generation of 10 molecules of glucose from Calvin cycle?

a)

90,60

b)

150,60

c)

120,120

d)

180,120

53.

NADH is formed in all of the following conversions except:

a)

G3P-1,3BPG

b)

Isocitrate-α ketoglutarate

c)

Pyruvate-Acetyl CoA

d)

Fumarate-malate

54.

In eukaryotic gene cloning the synthesis of cDNA on a mRNA template is being carried out by an enzyme, which is obtained from:

a)

E.coli

b)

Retroviruses

c)

T.aquaticus

d)

S. aureus

55.

Which of the following enzyme required for the maturation of lymphocytes?

a)

tRNA synthetase

b)

Adenosine deaminase

c)

Adenine transaminase

d)

DNA polymerase

56.

Which of the following is not a DNA nitrogenous base?

a)

Uracil

b)

Thymine

c)

Guanine

d)

Adenine

57.

The plasmid pSC101 has antibiotic resistant gene for:

a)

Cyclosporine

b)

Tetracycline

c)

Penicillin

d)

Ampicillin

58.

Which of the following pathogens primarily infects the wall of small intestine?

a)

Plasmodium vivax

b)

Vibrio cholera

c)

HIV

d)

HCV

59.

Which of the following diseases is transmitted by an arthropod?

a)

Measles

b)

Malaria

c)

Hepatitis C

d)

Tuberculosis

60.

Vaccination is not available for which of the following infectious diseases?

a)

Measles

b)

Malaria

c)

Tuberculosis

d)

Cholera

61.

What is the probability of a hemophilic son of a normal man (whose father was hemophilic) and a carrier woman?

a)

0%

b)

50%

c)

25%

d)

75%

62.

Gender determining individual in Human is ___________:

a)

Heterogametic male

b)

Heterogametic female

c)

Homogametic male

d)

Homogametic female

63.

Kitchen of cell is:

a)

Chloroplast

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Centriole

d)

Cell membrane

64.

During translation the formation of peptide bond between two adjacent amino acids is catalyzed by:

a)

Amino acyl tRNA synthetase

b)

Amino acyl transferase

c)

Peptidyl transferase

d)

RNA polymerase

65.

Which of the following is conductive cell?

a)

Neuron cell

b)

Muscle cell

c)

Tropical rain forest

d)

Both a and b

66.

Select the one which is cold blooded:

a)

Snake

b)

Birds

c)

Rabbit

d)

Man

67.

Spinal nerves are __________ in number:

a)

31

b)

12

c)

31 pairs

d)

12 pairs

68.

Numbers of bones which form right palm region are ________:

a)

5

b)

3

c)

8

d)

14

69.

Determine the number of moles of O2 in 10.6g of Na2CO3

a)

0.4moles

b)

0.3moles

c)

0.2moles

d)

None of these

70.

Ksp values of four salts are given, which is more soluble in water

a)

10-13

b)

10-10

c)

10-11

d)

10-15

71.

Consider the following reaction at 25oC, (CH3)3COH(l) + HCl(aq) → (CH3)3CCl(l) + H2O(l) The experimentally determined rate law for this reaction indicates that the reaction is first-order in (CH3)3COH and that the reaction is pseudo first-order overall Which of the following would produce an increase in the rate of this reaction?

a)

Increasing the concentration of (CH3)3COH

b)

Increasing the concentration of HCl

c)

Decreasing the concentration of (CH3)3CCl

d)

It is impossible to tell

72.

Reaction of water with quick lime result in the rise in the temperature of the system. Using the concept of energy change, indicate the nature of the reaction?

a)

Endothermic reaction

b)

Non-spontaneous reaction

c)

Third order reaction

d)

Exothermic reaction

73.

The oxidation potential of Mg and Al are +2.37 V and +1.66 V respectively. Mg in the chemical reaction:

a)

Will be replaced by Al

b)

Will not be able to replace Al

c)

Will replace Al

d)

None of the above

74.

The IUPAC name of the following compound is

a)

2,4,5-Triheptene

b)

Hepta-1, 3, 5-triene

c)

2,4,6-Triheptene

d)

2,4,6-Heptatfiene

75.

Consider the following statement:

I. The unit of relative atomic mass is atomic mass unit.

II. Empirical formula can be determined by combustion analysis for those compounds which have C, H and O in them.

III. 1 mole of glucose has 6NA atoms of carbon, 6NA atoms of oxygen and 12NA atoms of hydrogen.

IV. Stoichiometric calculations can be performed only when law of conservation of mass and law of definite proportion are obeyed.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

III and IV only

d)

I, II, III and IV

76.

Enthalpy is an expression for the:

a)

Heat content

b)

Energy state

c)

Reaction rate

d)

Activation energy

77.

Following graph shows a physical property along the period 3 elements. Which physical property is shown in the graph?

a)

Electron affinity

b)

Non-metallic character

c)

Atomic radius

d)

Melting point up to group IV A

78.

Which one of the following characteristics of the transition metals is associated with their catalytic activity?

a)

Variable oxidation states

b)

Paramagnetic behavior

c)

Colour of hydrated ions

d)

High enthalpy of atomization

79.

Which of the following reagents will react with methyl group rather than the benzene ring in methylbenzene?

a)

Chlorine in the presence of UV light

b)

CH3Cl in the presence of AlCl3

c)

CH3COCl in presence of AlCl3

d)

Hydrogen in the presence of nickel

80.

Which one of the following is the best name according to IUPAC system for the formula given?

a)

4-Methyl-6-chloroheptane

b)

2-Chloro-4-methylheptane

c)

2-Chloro-4-n-propylhexane

d)

2-Chloro-4-n-propylpentane

81.

Which one of the following compounds will be most readily attacked by an electrophile?

a)

Phenol

b)

Benzene

c)

Nitrobenzene

d)

Chlorobenzene

82.

Phosphoproteins comes under the type of protein

a)

Simple protein

b)

Conjugated protein

c)

Derived protein

d)

Both B and C

83.

The charge to mass ratio (e/m) of positive particles is:

a)

Varies with the nature of gas in discharge tube

b)

Independent of the gas in discharge tube

c)

Constant

d)

None of these

84.

Which one of the following is more volatile?

a)

Water

b)

Ethoxyethane

c)

Methanol

d)

Gasoline

85.

A positive cell potential indicates that:

a)

The reaction will not occur

b)

The reaction will occur and give off energy

c)

The reaction will occur if heat or energy is added

d)

The reaction will power an outside alternating electric current

86.

Which one has highest ionization energy

a)

B

b)

Be

c)

N

d)

O

87.

Order of esterification of alcohols is

a)

1°>2°>3°

b)

2°>3°>1°

c)

3°>2°>1°

d)

3°>1°>2°

88.

Which one of the following compounds will give iodoform test on treatment with aqueous iodine?

a)

3-Pentanone

b)

Propanone

c)

Propanal

d)

Butanal

89.

If we increase pressure in decomposition of PCl5 will favour the reaction in

a)

Forward direction

b)

Backward direction

c)

At equilibrium

d)

No effect

90.

Which one of the followings has same number of molecules as present in 11g of CO2?

a)

4.0g of O2

b)

4.5g of H2O

c)

4.0g of O

d)

¼ moles of NaCl

91.

An energy diagram is show

What is activation energy for the exothermic reverse reaction?

a)

A

b)

A - B

c)

A+B

d)

B

92.

Formula of Tetraammine chloronitro-platinum (IV) sulphate is:

a)

[PtCl(NO2)(NH3)4]SO4

b)

[PtCl(NO2)(NH3)]SO4

c)

[PtCl2(NO2)(NH3)4]SO4

d)

[PtCl(NO3)(NH3)4]SO4

93.

Intermediate product formed when propanoyl chloride reacts with benzene is

a)
b)
c)
d)
94.

The phenoxide is more stable than ethoxide ion because:

a)

Lone pair on oxygen atom overlaps with the delocalized π-bonding system in benzene

b)

Oxygen atom is directly bonded with benzene ring in phenoxide ion

c)

The negative charge is localized on oxygen atom of phenoxide ion

d)

The negative charge is delocalized on oxygen atom ethoxide ion

95.

Select the reagent X from the following choices for this conversion:

a)

Acidified phosphoric acid

b)

Acidified Oxalic acid

c)

Acidified Potassium hydroxide

d)

Acidified Potassium dichromate (VI)

96.

Identify the incorrect statement about isotopes of an element:

a)

They have same atomic number

b)

Term mass number is used for their masses

c)

Mass number of isotopes of an element is determined by comparison with C-12 in the mass spectrometer

d)

Isotopes do not occur in nature

97.

No two electrons in an atom can have same set of four identical quantum numbers.” It is the statement of:

a)

Aufbau principle

b)

Pauli’s exclusion principle

c)

Hund’s rule

d)

None of these

98.

Mark the correct statement:

a)

Diamond is an example of atomic solids

b)

Triclinic unit cell has the highest symmetry

c)

In NaCl structure, the number of formula units per unit cell is four

d)

An atom present at the comer of a unit cell contributes one-fourth to a particular unit cell

99.

Ca(OH)2 is sparing soluble having solubility value 32 x 10-6. What will be its solubility?

a)

1.5 x 10-2

b)

2.0 x 10-2

c)

1.0 x 10-2

d)

3.0 x 10-2

100.

The rate laws for certain enzyme-activated reactions in your body has a specific rate constant (K), with units of moldm-3s-1. What is the overall order of these reactions?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

Cannot be determined

101.

50cm3 of 1.0M HCl is mixed with 50cm3 of 1.00M NaOH in a glass calorimeter. The temperature of the resultant mixture increases from 21.0oC to 26.0oC. Assume that calorimeter losses are negligible. Calculate the enthalpy change mole–1 for the reactions. The density of solution to be considered is 1gcm3 and specific heat is (supposed 4.0 Jg–1 K–1)

a)

-40.0 kJmol-1

b)

+57.4 kJmol-1

c)

+114.0 kJmol-1

d)

-20.0 kJmol-1

102.

The following sketch shows the variation in a physical property of third period elements against their atom numbers:

What physical property is plotted in this sketch?

a)

Ionization energy

b)

Melting point

c)

Ionic radius

d)

Atomic radius

103.

Among the following species, identify the isostructural pairs, NF3,NO-3,BF3,H3O+,NH3

a)

[NF3,NO-3] and [BF3,H3O+]

b)

[NF3,H3O+] and [NO-3,BF3]

c)

[NF3,NH3] and [NO-3,H3O+]

d)

[NF3,H3O+] and [NH3,BF3]

104.

56g of N2 will at STP occupy the volume of:

a)

22.41dm3

b)

44.82dm3

c)

44.82cm3

d)

2.241dm3

105.

Self-ionization of water is H-OH ⇌ H+ + OH. If strong base is added to water at given temperature, water will be basic and its Kc will

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

c)

First increase, then constant

d)

Remain constant

106.

The Eo value of standard copper half cell is +0.34V, which is measured when it is connected with SHE i.e. standard hydrogen electrode. In this case the half reaction taking place at SHE is:

a)

2H+(aq)+2e-→H2(g)

b)

H2(g)→2H+aq+2e-

c)

2H-(aq)+2e-→2H(g)

d)

H2(g)→2H(g)+2e-

107.

bonds are produced by overlapping of orbitals:

a)

Unhybrid

b)

Hybrid

c)

Both A and B

d)

Different orbitals

108.

Which reagent is responsible for the conversion of ketone to secondary alcohol?

a)

NaAlH4

b)

NaBH4

c)

Al2O3

d)

Red P

109.

The decrease in the solubility of an electrolyte in a solution by adding another electrolyte having common ion is called common ion effect. Common ion effect has all of the following characteristic properties EXCEPT:

a)

It is application of Le-Chatelier’s principle

b)

Its effect is always in the reverse direction

c)

The solubility of second electrolyte is always greater than that of first one

d)

The term electrolyte, acid or salt is used for common ion effect

110.

Under vacuum, boiling point of glycerin decreases to at 50 torr:

a)

100oC

b)

210oC

c)

120oC

d)

360oC

111.

Which one of the following does not affect the rate of reaction?

a)

Concentration of reactants

b)

Surface area of products

c)

Temperature

d)

Light

112.

The order of reaction may be determined by:

a)

Differential method

b)

Half-life method

c)

Graphical method

d)

All of these

113.

Each period in the periodic table starts with a subshell of a new shell and ends with:

a)

Small shell

b)

Different subshell of same shell

c)

The next higher shell

d)

p-subshell of same shell

114.

For endothermic reaction, the minimum value for the energy of activation will be:

a)

Less than ∆H

b)

More than ∆H

c)

Zero

d)

Equal to ∆H

115.

Most of the transition elements act as good catalyst due to:

a)

The presence of vacant d-orbitals

b)

The tendency of show variable oxidation states

c)

The presence of defects in their crystal lattice

d)

All of these

116.

Consider the following statements for a functional group:

I. It serves as a basis for nomenclature of organic compounds

II. It serves to classify organic compounds into different classes

III. It is a site of chemical reaction

Which of the above statement is/are correct for a functional group?

a)

I only

b)

II and III

c)

II only

d)

I, II and III

117.

Sodium phenoixde on treating with hydrochloric acids yields:

a)

Benzene

b)

Benzoic acid

c)

Phenol

d)

Benzaldehyde

118.

Ethanoic acid has a pKa of 4.7. Which one will have higher pKa value than ethanoic acid?

a)

ClCH2CO2H

b)

C6H5OH

c)

FCH2COOH

d)

Br CH2COOH

119.

In Adipic acid, HOOC(CH2)n COOH, n is equal to

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

120.

There are two compounds ‘A’ and ‘B’, both compounds react with liquid bromine. The compound B when reacts with liquid bromine, it produces white coloured precipitates. The compound ‘A’ and ‘B’ are respectively

a)

Phenol and propene

b)

Alcohol and phenol

c)

Ethene and phenol

d)

Ethene and propene

121.

Which derivative of carboxylic acid is least reactive towards nucleophile

a)

RCONH2

b)

RCOCl

c)

RCOOR

d)

R(CO)2O

122.

Which specie among the following has smallest size

a)

Lithium ion

b)

Hydride ion

c)

Lithium atom

d)

Sodium ion

123.

Which of the following is a one dimensional motion?

a)

Landing of an aircraft

b)

Earth revolving around the sun

c)

Motion of wheels of a moving train

d)

Train running on a straight track

124.

Work done in raising a box depends on:

a)

How fast it is raised

b)

The strength of the man

c)

The height by which it is raised

d)

None of the above

125.

A wheel initially has an angular velocity of 36 rad s-1 but after 6.0 its angular velocity is 24 rad s-1. If its angular acceleration is constant its value is:

a)

2.0 rad s-2

b)

-2.0 rad s-2

c)

3.0 rad s-2

d)

-3.0 rad s-2

126.

The velocity of waves in a string fixed at both ends is 2 m s-1. The string forms standing waves with nodes 5.0 cm apart. The frequency of vibration of the string in Hz is:

a)

40

b)

20

c)

30

d)

10

127.

If density of oxygen is 16 times that of hydrogen, what will be their corresponding ratio of velocity of sound?

a)

1:4

b)

4:1

c)

2:1

d)

1:16

128.

Temperature is a measure of coldness or hotness of an object. This definition is based on:

a)

Zeroth law of thermodynamics

b)

First law of thermodynamics

c)

Second law of thermodynamics

d)

Newton’s law of cooling

129.

During the adiabatic expansion of 2 moles of a gas, the internal energy was found to have decreased by 100 J. The work done by the gas in this process is:

a)

Zero

b)

200 J

c)

-100 J

d)

100 J

130.

Two small charged objects attract each other with a force F when separated by a distance d. If the charge on each object is reduced to one-fourth of its original value and the distance between them is reduced to d/2, the force becomes:

a)

F/16

b)

F/8

c)

F/4

d)

F/2

131.

If a proton, deuteron and α-particle on being accelerated by the same potential difference enters perpendicular to the magnetic field, then the ratio of their kinetic energies is:

a)

1:2:2

b)

1:2:1

c)

2:2:1

d)

1:1:2

132.

The north pole of a magnet is brought near a metallic ring. The direction of the induced current in the ring will be:

a)

Clockwise

b)

Towards north

c)

Anticlockwise

d)

Towards south

133.

In the following figure what happens for the positive half cycle of the input?

a)

D1 and D3 conduct

b)

D1 and D2 conduct

c)

D4 and D2 conduct

d)

D4 and D3 conduct

134.

A step up transformer has transformation ratio 5:3. What is voltage in secondary if voltage in primary is 60 V:

a)

20 V

b)

100 V

c)

60 V

d)

180 V

135.

The energy of a photon of wavelength 450 nm is:

a)

4.4×10-19 J

b)

1.25×10-17 J

c)

2.5×10-19 J

d)

2.5×10-17 J

136.

What is the stopping potential when the metal with work function 0.6 eV is illuminated with the light of 2 eV?

a)

2.6 V

b)

0.8 V

c)

3.6 V

d)

1.4 V

137.

During a “β” emission the ratio of the number of protons to neutrons:

a)

May increase

b)

May decrease

c)

May remain the same

d)

Both “A” & “B”

138.

The displacement-time graph for two particles A and B are straight lines inclined at angles of 30º and 60º with the time axis. The ratio of velocities vA:vB is:

a)

1:2

b)

1: 3\sqrt[]{3}  

c)

3\sqrt[]{3}  :1

d)

1:3

139.

A heavy ball falls freely, starting from rest. Between the third and fourth second of time it travels a distance of:

a)

4.9 m

b)

9.8 m

c)

29.4 m

d)

34.3 m

140.

The horizontal range is four times the maximum height attained by a projectile. The angle of projection is:

a)

90º

b)

45º

c)

60º

d)

30º

141.

The kinetic energy of a body of mass 3 kg and momentum 2 N s is:

a)

1 J

b)

3/2 J

c)

2/3 J

d)

4J

142.

A car moving on a horizontal road may be thrown out of the road in taking a turn:

a)

By the gravitational force

b)

Due to lack of sufficient centripetal force

c)

Due to rolling frictional force between tyre and road

d)

Due to the reaction of the ground

143.

If you set up the sixth harmonic on a string fixed at both ends how many nodes and antinodes are set up in it:

a)

7, 6

b)

8, 9

c)

7, 7

d)

6, 7

144.

Heat is not being exchanged in a body. If its internal energy is increased, then:

a)

Its temperature will increase

b)

Its temperature will decrease

c)

Its temperature will remain constant

d)

None of these

145.

Which is the correct statement?

a)

For an isothermal change PV=constant

b)

In an isothermal process the change in internal energy must be equal to the work done

c)

For an adiabatic change P2/P1=[V2/V1]γ, where γ is the ratio of specific heats

d)

In an adiabatic process work done must be equal to the heat entering the system

146.

Of the following, the copper conductor that has the most resistance is:

a)

thin, long and hot

b)

thick, short and cool

c)

thick, long and hot

d)

thin, short and cool

147.

Suppose the electric company charges 20 rupees per kWh. How much does it cost to use a 125 W lamb 8 hours a day for 30 days?

a)

Rs. 300

b)

Rs. 150

c)

Rs. 600

d)

Rs. 450

148.

The radius of curvature of the path of the charged particle is a uniform magnetic field is directly proportional to:

a)

The charge on the particle

b)

The momentum of the particle

c)

The energy of the particle

d)

The intensity of the field

149.

The device that works on the principle of mutual induction:

a)

Generator

b)

Motor

c)

Diode

d)

Transformer

150.

Which of the following is dependent on the intensity of incident radiation in a photoelectric experiment?

a)

Work function of the surface

b)

Amount of photoelectric current

c)

Stopping potential

d)

Maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons

151.

Which of the transitions in hydrogen atom emits a photon of lowest frequency?

a)

n = 2 to n = 1

b)

n = 3 to n = 1

c)

n = 4 to n =3

d)

n = 4 to n = 2

152.

The mean life of a radioactive element is 1 year. Then its half-life (in years) is:

a)

0.8

b)

0.693

c)

0.9

d)

0.534

153.

Hydrogen atom produces:

a)

Continuous spectra

b)

Band spectra

c)

Line spectra

d)

X-rays

154.

If v is the speed of sound at pressure P then speed of sound at pressure 3P, keeping temperature constant, will be:

a)

6v

b)

9v

c)

v

d)

3v

155.

If length of wire is tripled and area of cross section is halved, then the resistivity of the wire becomes:

a)

Doubled

b)

Six times

c)

Four times

d)

Remain same

156.

In case of an alternating current generator with its coil rotating at frequency f, the current alternates its direction:

a)

f times in a cycle

b)

2f times in a cycle

c)

f times per second

d)

All of these

157.

Two bodies of equal masses revolve in circular orbits of radii in ratio 1:2 and frequencies in ratio 2:3. Their centripetal forces are in the ratio:

a)

9:2

b)

2:9

c)

9:4

d)

4:9

158.

Calculate the energy of a photon of frequency 3.0 x 1015 Hz. (h = 6.63 x 10-34):

a)

19.89 x 10-16 J

b)

1.89 x 10-16 J

c)

11.89 x 10-18 J

d)

1.989 x 10-18 J

159.

An object is moving along a circular path of diameter 8 m. What will be its angular displacement if it moves 18 m on this circular path?

a)

5.5 radians

b)

3.5 radians

c)

5.0 radians

d)

4.5 radians

160.

A gas is compressed at a constant pressure of 60 N m-2 from 10 m3 to a volume of 5 m3. Energy of 200 J is then added to the gas by heating. Its internal energy is:

a)

Increased by 500 J

b)

Increased by 100 J

c)

Decreased by 500 J

d)

Decreased by 200 J

161.

Potential difference of a cell in an open circuit is 16 volt but it falls to 11 volt when a current of 3 A is drawn from it. The internal resistance of the cell is:

a)

1.66Ω

b)

1.33Ω

c)

2.5Ω

d)

4.5Ω

162.

The direction of current through the load resistance of a full-wave rectification circuit:

a)

Inverts for negative cycle

b)

Changes for every cycle

c)

Inverts for positive cycle

d)

Remain same

163.

The velocity of projection of an oblique projectile is v\overrightarrow{v} =5ˆi + 4ˆj (m s-1). The speed of the projectile at the highest point of the trajectory is:

a)

9 m s-1

b)

4 m s-1

c)

5 m s-1

d)

Zero

164.

A coil of area 100 cm2 has 1000 turns. Magnetic field of 0.1 Wb/m2 is perpendicular to the coil. The field is reduced to zero in 0.01 second. The induced emf in the coil is?

a)

10 V

b)

5 V

c)

100 V

d)

Zero

165.

When the velocity of body is increasing with time then there is:

a)

Positive slope of velocity-time graph

b)

Negative slope of velocity-time graph

c)

Zero slope of velocity-time graph

d)

Infinite slope of velocity-time graph

166.

Angle swept by minute hand in one minute is:

a)

30o

b)

6o

c)

3o

d)

10o

167.

A scattered X-ray photon in Compton’s effect has:

a)

Less energy than incident photon

b)

Less frequency than incident photon

c)

More wavelength than incident photon

d)

All of these

168.

Which of the following is increasing speed graph?

a)
b)
c)
d)
169.

If RBE = 15 and De = 750 rem, then absorbed dose D is:

a)

0.4 Gy

b)

0.05 Gy

c)

0.04 Gy

d)

0.5 Gy

170.

Three resistances each having value ‘R’ are connected as shown in figure. What is the equivalent resistance between ‘X’ and ‘Y’?

a)

R

b)

R/3

c)

3R

d)

R3

171.

A rod of length 25 cm is moving with a speed of 40 m s-1 in a uniform magnetic field of 0.2 T. The magnetic field is perpendicular to the rod and the direction of motion of the rod. The induced e.m.f across the ends of the rod is:

a)

0.2 V

b)

0.02 V

c)

2 V

d)

20 V

172.

In the relation λ x T1/2=0.693 , if decay constant of an element A is greater than decay constant of another element B then:

a)

Half life of element A is greater than half life of element B

b)

Half life of element A is smaller than half life of element B

c)

Half life of element A is equal to half life of element B

d)

Half life of element A is twice the half life of element B

173.

An external agency carries -5 μC of charge from infinity to a point in an electrostatic field and performs 25 joule of work. The potential at the given point is:

a)

5 V

b)

-5 V

c)

5 MV

d)

-5 MV

174.

A child is swinging a swing. He is 0.5 m above the ground at the lowest position. The highest position is at 3.5 m from the ground. If g=10 m s-2, then the velocity of the child at the lowest position of the swing is:

a)

2 15\sqrt[]{15}  ms-1

b)

30\sqrt[]{30}  ms-1

c)

2 60\sqrt[]{60} ms-1

d)

45\sqrt[]{45}  ms-1

175.

In half wave rectifier, if the time period of input A.C is 60 ms, then the frequency of ripple at output in hertz is:

a)

50

b)

20

c)

16.6

d)

33.3

176.

The velocity of a body travelling with a uniform acceleration of 3 m s-2 is 10 m s-1. What is its velocity after a time interval of 5 s?

a)

25 m s-1

b)

35 m s-1

c)

24 m s-1

d)

53 m s-1

177.

Spot the ERROR:

The leaves fell as yellow rain drops to the ground.

a)

The leaves

b)

fell

c)

as

d)

to

178.

Spot the ERROR:

It happened that one of the animals entered into a melon field, and a melon stuck in its throat.

a)

animals

b)

entered into

c)

stuck

d)

its

179.

Spot the ERROR:

I came to the country and they are wonderful friendly, and they let me see the great ceremony.

a)

they

b)

wonderful

c)

me

d)

see

180.

Spot the ERROR:

The lady bent down enough to permit him stoop and pick up her purse.

a)

bent down

b)

enough

c)

stoop

d)

pick up

181.

Spot the ERROR:

The child was fully dressed and sitting in her father’s lap near the kitchen table.

a)

fully dressed

b)

sitting

c)

in

d)

near

182.

Spot the ERROR:

Instantly the melon broke in the throat of the camel, and it was then easily swollen.

a)

broke

b)

then

c)

easily

d)

swollen

183.

Spot the ERROR:

It’s sweet pungent smell lingered in the village lanes whenever he walked in between them.

a)

It’s

b)

lingered

c)

lanes

d)

whenever

184.

Choose the correct sentence:

a)

The more the disease was cured; the more it became painful.

b)

The more the disease was cured, more it became painful.

c)

The more the disease was cured, the more it became painful.

d)

The more the disease was cured; the more it became painfully.

185.

Choose the correct sentence.

a)

The administration dare not increase the tax on cigarettes.

b)

The administration didn’t dare increase the tax on cigarettes.

c)

The administration didn’t dare to increase the tax on cigarettes.

d)

Both A & C.

186.

Choose the correct sentence.

a)

The Eiffel Tower is 300 metres high, and Notre Dame is 150 metres high. So the Eiffel Tower is 150 metres higher than Notre Dame.

b)

The Eiffel Tower is 300 metres high, and Notre Dame is 150 metres high. So the Eiffel Tower is 150 metres more high than Notre Dame.

c)

The Eiffel Tower is 300 metre high, and Notre Dame is 150 metre high. So the Eiffel Tower is 150 metres higher than Notre Dame.

d)

The Eiffel Tower is 300 metres high, and Notre Dame is 150 metres high. So the Eiffel Tower is 150 metres higher then Notre Dame.

187.

Choose the correct sentence.

a)

The Eiffel Tower is twice as higher as Notre Dame.

b)

The Eiffel Tower is twice so high as Notre Dame.

c)

The Eiffel Tower is twice as high as Notre Dame.

d)

The Eiffel Tower is twice as much higher as Notre Dame.

188.

Choose the correct sentence.

a)

Both of his parents were excellent cooks.

b)

His father and mother were both excellent cooks.

c)

Both A & B are right.

d)

Both A & B are wrong.

189.

As Aliya _____ the eldest child, she _____ look after the other children.

a)

was…has to

b)

is…had to

c)

is…has to

d)

were…had to

190.

Those ______could not afford pleasure inside were content to gaze at the lights.

a)

that

b)

who

c)

which

d)

whom

191.

Some tribes still inhabit ______the more remote mountains and jungles of the country.

a)

at

b)

in

c)

both A & B are right.

d)

both A & B are wrong.

192.

Choose the correct sentence.

a)

The girl did not move and seemed, inwardly, quite.

b)

The girl did not move and seemed, inwardly, quiet.

c)

The girl did not move and seemed, inward, quite.

d)

The girl not moved and seemed, inwardly, quiet.

193.

Choose the correct sentence.

a)

She knew that they cost too much for her to buy them.

b)

She knew that they costed too much for her to buy them.

c)

She knew that they cost very much for her to buy them.

d)

She knew they cost too much for her to buying them.

194.

Choose the correct sentence.

a)

The angel appears to have been made a slight mistake.

b)

The angel appears to had made a slight mistake.

c)

The angel appears to have made a slight mistake.

d)

The angel appears make a slight mistake.

195.
a)

42

b)

46

c)

48

d)

50

196.

Statements:

All aeroplanes are trains. Some trains are chairs.

Conclusions:

I. Some aeroplanes are chairs.

II. Some chairs are aeroplanes.

III. Some chairs are trains.

IV. Some trains are aeroplanes

a)

Only III and IV

b)

Only I and II

c)

Only II and III

d)

III and IV are inappropriate

197.

Anam, Mehwish Raju, Laraib and Dua are five cousins. Anam is twice as old as Mehwish. Raju is half the age Mehwish. Anam is half the age of Dua and Raju is twice the age of Laraib.

Whos is the eldest?

a)

Dua

b)

Laraib

c)

Anam

d)

None of these

198.

In the overall economy of Pakistan, agriculture is the largest sector of economic activity. It plays a crucial role in the country's economic development by providing food to its people and raw materials to industry. It accounts for the largest share to the national income. The share of the various agricultural commodities, animal husbandry and ancillary activities has been more than 40 percent since independence. During the decade of the fifties, it actually contributed about half of the national output.

Agriculture is the mainstay of Pakistan economy.

a)

Definitely true

b)

Probably true

c)

Data inadequate

d)

Probably false

e)

Definitely false

199.

Statement:

Many medical and engineering graduates are taking up jobs in administrative services and in banks.

Courses of action:

I) All the professionals should be advised to refrain from taking up such jobs.

II) The government should appoint a committee to find out the reasons for these professionals taking up such jobs and to suggest remedial measures.

a)

If only I is most appropriate

b)

If only II is most appropriate

c)

If either I or II is most appropriate

d)

If neither I nor II is most appropriate

e)

If both I and II are most appropriate

200.

I. Heavy rains totally flooded the area.

II. Residents of the area have been moved temporarily to other parts of the city.

a)

If Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect

b)

If Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect

c)

If Both the statements I and II are independent causes

d)

If Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes

e)

If Both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause